The GATE 2026 Chemistry (CY) question paper is now available with detailed solutions for free download. GATE 2026 CY was conducted by IIT Guwahati on February 7, 2026, in the afternoon session (2:30 PM to 5:30 PM), and the paper carried 65 questions for 100 marks in 3 hours.

GATE 2026 Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

GATE 2026 Chemistry Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

"He often the numbers. False claims are not going to help. Honesty trust", said the manager.
Choose the option with the correct order of words to fill the blanks.

  • (A) exaggerates; engenders
  • (B) excels; encourages
  • (C) aggravates; alleviates
  • (D) diminishes; eliminates

Question 2:

In the sequence of tiles shown below, the missing tile indicated by the question mark should be

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 3:

A school has 100 students distributed among 1st to 10th standards.
Based on this, which one of the following statements is always correct?

  • (A) There are at least 10 students who belong to the same standard.
  • (B) There is at least one student in each standard.
  • (C) There are at most 10 students in 10th standard.
  • (D) The total number of students from 1st to 5th standards is at least 50.

Question 4:

How many 3-digit numbers can be formed using three distinct single digit prime numbers?

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 4

Question 5:

In a group of students, 10 students like Mathematics, 12 students like English, 4 students like both Mathematics and English, and 6 students like neither Mathematics nor English. The number of students in the group is

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 32

Question 6:

Charity : P :: Retaliation : Q
Choose the appropriate pair of words P and Q that fit the analogy.

  • (A) P = Parsimonious; Q = Vengeful
  • (B) P = Altruistic; Q = Amicable
  • (C) P = Resentful; Q = Spiteful
  • (D) P = Magnanimous; Q = Vindictive

Question 7:

A paper shown in Panel I is folded along the dashed lines (- - -) to construct a cube. The shaded regions shown in Panel I appear on the outer surface of the cube. Referring to cubes shown in Panel II, which one of the options is correct?

  • (A) Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (B) Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (C) Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

Question 8:

Consider the cube shown below with its 8 corners labelled a, b, c, d, e, f, g, and h. The figure is representative. All corners are to be colored such that any two corners that are connected by an edge must be of different colors. The minimum number of colors required to achieve this is

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 9:

Four hills \(H_1, H_2, H_3\), and \(H_4\) are present in an area. The following observations are made about them:
(i) Neither \(H_2\) nor \(H_3\) is the easternmost hill.
(ii) Neither \(H_2\) nor \(H_3\) is the westernmost hill.
(iii) Neither the easternmost hill nor the westernmost hill is the southernmost hill.
(iv) Two hills are located to the west of \(H_2\).
(v) The southernmost hill has at least two hills to its east.
The southernmost hill is .

  • (A) \(H_1\)
  • (B) \(H_2\)
  • (C) \(H_3\)
  • (D) \(H_4\)

Question 10:

As shown in the figure, circle \(C_1\) with center \(O_1\) and radius \(r_1\) touches the square \(VWXY\) at points \(P\) and \(Q\), while circle \(C_2\) with center \(O_2\) and radius \(r_2\) touches the square \(VWXY\) at points \(R\) and \(S\). The two circles touch each other at \(T\).
Given \(r_1 = 1\) cm and \(\overline{VY} = \overline{VW} = 4\) cm, \(r_2 =\) cm.

  • (A) \(4 - 3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(1 + 2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(7 - 4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(5 + 3\sqrt{2}\)

Question 11:

The major product formed in the following reaction is:

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 12:

The correct statement about the following quaternary ammonium ion is:

  • (A) It has only \(C_2\)-symmetry, hence chiral
  • (B) It has \(S_4\)-symmetry, hence achiral
  • (C) It has no symmetry, hence chiral
  • (D) It has a centre of symmetry, hence achiral

Question 13:

The major product formed in the following reaction sequence is:
Step 1: \(\mathrm{C_6H_{13}{-}C{\equiv}CH}\) is treated with catecholborane, then heated.
Step 2: the product from Step 1 is treated with \(\mathrm{Br_2}\), then \(\mathrm{NaOMe}\).

  • (A) \(\mathrm{C_6H_{13}{-}CH{=}CH{-}Br}\) (E-configured: the hexyl chain and \(\mathrm{Br}\) on opposite sides of the double bond)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{C_6H_{13}{-}CH{=}CBr_2}\) (1,1-dibromoalkene: both \(\mathrm{Br}\) atoms on the terminal alkene carbon)
  • (C) \(\mathrm{C_6H_{13}{-}CH{=}CH{-}Br}\) (Z-configured: the hexyl chain and \(\mathrm{Br}\) on the same side of the double bond)
  • (D) \(\mathrm{C_6H_{13}{-}CBr{=}CH{-}Br}\) (1,2-dibromoalkene: one \(\mathrm{Br}\) on each alkene carbon)

Question 14:

The major product formed in the following reaction is:

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 15:

The species that undergoes \(\beta\)-elimination is

  • (A) \([\mathrm{Rh(C_5H_5)(P(CH_3)_3)(C_2H_5)}]^{+}\)
  • (B) \([\mathrm{Rh(NH_3)_5(C_2H_5)}]^{2+}\)
  • (C) \([\mathrm{Pt(P(C_6H_5)_3)_2(C_6H_5)I}]\)
  • (D) \([\mathrm{Cr(CH_2Si(CH_3)_3)_4}]\)

Question 16:

According to molecular orbital theory, the correct ground state electronic configuration for \(\mathrm{[Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}}\) ion is

  • (A) \(a_{1g}^{2}\ t_{1u}^{6}\ e_g^{4}\ t_{2g}^{6}\ e_g^{*0}\)
  • (B) \(a_{1g}^{2}\ t_{1u}^{6}\ t_{2g}^{6}\ e_g^{4}\ e_g^{*0}\)
  • (C) \(t_{1u}^{6}\ a_{1g}^{2}\ e_g^{4}\ t_{2g}^{6}\ e_g^{*0}\)
  • (D) \(a_{1g}^{2}\ t_{1u}^{6}\ e_g^{4}\ t_{2g}^{4}\ e_g^{*2}\)

Question 17:

The species which follows the 18-electron rule is
(\(en = \mathrm{ethylenediamine}\))

  • (A) \(\mathrm{[Rh(PPh_3)_3Cl]}\)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{[Co(NH_3)_6]^{2+}}\)
  • (C) \(\mathrm{[V(CO)_6]^{-}}\)
  • (D) \(\mathrm{[Ni(en)_3]^{2+}}\)

Question 18:

The point group of \(\mathrm{CH_2=C=CH_2}\) is

  • (A) \(D_{2h}\)
  • (B) \(C_{2h}\)
  • (C) \(C_{2v}\)
  • (D) \(D_{2d}\)

Question 19:

Among the following, the one for which the infrared active vibrational modes are Raman inactive and vice versa is

  • (A) \(\mathrm{H_2O}\)
  • (B) trans-planar conformer of \(\mathrm{H_2O_2}\)
  • (C) eclipsed conformer of ethane
  • (D) \(\mathrm{CH_4}\)

Question 20:

For the following reaction,
\(\mathrm{A + B \rightleftharpoons X^{\ddagger} \rightarrow product}\)
If the value of \(\Delta^{\ddagger}U^{o} = \dfrac{5}{2}RT\), then the value of \(\Delta^{\ddagger}H^{o}\) is
(\(X^{\ddagger}\) is an activated complex; \(\Delta^{\ddagger}U^{o}\) is the standard change in internal energy; \(\Delta^{\ddagger}H^{o}\) is the standard enthalpy of activation; \(R\) is the gas constant; \(T\) is the temperature)

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{2}RT\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{3}{2}RT\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{7}{2}RT\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{5}{2}RT\)

Question 21:

The reagent(s) that will effect the following transformation is(are)


(\(\mathrm{MEM} = \) methoxyethoxymethyl)

  • (A) \(\mathrm{Pd/C, H_2}\)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{ZnBr_2}\)
  • (C) Pyridinium p-toluenesulfonate (PPTS), \(^t\mathrm{BuOH}\)
  • (D) \(^{n}\mathrm{Bu_4NF}\)

Question 22:

The reaction(s) that give(s) meso-1,2-diphenylethane-1,2-diol as the major product is(are)

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 23:

In the \(^1\mathrm{H}\) NMR spectrum of compound \(\mathbf{X}\), the coupling constant (\(J_{ab}\)) between \(H_a\) and \(H_b\) is 3 Hz. The amino alcohol(s) that give(s) \(\mathbf{X}\) on reaction with methyl iodide followed by heating is(are)

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 24:

The correct statement(s) regarding plastocyanin is(are)

  • (A) It is an electron transfer protein
  • (B) It is intensely colored in its oxidised form
  • (C) Its central metal ion has a distorted tetrahedral geometry
  • (D) It contains \(S^{2-}\) bridged metal cluster

Question 25:

The correct statement(s) about Mossbauer spectroscopy of iron compounds is(are)

  • (A) \(^{57}\mathrm{Co}\) is used as a source
  • (B) Their Mossbauer spectra are obtained using \(\gamma\)-ray with resonance energy of 14.4 keV
  • (C) \(\mathrm{K_2[Fe(CN)_5NO]}\) shows large quadrupole splitting
  • (D) Isomer shift of \(\mathrm{FeSO_4 \cdot 7H_2O}\) is smaller than that of \(\mathrm{K_3[Fe(CN)_6]}\)

Question 26:

The interconversion of oxidation states of metal(s) observed in Wacker process is(are)

  • (A) \(\mathrm{Pd(II)/Pd(0)}\)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{Cu(II)/Cu(I)}\)
  • (C) \(\mathrm{Pd(IV)/Pd(II)}\)
  • (D) \(\mathrm{Cu(II)/Cu(0)}\)

Question 27:

For the wavefunction \(\Phi = x(a-x)\), where \(a\) is a constant, the correct statement(s) is(are)

  • (A) It represents a stationary state
  • (B) It is an odd function
  • (C) It represents the wavefunction of a particle moving on a circular ring of radius \(a\)
  • (D) It is an eigen function of the momentum operator

Question 28:

The correct statement(s) about spherical harmonics \((Y_l^m)\) is(are)

  • (A) All spherical harmonics are complex functions
  • (B) They are eigen functions of \(\hat{L}^2\)
  • (C) They are eigen functions of \(\hat{L}_z\)
  • (D) The spherical harmonics \(Y_1^1\) and \(Y_1^{-1}\) are degenerate

Question 29:

The difference in the number of gauche interactions present in diaxial and diequatorial chair conformations of trans-1,2-dimethylcyclohexane is (in integer).


Question 30:

The total number of symmetry operations (order, \(h\)) present in the point group of \([\mathrm{PdCl_6}]^{2-}\) is \(x\) and that in trans-\([\mathrm{PdBr_2Cl_4}]^{2-}\) is \(y\). The value of \(x-y\) is (in integer).


Question 31:

A 0.005 M solution of compound X transmits 80% of the incident light of wavelength (\(\lambda\)) 500 nm. The absorbance of 0.01 M solution of X is (rounded off to three decimal places).
(Given: path length = 1.0 cm)


Question 32:

The microwave spectrum of gaseous \(\mathrm{HF}\) consists of a series of lines separated by \(41.11\ \mathrm{cm^{-1}}\). The bond length (in \(\mathrm{\mathring{A}}\)) of \(\mathrm{HF}\) is (rounded off to two decimal places).

(Given: Atomic mass (in amu): \(\mathrm{H} = 1.008\), \(\mathrm{F} = 18.998\); \(1\ \mathrm{amu} = 1.661\times10^{-27}\ \mathrm{kg}\); \(h = 6.626\times10^{-34}\ \mathrm{J\,s}\); \(c = 2.998\times10^{8}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}\))


Question 33:

In a \(^1\mathrm{H}\) NMR spectrum obtained from a spectrometer operating at a magnetic field of \(14.1\ \mathrm{T}\), two resonances are observed at \(1.25\) ppm and \(5.75\) ppm. The separation between the two resonances (in Hz) is (rounded off to one decimal place).

(Given: gyromagnetic ratio (\(\gamma\)) of \(\mathrm{H} = 2.675\times10^{8}\ \mathrm{T^{-1}\,s^{-1}}\))


Question 34:

The maximum work (\(|W_{max}|\), in kJ) that can be obtained by complete combustion of \(1.0\) mol of \(\mathrm{CH_4}\) at constant pressure and \(25^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) is (rounded off to one decimal place).

(Given: \(\Delta S = -241.60\ \mathrm{J\,K^{-1}\,mol^{-1}}\); \(\Delta H = -890.01\ \mathrm{kJ\,mol^{-1}}\); \(R = 8.314\ \mathrm{J\,mol^{-1}\,K^{-1}}\))


Question 35:

If the ionic mobility of \(\mathrm{Ag^+}\) ion in a very dilute aqueous solution of \(\mathrm{AgNO_3}\) at \(298\ \mathrm{K}\) is \(y\times10^{-8}\ \mathrm{m^2\,V^{-1}\,s^{-1}}\), then the value of \(y\) is (rounded off to two decimal places).

(Given: viscosity of water at \(298\ \mathrm{K} = 8.94\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}\,s^{-1}}\); \(k = 1.38\times10^{-23}\ \mathrm{J\,K^{-1}}\); \(F = 96500\ \mathrm{C\,mol^{-1}}\); \(R = 8.314\ \mathrm{J\,mol^{-1}\,K^{-1}}\); Stokes radius of \(\mathrm{Ag^+} = 0.15\ \mathrm{nm}\))


Question 36:

The major product formed in the following reaction is

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 37:

The correct match for the protons labeled in compound \(\mathrm{X}\) in Column M with the corresponding chemical shifts (\(\delta\), ppm) in Column N is


Column MColumn N
P\(H_a\)I7.00 (ddd, \(J\) = 8.4, 7.3, 1.4 Hz, 1H)
Q\(H_b\)II7.17 (dd, \(J\) = 8.4, 1.4 Hz, 1H)
R\(H_c\)III7.59 (ddd, \(J\) = 8.4, 7.3, 1.4 Hz, 1H)
S\(H_d\)IV8.12 (dd, \(J\) = 8.4, 1.4 Hz, 1H)

  • (A) \(P\rightarrow II;\ Q\rightarrow III;\ R\rightarrow I;\ S\rightarrow IV\)
  • (B) \(P\rightarrow I;\ Q\rightarrow IV;\ R\rightarrow II;\ S\rightarrow III\)
  • (C) \(P\rightarrow II;\ Q\rightarrow IV;\ R\rightarrow I;\ S\rightarrow III\)
  • (D) \(P\rightarrow I;\ Q\rightarrow III;\ R\rightarrow II;\ S\rightarrow IV\)

Question 38:

The correct statement about the intermediate formed in the following reaction is

  • (A)
    is formed through conrotatory opening of \(\mathrm{X}\)
  • (B)
    is formed through disrotatory opening of \(\mathrm{X}\)
  • (C)
    is formed through conrotatory opening of \(\mathrm{X}\)
  • (D)
    is formed through disrotatory opening of \(\mathrm{X}\)

Question 39:

The major product formed in the following reaction sequence is:

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 40:

Consider the figure given below, where M is a metal and L is a monodentate ligand. The \(\sigma\)-bonding ligand group orbital (LGO) having same symmetry with \(d_{z^2}\) orbital of M in the octahedral coordination geometry is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{12}}\left(2\sigma_1+2\sigma_2-\sigma_3-\sigma_4-\sigma_5-\sigma_6\right)\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{12}}\left(2\sigma_1-2\sigma_2+\sigma_3-\sigma_4+\sigma_5-\sigma_6\right)\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{6}}\left(\sigma_1+\sigma_2-\sigma_3-\sigma_4-\sigma_5-\sigma_6\right)\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{6}}\left(\sigma_1+\sigma_2+\sigma_3+\sigma_4+\sigma_5+\sigma_6\right)\)

Question 41:

The correct electronic configuration of central metal ion in ferrocene with \(z\)-axis passing through the centre of two \(\mathrm{C_5H_5^-}\) rings and the metal ion is:

  • (A) \(d_{xy}^2 = d_{x^2-y^2}^2 < d_{z^2}^2 < d_{xz}^0 = d_{yz}^0\)
  • (B) \(d_{xz}^2 = d_{yz}^2 < d_{z^2}^2 < d_{x^2-y^2}^0 = d_{xy}^0\)
  • (C) \(d_{xy}^2 = d_{xz}^2 = d_{yz}^2 < d_{x^2-y^2}^0 = d_{z^2}^0\)
  • (D) \(d_{xy}^2 < d_{xz}^2 = d_{yz}^2 < d_{x^2-y^2}^0 < d_{z^2}^0\)

Question 42:

The pair of complex ions that exhibits the slowest outer-sphere electron-exchange reaction at 25 \(^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) is:

  • (A) \(\mathrm{[Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{[Co(NH_3)_6]^{2+}}\)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{[Fe(H_2O)_6]^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{[Fe(H_2O)_6]^{2+}}\)
  • (C) \(\mathrm{[Ru(NH_3)_6]^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{[Ru(NH_3)_6]^{2+}}\)
  • (D) \(\mathrm{[Mn(CN)_6]^{3-}}\) and \(\mathrm{[Mn(CN)_6]^{4-}}\)

Question 43:

The structure of \(\mathrm{B_4H_{10}}\) is given below. Its styx number is:

  • (A) 4012
  • (B) 4102
  • (C) 2104
  • (D) 2014

Question 44:

For the following reaction,
\[ 2\,\mathrm{Pb_3O_4(s)} \rightleftharpoons 6\,\mathrm{PbO(s)} + \mathrm{O_2(g)} \] The correct option showing the number of phases (P), number of components (C) and degrees of freedom (F) is:

  • (A) P = 3, C = 2, F = 1
  • (B) P = 3, C = 3, F = 2
  • (C) P = 2, C = 3, F = 3
  • (D) P = 2, C = 2, F = 2

Question 45:

The correct option for the average value of kinetic energy and the average value of potential energy of a one-dimensional harmonic oscillator with frequency \(\nu\) in its ground state is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{h\nu}{2}\) and \(\dfrac{h\nu}{4}\), respectively
  • (B) \(\dfrac{h\nu}{2}\) and \(\dfrac{h\nu}{2}\), respectively
  • (C) \(\dfrac{h\nu}{4}\) and \(\dfrac{h\nu}{4}\), respectively
  • (D) \(\dfrac{h\nu}{4}\) and \(\dfrac{h\nu}{2}\), respectively

Question 46:

For a reaction between neutral molecules \(\mathrm{X}\) and \(\mathrm{Y}\) in a solution at temperature \(T\), the measured rate of reaction is equal to the rate of diffusion. Assume \(\mathrm{X}\) is stationary and \(\mathrm{Y}\) is moving. If the diameter of the molecule \(\mathrm{X}\) is five times that of \(\mathrm{Y}\), then the rate constant for the reaction is
(\(\eta\) is viscosity of the solvent; \(k\) is the Boltzmann constant)

  • (A) \(\dfrac{8kT}{3\eta}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{4kT}{\eta}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{24kT}{5\eta}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{15kT}{4\eta}\)

Question 47:

For the following electrochemical cells, liquid junction potentials affect the cell potential (\(E_{cell}\)).
I. \(\mathrm{Electrode\text{-}1 \mid 0.1\ M\ KCl \parallel 0.1\ M\ NaCl \mid Electrode\text{-}2}\)
II. \(\mathrm{Electrode\text{-}1 \mid 0.1\ M\ HCl \parallel 0.01\ M\ HCl \mid Electrode\text{-}2}\)
III. \(\mathrm{Electrode\text{-}1 \mid 0.01\ M\ KCl \parallel 0.01\ M\ HCl \mid Electrode\text{-}2}\)
The correct order of their \(E_{cell}\) at \(25^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) is

  • (A) I > II > III
  • (B) II > I > III
  • (C) III = I > II
  • (D) II > I = III

Question 48:

The set(s) of reagents that will effect the following conversion is(are)

  • (A) i) \(\mathrm{Ph_3P{=}CHOMe}\); ii) \(\mathrm{H_3O^+}\)
  • (B) i) \(\mathrm{TsNHNH_2}\); ii) \(^{n}\mathrm{BuLi}\) (2 equiv) then \(\mathrm{DMF}\)
  • (C) i) 1,3-dithiane, \(^{n}\mathrm{BuLi}\); ii) \(\mathrm{HgSO_4}\), dil. \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\)
  • (D) i) \(\mathrm{Me_3SI}\), \(\mathrm{NaH}\); ii) \(\mathrm{BF_3\cdot OEt_2}\)

Question 49:

The reaction(s) that produce(s) the following compound is(are)

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 50:

The reaction(s) that produce(s) 2-methylindole as the major product is(are)

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 51:

Chymotrypsin selectively cleaves a peptide at the carboxyl side of the amino acids having an aryl sidechain. The tripeptide(s) formed on hydrolysis of the peptide, \(\mathrm{Val\text{-}Phe\text{-}Leu\text{-}Met\text{-}Tyr\text{-}Pro\text{-}Gly\text{-}Trp\text{-}Cys}\), with chymotrypsin is(are)

  • (A) Leu-Met-Tyr
  • (B) Phe-Leu-Met
  • (C) Pro-Gly-Trp
  • (D) Tyr-Pro-Gly

Question 52:

Consider the given pairs of complex ions. The correct pair(s) in which each complex ion exhibits three spin-allowed \(d\text{-}d\) transitions (excluding those arising due to distortions) is(are)

  • (A) \(\mathrm{[V(H_2O)_6]^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{[Ni(H_2O)_6]^{2+}}\)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{[Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{[NiCl_4]^{2-}}\)
  • (C) \(\mathrm{[Ti(H_2O)_6]^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{[Mn(H_2O)_6]^{2+}}\)
  • (D) \(\mathrm{[FeF_6]^{3-}}\) and \(\mathrm{[FeCl_4]^{2-}}\)

Question 53:

The correct statement(s) about the structure of metal oxides is(are)

  • (A) Spinel has 8 tetrahedral sites and 4 octahedral sites per formula unit
  • (B) \(\mathrm{BaTiO_3}\) has a perovskite structure
  • (C) In \(\mathrm{Fe_3O_4}\), \(\mathrm{Fe^{2+}}\) occupies both tetrahedral and octahedral sites in the unit cell
  • (D) \(\gamma\text{-}\mathrm{Al_2O_3}\) is a defect spinel

Question 54:

The pair(s) of lanthanide ions whose ground state term symbols have same spin multiplicity \((2S+1)\) and orbital angular momentum \((L)\), but different spin-orbit coupling \((J)\) is(are)
(Given: Atomic number: \(\mathrm{Nd}=60\); \(\mathrm{Pm}=61\); \(\mathrm{Ho}=67\); \(\mathrm{Er}=68\))

  • (A) \(\mathrm{Pm^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{Ho^{3+}}\)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{Nd^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{Er^{3+}}\)
  • (C) \(\mathrm{Pm^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{Nd^{3+}}\)
  • (D) \(\mathrm{Ho^{3+}}\) and \(\mathrm{Er^{3+}}\)

Question 55:

The correct statement(s) about enterobactin (ent) is(are)

  • (A) It has three catechol moieties
  • (B) It has a serine-trilactone backbone
  • (C) It binds with \(\mathrm{Fe^{3+}}\) ion to form \(\mathrm{[Fe(ent)]^{3-}}\) ion
  • (D) It has three hydroxamic acid groups

Question 56:

The correct statement(s) for a surface catalyzed unimolecular gaseous reaction is(are)

  • (A) It follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm
  • (B) Zero order kinetics is followed at sufficiently high pressure of the reacting molecules
  • (C) First order kinetics is followed at very low pressure of the reacting molecules
  • (D) Rate of the reaction is proportional to the fraction of surface covered by the reacting molecules

Question 57:

Consider the following reaction sequence, where \(\mathrm{A}\) and \(\mathrm{B}\) are the major products.


In proton-decoupled \(^{13}\mathrm{C}\) NMR spectra, the total number of carbon signals observed for \(\mathrm{A}\) and \(\mathrm{B}\) is (in integer).


Question 58:

On heating, the compound \(\mathrm{Z}\) undergoes a series of 1,5-H/D shifts to give a mixture of its isomers.


The total number of isomers present in the mixture (including \(\mathrm{Z}\)) is (in integer).


Question 59:

The sum of bond orders of metal-metal bonds in \([\mathrm{Os_2Cl_8}]^{2-}\), \([\mathrm{Re_2Cl_8}]^{2-}\), \([\mathrm{W_2(NMe_2)_6}]\) and \([\mathrm{Mo(C_5H_5)(CO)_2}]_2\) is (in integer).


Question 60:

The sum of the number of \(\alpha\)-particles and \(\beta\)-particles emitted in the nuclear decay process, \(^{238}_{92}\mathrm{U} \rightarrow\, ^{206}_{82}\mathrm{Pb}\), is (in integer).


Question 61:

The positions of two atoms in spherical polar coordinates \((r, \theta, \Phi)\) are \((1, \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2})\) and \((1, \frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{3\pi}{2})\), where the distance is in \(\overset{\circ}{\mathrm{A}}\) and the angles are in radian. The interatomic distance (in \(\overset{\circ}{\mathrm{A}}\)) is (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 62:

If the translational partition function for \(\mathrm{H_2}\) confined in a 1 L vessel at 300 K is \(y \times 10^{27}\), then the value of \(y\) is (rounded off to one decimal place).
(Given: Atomic mass (in amu): H = 1.008; 1 amu = \(1.661 \times 10^{-27}\) kg; \(h = 6.626 \times 10^{-34}\) J s; \(k = 1.381 \times 10^{-23}\) J K\(^{-1}\))


Question 63:

In a calibrated pH meter comprising of glass electrode-standard calomel electrode, the potential for a buffer solution of pH 4.01 is measured as 0.814 V at 25\(^{\circ}\)C. For a \(4.0 \times 10^{-3}\) M solution of acetic acid, the measured potential (in V) is (rounded off to three decimal places).
(Given: \(K_a\) of acetic acid at 25\(^{\circ}\)C = \(1.75 \times 10^{-5}\); \(2.303RT/F = 0.059\); Assume: \(a_{H^+} = [H^+]\))


Question 64:

The Brunauer-Emmett-Teller (BET) surface area measurement data for adsorption of \(\mathrm{N_2}\) gas at 77 K on 1.0 g of an adsorbent fits into a straight line, when \(\dfrac{z}{(1-z)V}\) is plotted against \(z\). The slope and intercept of the straight line are \(6 \times 10^{-4}\) mm\(^{-3}\) and \(4 \times 10^{-6}\) mm\(^{-3}\), respectively. The surface area (in m\(^2\) g\(^{-1}\)) of the adsorbent is (rounded off to one decimal place).
(Given: 1 mm\(^3\) of \(\mathrm{N_2}\) gas corresponds to \(2.7 \times 10^{16}\) molecules and each molecule occupies 0.16 nm\(^2\). \(V\) is the volume of gas adsorbed in mm\(^3\), \(z\) is \(p/p_o\), where \(p\) is the pressure of the \(\mathrm{N_2}\) gas and \(p_o\) is equilibrium vapour pressure of liquid \(\mathrm{N_2}\))


Question 65:

The orbital angular momentum (\(\mathbf{L}\)) of an electron is \(\sqrt{12}\,\hbar\). The minimum angle between \(\mathbf{L}\) and its \(z\)-component (in degrees) is (rounded off to one decimal place).

GATE 2026 Chemistry Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

As per the information bulletin on the official website (gate2026.iitg.ac.in), GATE 2026 CY is a single 3-hour computer-based test covering General Aptitude and the core Chemistry syllabus, which is split into Physical, Organic, and Inorganic Chemistry.

  • Total questions: 65, made up of 33 single-correct MCQs, 16 Multiple Select (MSQ) questions, and 16 Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions
  • Duration: 3 hours
  • Total marks: 100 - General Aptitude carries 15 marks (10 questions) and the core Chemistry section carries 85 marks (55 questions)
  • Mark split: questions 1 to 5 and 11 to 35 carry 1 mark each; questions 6 to 10 and 36 to 65 carry 2 marks each
  • Marking scheme: a wrong MCQ answer costs 1/3 mark on a 1-mark question and 2/3 mark on a 2-mark question; NAT and MSQ questions carry no negative marking

High-Weightage Areas in GATE 2026 Chemistry to Focus On First

Going through this year's 65 solved questions, Physical Chemistry was the heaviest section, followed closely by Organic and Inorganic Chemistry.

  • Physical Chemistry: 21 questions - the largest block, led by Quantum Chemistry (about 5 questions on operators, spherical harmonics, and angular momentum), with Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Chemical Thermodynamics, and molecular Spectroscopy close behind
  • Organic Chemistry: 18 questions, spread across reaction mechanisms and rearrangements, pericyclic reactions, and stereochemistry (four questions on relative configuration and chirality alone)
  • Inorganic Chemistry: 16 questions, with Organometallic Chemistry the single busiest topic (about 5 questions), plus Coordination Chemistry, Bioinorganic Chemistry, boranes, and lanthanide term symbols
  • General Aptitude: 10 questions worth 15 marks, mixing verbal reasoning, spatial reasoning, and quantitative puzzles

GATE 2026 Chemistry Paper Analysis Video

Source: NPTEL

How to Use the GATE 2026 CY Question Paper for Practice

Treat this paper as a timed mock before you look at a single solution.

  • Attempt all 65 questions in 3 hours under exam conditions first, without checking the solution PDF
  • Score yourself with the marking scheme above (MCQ negative marking, NAT and MSQ with no negative marking) to get a realistic number
  • Since Physical Chemistry carried the most questions this year, redo every Quantum Chemistry, Electrochemistry, and Kinetics question you got wrong before moving to lower-weightage topics
  • Use the solution PDF's step-by-step working for the Numerical Answer Type questions - the physical-chemistry NAT problems in this paper carried the longest, most calculation-heavy solutions
  • Re-attempt the paper a second time a week later, focusing only on the areas where you lost marks

GATE 2026 Chemistry Question Paper FAQs

Ques. Was GATE 2026 Chemistry tougher than previous years?

Ans. Post-exam analysis rated GATE 2026 CY as moderate to difficult. The Multiple Select questions and the calculation-based Numerical Answer Type questions in Physical Chemistry were the trickiest, while most General Aptitude and factual Inorganic Chemistry questions were comparatively easier.

Ques. Which areas had the highest weightage in GATE 2026 Chemistry?

Ans. Physical Chemistry led with 21 questions, followed by Organic Chemistry with 18 and Inorganic Chemistry with 16. Within these, Quantum Chemistry and Organometallic Chemistry were the busiest individual topics.

Ques. How many questions in GATE 2026 CY were General Aptitude versus core Chemistry?

Ans. General Aptitude had 10 questions worth 15 marks. The remaining 55 questions came from the core Chemistry syllabus (Physical, Organic, and Inorganic) worth 85 marks, for 100 marks total.

Ques. Is there negative marking in GATE 2026 Chemistry?

Ans. Yes, but only for MCQs - a wrong answer costs 1/3 mark on a 1-mark MCQ and 2/3 mark on a 2-mark MCQ. Numerical Answer Type (NAT) and Multiple Select (MSQ) questions carry no negative marking, so it is safer to attempt those even when you are not fully sure.

Ques. When was the GATE 2026 result declared?

Ans. The GATE 2026 result was declared on March 19, 2026, with scorecards available for free download from March 27 to May 31, 2026, on the official GOAPS portal.

Ques. Where can I download the GATE 2026 Chemistry question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. Use the download table above on Collegedunia for the free question paper and solutions PDF. For the official paper and provisional answer key, check gate2026.iitg.ac.in.