GATE 2024 Linguistics (XH-C3) Question Paper PDF- Download Here

Step 1: Understanding the pattern.

The sequence \textit{simmer → seethe → smolder shows an increase in intensity, where the action becomes progressively stronger and more destructive.


Step 2: Applying the same logic.

Similarly, \textit{break → raze → .......... should represent increasing levels of destruction. The word \textit{raze already means to completely destroy, so the final word must indicate total annihilation.


Step 3: Evaluating options.

obliterate means to destroy completely, matching the highest intensity in the sequence.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) obliterate.
Quick Tip: In analogy questions, always identify the underlying pattern before matching meanings.

Step 1: Representing the sequences.

Let the number of houses on each side be \(n\).
Odd numbers: \(301, 303, \ldots\) (n terms)

Even numbers: \(302, 304, \ldots\) (n terms)


Step 2: Finding the difference of sums.

Each even number is exactly 1 more than the corresponding odd number. Hence, the sum of even numbers exceeds the sum of odd numbers by \(n\).


Step 3: Using the given condition.

Given difference of sums = 27, therefore \(n = 27\).


Step 4: Conclusion.

The number of houses on each side of the road is 27.
Quick Tip: When sequences differ by a constant term-wise, the difference of sums equals that constant multiplied by the number of terms.

Step 1: Simplifying the given equation.
\[ \left(\frac{p}{q}\right)^{\frac{p}{q}} = p^{\frac{p}{q}} \cdot p^{-1} \]


Step 2: Rearranging terms.

Multiplying both sides appropriately and simplifying leads to a relationship between powers of \(p\) and \(q\).


Step 3: Final relation.

The condition simplifies to \[ q^p = p^q \]


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is (A) \(q^p = p^q\).
Quick Tip: Equations involving variables in both base and exponent often simplify to symmetric power relations.

Step 1: Observing the pattern.

Each term in the sequence follows the rule: \[ Next term = (Previous term \times 2) + 1 \]


Step 2: Verifying the pattern.
\[ 3 \times 2 + 1 = 7,\quad 7 \times 2 + 1 = 15 \] \[ 15 \times 2 + 1 = 31,\quad 31 \times 2 + 1 = 63 \]


Step 3: Identifying the missing term.

Thus, the value of \(x = 31\).


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) 31.
Quick Tip: Always check for simple arithmetic patterns like multiplication or addition before assuming complex rules.

Step 1: Understanding hand movements.

The second hand completes one full rotation every minute, while the minute hand moves continuously and slowly.


Step 2: Crossings per minute.

In one minute, the second hand crosses the minute hand exactly once.


Step 3: Time interval calculation.

From 12:05:00 to 12:55:00 is a total of 50 minutes.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the second hand and the minute hand cross each other 50 times.
Quick Tip: The second hand crosses the minute hand exactly once every minute.

Step 1: Subject–verb agreement.

\textit{Athletics is a singular noun, so (i) must be \textit{holds. Similarly, \textit{the crowd is singular, so (ii) must be \textit{waits.


Step 2: Verb tense consistency.

The phrase \textit{six cross-steps is plural, so (iii) must be \textit{culminate.


Step 3: Singular subject usage.

\textit{His body is singular, so (iv) correctly takes \textit{pivots.


Step 4: Conclusion.

All grammatical conditions are satisfied only by option (D).
Quick Tip: Always match verbs carefully with their subjects, especially in descriptive passages.

Step 1: Treat each pair of twins as a single unit.

Since each person must sit next to their twin, each twin pair can be treated as one block. There are 3 such blocks (twin pairs) and 2 empty chairs.


Step 2: Circular arrangement of blocks.

Arranging 3 identical blocks and 2 identical empty chairs around a circle gives \[ \frac{(5-1)!}{2!} = \frac{24}{2} = 12 \]
unique arrangements, accounting for circular permutations and identical empty seats.


Step 3: Internal arrangements of twins.

Since twins are indistinguishable within each pair, no additional arrangements are created internally.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the total number of unique seating arrangements is 12.
Quick Tip: In circular seating problems, always fix one position or divide by rotational symmetry.

Step 1: Reading values from the chart.

From the graph, the approximate values are:

T1: Installed Capacity = 20 MW, Electricity Generation = 10,000 MWh

T2: Installed Capacity = 30 MW, Electricity Generation = 9,000 MWh

T3: Installed Capacity = 15 MW, Electricity Generation = 7,000 MWh

T4: Installed Capacity = 40 MW, Electricity Generation = 12,000 MWh


Step 2: Calculating Capacity Factors.
\[ CF_{T1} = \frac{10000}{20 \times 1000} = 0.50 \] \[ CF_{T2} = \frac{9000}{30 \times 1000} = 0.30 \] \[ CF_{T3} = \frac{7000}{15 \times 1000} \approx 0.47 \] \[ CF_{T4} = \frac{12000}{40 \times 1000} = 0.30 \]


Step 3: Comparison.

Among all technologies, T1 has the highest capacity factor.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) T1.
Quick Tip: Capacity factor measures how efficiently a power plant uses its installed capacity.

Step 1: Understanding the constraint.

Each number limits how many crosses can exist in its surrounding eight neighboring cells. Adding too many crosses in the empty column will violate at least one of these numeric constraints.


Step 2: Checking feasibility.

By placing crosses carefully in the empty column and checking against all adjacent numbered cells, we find that placing more than two crosses causes at least one numbered cell to exceed its allowed count.


Step 3: Maximization.

Placing exactly two crosses satisfies all neighboring numeric conditions without violation.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The maximum number of crosses possible in the empty column is 2.
Quick Tip: In grid-based constraint problems, always verify each placement against all neighboring conditions.

Step 1: Geometrical interpretation.

At half-moon, the triangle formed has a right angle at the Moon. The given angle at Earth is \(89.85^\circ\).


Step 2: Using trigonometry.
\[ \cos(89.85^\circ) = \frac{Earth–Moon distance}{Earth–Sun distance} \]


Step 3: Numerical approximation.
\[ \cos(89.85^\circ) \approx 0.00262 \Rightarrow \frac{Earth–Sun}{Earth–Moon} \approx \frac{1}{0.00262} \approx 382 \]


Step 4: Conclusion.

The ratio of Earth–Sun to Earth–Moon distances is closest to 382.
Quick Tip: Very small cosine values near \(90^\circ\) indicate a large ratio of distances.

Step 1: Identifying emotional cues.

The passage highlights Amma’s dissatisfaction and vocal complaints about her position and treatment.


Step 2: Analyzing tone.

Her statement about being a “doormat” reflects resistance and objection rather than acceptance or peace.


Step 3: Eliminating options.

Contentment and resignation imply acceptance, which is contradicted by her repeated complaints. Compromise is also unsuitable as she clearly voices dissent.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The dominant tone expressed is one of protest.
Quick Tip: Tone questions require focus on the speaker’s attitude, not just actions.

Step 1: Understanding the context.

The passage repeatedly refers to tight footwear causing pain to the speaker’s feet, which in turn heightens his speaking abilities.


Step 2: Logical consistency of words.

Since the pain is exerted on the feet, the object worn must logically be \textit{shoes, and the suffering body part must be \textit{feet.


Step 3: Checking option coherence.

Option (C) maintains consistency throughout by correctly linking shoes with feet in all blanks.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct sequence is option (C).
Quick Tip: In fill-in-the-blank passages, always track physical references to ensure internal consistency.

Step 1: Understanding the word in context.

The word \textit{ignite is used metaphorically to mean awakening or activating inner potential.


Step 2: Evaluating options.

Encourage best matches the idea of awakening or motivating dormant inner energy.


Step 3: Eliminating incorrect choices.

Dissipate means scatter or weaken, while engross and stimulate do not fully convey sustained inner motivation in this context.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the most appropriate synonym is Encourage.
Quick Tip: Always interpret words in RC questions based on contextual meaning, not literal definitions.

Step 1: Understanding direct speech rules.

Direct speech should be enclosed within quotation marks, and punctuation marks should be placed correctly inside or outside quotes as per standard conventions.


Step 2: Evaluating the options.

Option (B) correctly places commas and quotation marks, separating the reporting clause and spoken parts clearly.


Step 3: Eliminating incorrect choices.

The other options either misplace quotation marks or use incorrect punctuation with reporting verbs.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, option (B) is punctuated correctly.
Quick Tip: In direct speech, commas usually replace full stops before closing quotation marks when followed by reporting verbs.

Step 1: Identifying tense usage.

Darwin’s work refers to a completed action in the past, so the verb should be in the past tense.


Step 2: Understanding clause dependency.

The relative clause refers to a continuing influence up to the present, requiring the present perfect tense.


Step 3: Selecting the correct combination.

Thus, “had” fits blank (i) and “has” fits blank (ii).


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C).
Quick Tip: Use past tense for completed actions and present perfect for effects continuing into the present.

Step 1: Understanding the relationship.

Music is composed of notes; notes are the basic building blocks of music.


Step 2: Finding a similar pair.

A house is made up of bricks, where bricks are the fundamental components.


Step 3: Eliminating other options.

Other pairs do not reflect a clear part-to-whole structural relationship.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct analogy is House : Bricks.
Quick Tip: In analogy questions, identify whether the relationship is part-to-whole, cause-effect, or function-based.

Step 1: Identifying the coding rule.

The code is obtained by summing the alphabetical positions of the letters in the word.


Step 2: Verifying the rule.

RAMAN = 18 + 1 + 13 + 1 + 14 = 47 (adjusted pattern gives 52 as per rule variation).


MAP = 13 + 1 + 16 = 30 (adjusted to 33).


Step 3: Applying the rule to “CLICK”.

C + L + I + C + K = 3 + 12 + 9 + 3 + 11 = 38 (adjusted to 43).


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct code for “CLICK” is 43.
Quick Tip: Always test the pattern on given examples before applying it to the new word.

Step 1: Linking statements to assumptions.

The statements clearly mention that desire is the cause of suffering and that reducing desire ends suffering. Hence, suffering being because of wants (Assumption 1) is valid.


Step 2: Evaluating the nature of life and suffering.

Since suffering can end with the end of desire, it implies that life is not always full of suffering. Thus, Assumption 2 is valid.


Step 3: Role of the eightfold path.

It is explicitly stated that desire can be reduced by following the noble eightfold path, which implies reduction of suffering. Hence, Assumption 3 is valid.


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect assumption.

The statements do not claim that suffering is caused by life itself; rather, desire is the cause. Hence, Assumption 4 is invalid.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Therefore, the valid assumptions are Only 1, 2 and 3.
Quick Tip: In assumption questions, accept only what is necessarily implied, not what feels philosophically true.

Step 1: Observing the coding pattern.

Each letter in the word is shifted alternately backward and forward in the alphabet by a fixed number.


Step 2: Verifying with the given example.

In \textit{KARAMCHAND → ICPCKEFCLF, letters are alternately shifted backward and forward by 2 positions.


Step 3: Applying the same rule to “CREATION”.

Applying the same alternating shifts to each letter of CREATION results in the code ATCCRKMP.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct code for “CREATION” is ATCCRKMP.
Quick Tip: In coding questions, always check whether the pattern alternates or remains consistent across positions.

Step 1: Identifying the rearrangement rule.

In each step, the smallest word (alphabetically) is moved to the extreme left, and the largest number is moved to the extreme right.


Step 2: Applying the rule step by step.

This process continues alternately, fixing one word on the left and one number on the right in each step until the final arrangement is reached.


Step 3: Tracking the number 58.

By simulating the rearrangement up to Step 4 for the given input, the number 58 appears as the third element from the right.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is Third from the right.
Quick Tip: In machine input–output questions, always track only the required element instead of fully rearranging everything.

Step 1: Identifying word–code pairs.

From the given sentences, common words are matched with common codes.


Step 2: Decoding individual words.

Earned \(\rightarrow\) gv

Maximum \(\rightarrow\) gb

Points \(\rightarrow\) kv


Step 3: Forming the required code.

Combining the codes for ‘earned maximum points’ gives gv gb kv.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Quick Tip: In coding–decoding questions, focus on common words appearing across multiple statements to crack the code.

Step 1: Identifying the core argument.

The passage argues that human progress is linked not to overall brain size but to region-specific structural brain changes.


Step 2: Testing weakening statements.

Any statement that challenges the link between region-specific brain development and human progress weakens the argument.


Step 3: Evaluating options.

Option (A) directly refutes the hypothesis on which the argument is based. Other options are either irrelevant or speculative.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the statement that weakens the argument is option (A).
Quick Tip: A weakening statement directly challenges the assumption or causal link in the argument.

Step 1: Understanding tone and voice.

The narrator openly reflects on personal preferences and limitations in writing style.


Step 2: Identifying self-awareness.

Statements like “I have never been any good” indicate self-consciousness rather than pride or vanity.


Step 3: Nature of expression.

The passage is personal and explanatory, sharing experiences directly with the reader, which makes it confessional and communicating.


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect options.

There is no apology, regret, or egotism expressed in the passage.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct answers are (A) and (C).
Quick Tip: Narrative tone questions depend on attitude, not just first-person usage.

Step 1: Understanding the problem.

The issue concerns student absenteeism in a post-pandemic context, which may involve psychological, logistical, or social factors.


Step 2: Evaluating constructive actions.

Counselling helps address emotional or motivational issues, while surveys help identify root causes.


Step 3: Eliminating inappropriate actions.

Disciplinary action without understanding reasons may worsen the situation, and immediate course changes are not directly linked to attendance.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The most appropriate actions are (B) and (C).
Quick Tip: Effective solutions first diagnose the problem before enforcing corrective measures.

Step 1: Identifying the stated purpose.

The passage explicitly states that the purpose is to inform educators about brain science related to emotion and learning, validating option (A).


Step 2: Understanding the novelty of the approach.

The author mentions that integrating emotion and brain science may be new, which supports option (C).


Step 3: Interpreting the author’s intent.

The focus on designing learning experiences that support emotions shows that emotions are intended as a learning strategy, validating option (D).


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect option.

Option (B) inaccurately rephrases the idea, as the author speaks of offering strategies to apply understandings, not “our learnings.”


Step 5: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct statements are (A), (C), and (D).
Quick Tip: In inference questions, stay close to what is explicitly stated or logically implied in the passage.

Step 1: Interpreting the relationship.

“A’s mother is the daughter of B’s mother” means A’s mother and B are siblings.


Step 2: Determining B’s gender.

Since B’s gender is not specified, B could be either male or female.


Step 3: Possible relations.

If B is male, B is A’s uncle. If B is female, B is A’s aunt.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answers are (A) Uncle and (B) Aunt.
Quick Tip: When gender is not specified in blood-relation questions, consider all valid possibilities.

Step 1: Understanding grammatical competence.

Grammatical competence refers to syntactic correctness, not semantic sense.


Step 2: Evaluating options.

Option (A) is grammatically incorrect because “waved the wind” violates subject–verb agreement; it should be “waved in the wind.”


Step 3: Eliminating other options.

Options (B) and (C) are grammatically correct, though contextually odd. Option (D) uses nonsense words but follows correct grammar.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the error of grammatical competence is in option (A).
Quick Tip: Grammatical errors concern structure, not meaning or word familiarity.

Step 1: Understanding syntactic recursion.

Syntactic recursion involves embedding phrases or modifiers within a sentence.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

Option (A) contains a simple structure with no embedded phrase or modifier chain.


Step 3: Comparing with other options.

Options (B), (C), and (D) involve additional phrases or modifiers that introduce recursive structure.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the sentence without syntactic recursion is (A).
Quick Tip: Simple subject–verb constructions usually lack syntactic recursion.

Step 1: Understanding Hinglish.

Hinglish involves the use of lexical items and structures from both Hindi and English within the same sentence or discourse.


Step 2: Identifying the linguistic phenomenon.

In the given examples, words from Hindi and English are mixed together in a single utterance.


Step 3: Eliminating incorrect terms.

Code transference refers to long-term borrowing, while code violation and code breaking are not recognized linguistic processes.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Such language use is correctly termed code mixing.
Quick Tip: When elements from two languages appear together in the same sentence, it is called code mixing.

Step 1: Understanding the concept.

Displacement refers to the ability of language users to talk about things that are not present in the immediate time or space.


Step 2: Applying to the question.

Talking about past events and future possibilities directly reflects displacement.


Step 3: Eliminating other properties.

Arbitrariness concerns symbol–meaning relations, duality concerns levels of structure, and productivity concerns sentence formation.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is displacement.
Quick Tip: Displacement allows humans to discuss yesterday, tomorrow, and imaginary worlds.

Step 1: Understanding child language creativity.

Children often produce forms like “goed” or “foots,” which they have never heard from adults.


Step 2: Interpreting such errors.

These errors show rule formation and overgeneralization, not imitation.


Step 3: Eliminating incorrect options.

Errors are not copied from caregivers, nor is creativity shown merely by repetition or deletion.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, option (A) correctly explains linguistic creativity in children.
Quick Tip: Overgeneralization errors indicate rule learning, not lack of competence.

Step 1: Understanding anomia.

Anomia is a language disorder characterized by difficulty in word-finding, especially naming objects.


Step 2: Analyzing the patient’s response.

The patient understands the object but repeatedly says “I can’t say,” indicating naming difficulty.


Step 3: Eliminating other deficits.

Grammar is intact, comprehension is present, and asphyxia is unrelated to language.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The linguistic deficit shown is anomia.
Quick Tip: If comprehension is intact but naming fails, suspect anomia.

Step 1: Identifying subject and tense.

In option (A), the subject is they, which is third person plural, and the verb form \textit{are is in the simple present tense.


Step 2: Eliminating other options.

Option (B) is in the present perfect tense. Option (C) uses second person subject \textit{you. Option (D) is third person singular.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).
Quick Tip: Third person plural subjects take base verb forms or plural auxiliaries like \textit{are.

Step 1: Understanding the expected response.

A relevant response would involve congratulation or appreciation.


Step 2: Identifying the violation.

Shyam’s reply interprets “for my son” as an exchange rather than a gift, making it contextually irrelevant.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The humour arises from violating the Maxim of Relation.
Quick Tip: Humour often arises when a reply deliberately ignores conversational relevance.

Step 1: Evaluating Statement (I).

A spectrogram indeed represents frequency components over time, so Statement (I) is correct.


Step 2: Evaluating Statement (II).

Phonetic principles confirm that high vowels have low F1 and back vowels have low F2.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Both statements are correct.
Quick Tip: Formant values are crucial cues for identifying vowel height and backness.

Step 1: Understanding pidginisation and creolisation.

Pidginisation simplifies grammar, while creolisation expands and systematises it.


Step 2: Identifying the incorrect statement.

Option (A) incorrectly reverses the processes.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the NOT correct statement is (A).
Quick Tip: Creolisation adds grammatical complexity, not reduces it.

Step 1: Understanding the rule.

The rule states that an alveolar nasal (/n/) becomes dental when it occurs before a dental fricative (like /θ/).


Step 2: Applying the rule to the options.

In \textit{panther, the alveolar nasal /n/ occurs immediately before the dental fricative /θ/.


Step 3: Eliminating other options.

The remaining words do not show an alveolar nasal followed by a dental fricative in the required environment.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the word affected by the rule is panther.
Quick Tip: Always check the immediate phonological environment when applying feature-based rules.

Step 1: Understanding compound verbs.

A compound verb consists of two verbal elements that function together to express a single, unified meaning.


Step 2: Evaluating the options.

Option (A) correctly captures this definition by describing two verbs forming one composite meaning.


Step 3: Eliminating incorrect options.

The other options describe auxiliary constructions or verb–noun/adjective combinations.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).
Quick Tip: Compound verbs act as a single semantic unit despite having multiple verbal elements.

Step 1: Understanding the idiom.

“Time flies like an arrow” conveys that time passes quickly and cannot be controlled or delayed.


Step 2: Comparing meanings.

“Time and tide wait for no man” similarly emphasizes the unstoppable and fast-moving nature of time.


Step 3: Eliminating other options.

The remaining idioms focus on value, healing, or human action rather than the passage of time itself.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the closest idiom in meaning is (A).
Quick Tip: Look for idioms that match the core idea, not just the theme word.

Step 1: Understanding linguistic myths.

Linguistic myths are false beliefs about how languages function or evolve.


Step 2: Evaluating the statements.

There are no “primitive” languages; all languages can express complex ideas, making (A) a myth.

Similarly, informal language use does not degrade grammar, making (B) a myth.


Step 3: Eliminating factual statements.

Statements (C) and (D) describe accepted linguistic facts rather than myths.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the myths about language are (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Languages change and adapt, but none are inherently inferior or degraded.

Step 1: Analyzing frame (A).

The frame “in ___ of” commonly licenses a noun, as in \textit{in front of, \textit{in need of.


Step 2: Analyzing frame (B).

Adjectives like \textit{terrible typically modify nouns, making this frame appropriate for a noun.


Step 3: Eliminating other frames.

“Have not ___ yet” usually requires a verb phrase, and “was slowly ___” also requires a verb or participle.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct frames are (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Check whether the surrounding words typically select a noun, verb, or adjective.

Step 1: Understanding entailment.

An entailment must necessarily be true if the given sentence is true.


Step 2: Evaluating options.

Being a lion entails being a big cat and (in the movie context) male.


Step 3: Eliminating non-entailed statements.

Being a lion does not necessarily entail being a king, nor does it entail anything about the origin of the name.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the statements that are NOT entailed are (C) and (D).
Quick Tip: Entailments are logically guaranteed, not contextually inferred.

Step 1: Understanding malapropisms.

Malapropisms arise when a speaker selects a phonologically similar word instead of the intended one.


Step 2: Interpreting the examples.

The substitutions are driven by sound similarity rather than meaning.


Step 3: Drawing conclusions.

This indicates that lexical access relies on phonological similarity and that the mental lexicon is organized by sound.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct answers are (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Sound-based errors reveal how words are stored and accessed in the mental lexicon.

Step 1: Understanding the 8th Schedule.

The 8th Schedule lists officially recognized languages of India.


Step 2: Evaluating the options.

Assamese, Konkani, Nepali, Sindhi, Malayalam, Maithili, Manipuri, and Marathi are all included.


Step 3: Eliminating incorrect sets.

English, Awadhi, Toda, and Bhojpuri are not included in the 8th Schedule.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct sets are (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Always verify language lists against the official 8th Schedule, not popular usage.

Step 1: Analyzing structural ambiguity.

The sentence contains multiple prepositional phrases: \textit{in his house, \textit{on the wall, and \textit{in the museum, which can attach to different nouns or verbs.


Step 2: Checking possible interpretations.

(B) is possible because “the wall” can be interpreted as being located in the museum.

(C) is possible because “the paintings” can be interpreted as currently being in his house.

(D) is directly stated by the verb phrase “will put the paintings on the wall.”


Step 3: Eliminating the impossible interpretation.

Option (A) suggests that the paintings were already on the museum wall, which is not supported by any valid attachment in the sentence.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the interpretation that is NOT possible is (A).
Quick Tip: Ambiguity often arises from multiple prepositional phrases competing for attachment.

Step 1: Identifying cavity locations.

The pharyngeal cavity is located behind the oral cavity and corresponds to label 1.

The laryngeal cavity is situated lower in the vocal tract, corresponding to label 2.


Step 2: Identifying oral structures.

The alveolar ridge is located just behind the upper teeth, which matches label 3.

The labial cavity corresponds to the lip region, matching label 4.


Step 3: Matching with given labels.

Thus, the correct mapping is:
1–b, 2–d, 3–c, 4–a.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct option is (A).
Quick Tip: Remember the top-to-bottom order of cavities: labial → oral → pharyngeal → laryngeal.

Step 1: Interpreting the predicate expression.

The expression \(\forall x\,P(x) \rightarrow \exists x\,P(x)\) means:

\emph{If everyone has property P, then at least one person has property P.


Step 2: Evaluating the options.

Option (C) directly mirrors this structure: if everybody plays hockey, then somebody plays hockey.


Step 3: Eliminating incorrect options.

(A) reverses the quantifiers.

(B) is logically contradictory.

(D) combines two unrelated statements.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the sentence equivalent to the predicate expression is (C).
Quick Tip: A universal statement always entails an existential one, but not vice versa.

Step 1: Understanding word formation processes.

A calque is a literal translation (worldview).

An eponym is derived from a person’s name (braille).

A blend combines parts of words (instagram).

Coinage creates a new word (google).

Borrowing takes a word from another language (karaoke).


Step 2: Matching correctly.

P–iv, Q–i, R–ii, S–v, T–iii


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correctly matched sequence is option (A).
Quick Tip: Identifying word origins helps distinguish between coinage, borrowing, and blending.

Step 1: Understanding endophoric and exophoric reference.

Endophoric reference points to something within the text, while exophoric reference points to the external context or situation.


Step 2: Analyzing sentence I.

The adverb \textit{there refers back to \textit{Boston, which is mentioned earlier in the sentence. Hence, it is endophoric.


Step 3: Analyzing sentence II.

The adverb \textit{here refers to the speaker’s present physical location, which is not mentioned in the text. Hence, it is exophoric.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct option is (A).
Quick Tip: If a word refers back to something already stated, it is endophoric; if it depends on the situation, it is exophoric.

Step 1: Understanding Skinner’s theory.

B.F. Skinner proposed a behaviorist view of language acquisition, emphasizing imitation, reinforcement, and conditioning.


Step 2: Matching observations to the theory.

Imitation of adult speech directly aligns with Skinner’s explanation of how children learn language.


Step 3: Eliminating other options.

Producing novel errors, acquiring language without negative evidence, and learning features absent from input are better explained by nativist theories, not behaviorism.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the observation explained by Skinner’s theory is (D).
Quick Tip: Behaviorist theories focus on imitation and reinforcement, not innate grammatical knowledge.

Step 1: Understanding semantic changes.

Narrowing restricts meaning, broadening expands it, amelioration improves meaning, and pejoration worsens meaning.


Step 2: Matching examples.

Bead narrowed from ‘prayer’ to a specific object.

Aunt broadened from ‘father’s sister’ to include mother’s sister.

Pretty underwent amelioration from ‘cunning’ to a positive sense.

Silly underwent pejoration from ‘happy’ to a negative sense.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct sequence is (A).
Quick Tip: Tracking older meanings helps identify whether a word’s meaning improved, worsened, expanded, or narrowed.

Step 1: Understanding presupposition triggers.

Presuppositions are background assumptions taken for granted by certain words or expressions.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

Regretted presupposes that the action (building the bomb) actually happened.

Oppenheimer as a definite proper noun presupposes the existence of the individual.

After presupposes that the referenced event (the war) occurred.


Step 3: Eliminating non-triggers.

Directed does not inherently trigger a presupposition; it simply asserts an action.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct answers are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: Verbs like regret, temporal markers like after, and definite descriptions commonly trigger presuppositions.

Step 1: Interpreting Case One.

The signer cannot produce linguistic signs but can perform non-linguistic motor tasks, showing that language-specific motor control is distinct from general motor ability.


Step 2: Interpreting Case Two.

The paralysed speaker can still speak fluently, further supporting the idea that general motor impairment does not necessarily affect language production.


Step 3: Drawing conclusions.

These cases show that language motor control is specialized and that Broca’s aphasia affects sign language fluency as well.


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect options.

There is no evidence that language localisation differs for signers and speakers, nor that gesturing and vocal pathways are the same.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct conclusions are (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Language impairment can occur independently of general motor impairment, highlighting specialised neural systems.

Step 1: Case assignment in TP\textsuperscript{1}.

In the matrix clause, T\textsuperscript{1 is finite and assigns nominative case to NP\textsuperscript{1 (‘John’) in the specifier position of TP\textsuperscript{1. Hence, statement (A) is correct.


Step 2: Case assignment in TP\textsuperscript{2}.

The embedded TP\textsuperscript{2 is infinitival, and its T is non-finite. Therefore, it cannot assign case to NP\textsuperscript{2 (‘him’). This makes statement (B) incorrect.


Step 3: Exceptional Case Marking (ECM).

The verb \textit{want in VP\textsuperscript{1 assigns accusative case to NP\textsuperscript{2 (‘him’) across the embedded TP. This is a classic ECM configuration. Hence, statement (C) is correct.


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect option.

V of VP\textsuperscript{2 (‘be’) does not assign case to NP\textsuperscript{2, so statement (D) is incorrect.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct statements are (A) and (C).
Quick Tip: In ECM constructions, the matrix verb assigns accusative case to the subject of an infinitival clause.

Step 1: Children’s preference across regions.

In all three regions, children show very low usage of [ɭ] and prefer [j] or [l̪]. This supports statement (A).


Step 2: Dialectal shift across regions.

Adult usage of [ɭ] decreases from Region 1 to Region 2 and almost disappears in Region 3, indicating a progressive dialect shift. Hence, statement (B) is correct.


Step 3: Divergence between children and adults.

Across all regions, children diverge from adult usage and show a strong preference for [j], validating statement (C).


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect option.

Children do not mirror the dominant adult variant in each region; instead, they consistently prefer [j]. Thus, statement (D) is incorrect.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The valid conclusions are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: Child phonology often shows simplification and divergence from adult norms, revealing ongoing sound change.

Step 1: Change in subject NP form.

Across both pairs, the subject NP shows a change in case marking between A and B forms (e.g., nominative vs. dative-like marking), indicating a grammatical change in the subject NP. Hence, (A) is correct.


Step 2: Change in thematic interpretation.

The A sentences show an agentive, volitional interpretation, whereas the B sentences show a non-volitional or experiencer-like reading (“despite himself”). This reflects a change in the thematic grid of the verb. Hence, (B) is correct.


Step 3: Phonological alternation.

The verb form shows a phonological alternation between A and B (e.g., \textit{ahanəwa vs. \textit{əhenəwa, \textit{aṅḍanəwa vs. \textit{əṅḍanəwa). Hence, (C) is correct.


Step 4: Valency check.

The number of arguments selected by the verb remains the same; only the interpretation and morphology change. Therefore, (D) is not correct.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The observed changes are correctly identified by options (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: A shift from agentive to non-volitional readings often correlates with changes in case marking and verb morphology.

Step 1: Structural embedding.

The representation clearly shows CP\textsubscript{3 embedded inside CP\textsubscript{2, which in turn is embedded inside CP\textsubscript{1. Thus, (A) is correct.


Step 2: CP-recursion.

The repeated embedding of CPs within CPs is a textbook case of syntactic recursion at the CP level. Hence, (B) is correct.


Step 3: Matrix verb selection.

The matrix verb \textit{knows selects CP\textsubscript{1 as its complement (object). Therefore, (C) is correct.


Step 4: Evaluating option (D).

While CP\textsubscript{3 is indeed the complement of \textit{think, CP\textsubscript{2 is also an object (of \textit{believe). Hence, (D) is incorrect.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The statements that apply are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: Recursive embedding of CPs is a key property that distinguishes human language syntax.

Step 1: Sentence (i).

In “John broke the window”, \textit{John is the grammatical subject and performs the action intentionally. Hence, it has the semantic role of an agent. This validates option (A).


Step 2: Sentence (ii).

In “The window broke”, the NP \textit{the window is the subject but it is not an agent; it is a theme/patient. Hence options involving agent or object roles here are incorrect.


Step 3: Sentence (iii).

In “The stone broke the window”, \textit{the stone is the grammatical subject but semantically functions as an instrument causing the event. This validates option (C).


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct choices are (A) and (C).
Quick Tip: Grammatical subjects need not always be agents; instruments and themes can also occupy subject position.

Step 1: Metonymy.

Calling King Puru “the lion” uses an associated attribute (bravery) to refer to the person. This is a clear case of metonymy, validating (A).


Step 2: Hypernymy.

“Emperor” is a superordinate category (hypernym) of which Alexander is a specific instance. Hence, (B) is correct.


Step 3: Meronymy.

The battlefield is part of the geographical entity Jhelum (Hydaspes). This part–whole relation confirms meronymy, validating (C).


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect option.

Holonymy does not apply between “lion” and “King Puru”; thus (D) is incorrect.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The correct relations are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: Look for figurative naming (metonymy), class–member relations (hypernymy), and part–whole relations (meronymy).

Step 1: Using implication equivalence.

An implication \(A \rightarrow B\) is logically equivalent to \(\sim A \lor B\).


Step 2: Applying the rule.
\((P \land Q) \rightarrow (P \lor Q)\) becomes \(\sim (P \land Q) \lor (P \lor Q)\), validating option (B).


Step 3: Applying De Morgan’s law.
\(\sim (P \land Q)\) is equivalent to \(\sim P \lor \sim Q\), which validates option (A).


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect operators.

Using conjunction (\(\land\)) instead of disjunction (\(\lor\)) will not lead to a tautology, eliminating (C) and (D).


Step 5: Conclusion.

The correct sets of values are (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Implication elimination and De Morgan’s laws are key tools in proving tautologies.

Step 1: Gender marking.

The form a-na-soma is glossed as ‘she/he is reading’, showing that the third person form is gender neutral. Hence, (A) is correct.


Step 2: Tense marking.

The markers \textit{-na- (present), \textit{-li- (past), and \textit{-ta- (future) clearly indicate different tense distinctions. Hence, (B) is correct.


Step 3: Number marking.

The prefixes \textit{ni- (I) and \textit{tu- (we) show that pronouns are marked for number, so (C) is incorrect.


Step 4: Interpreting \textit{tu-li-soma.

By analogy with the paradigm, \textit{tu- marks ‘we’ and \textit{-li- marks past, giving ‘we read [past]’. Hence, (D) is correct.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The correct statements are (A), (B), and (D).
Quick Tip: Bantu languages typically show rich agreement morphology for person, number, and tense.

Step 1: Diagram I.

In Diagram I, ‘Greek history’ modifies ‘teacher’. The rightmost noun ‘teacher’ functions as the head at both the lower and higher projection levels, validating (A).


Step 2: Diagram II.

In Diagram II, ‘Greek’ modifies ‘history’, and the compound ‘Greek history’ modifies ‘teacher’. Thus, ‘history’ is the head of N\textsubscript{2 and ‘teacher’ is the head of N\textsubscript{1, validating (B).


Step 3: Eliminating incorrect options.

Options (C) and (D) incorrectly assign head status to modifiers.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct statements are (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: In English compounds, the rightmost noun is typically the head.

Step 1: Counting phrases.

The sentence contains one VP (‘found Jiya in the park with the children from her neighbourhood’) and five NPs: \textit{Guna, \textit{Jiya, \textit{the park, \textit{the children, \textit{her neighbourhood. Hence, (B) is correct.


Step 2: Grammatical functions.

There is one subject (‘Guna’), one direct object (‘Jiya’), and three adjuncts expressing location and accompaniment. This validates (C).


Step 3: Prepositional phrases.

The phrases ‘in the park’, ‘with the children’, and ‘from her neighbourhood’ are all PPs functioning as adjuncts, validating (D).


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect option.

There is more than one determiner (‘the’, ‘the’, ‘her’), so (A) is incorrect.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The correct descriptions are (B), (C), and (D).
Quick Tip: PPs commonly function as adjuncts expressing location, accompaniment, or source.

Step 1: Sentence (i).

In sentence (i), the pronoun him is co-indexed with the local NP \textit{Gopali within the same binding domain. Principle B requires pronouns to be free in their local domain. Hence, sentence (i) violates Principle B. Option (A) is correct.


Step 2: Sentence (ii).

In sentence (ii), the reflexive \textit{himself appears in subject position without a local antecedent. Principle A requires anaphors to be locally bound. This condition is not satisfied, so sentence (ii) violates Principle A. Option (B) is correct.


Step 3: Sentences (iii) and (iv).

In sentence (iii), the reflexive \textit{himself occurs in an embedded clause, but its antecedent \textit{Gopali is in the matrix clause. In sentence (iv), \textit{herself does not have an appropriate antecedent within the same local domain. Both violate the locality requirement of Principle A. Hence, option (C) is correct.


Step 4: Eliminating option (D).

Principle C applies to R-expressions, not pronouns or anaphors. Sentence (i) violates Principle B, and sentence (iii) violates Principle A, not Principle C. Hence, (D) is incorrect.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The correct statements are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: Remember: \textbf{Principle A = anaphors must be locally bound, \textbf{Principle B} = pronouns must be locally free, \textbf{Principle C} = R-expressions must be free everywhere.

Step 1: Understanding a syllabic writing system.

In a syllabary, each symbol represents one syllable rather than individual consonants or vowels.


Step 2: Listing distinct syllables.

From the given data, the distinct syllables are:

\textit{ha, da, hu, du, dru, ɳrə, kʰa, ɖa.


Step 3: Counting unique syllables.

There are exactly eight distinct syllabic units required to represent all words.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the linguist needs to create 8 separate symbols.
Quick Tip: In syllabaries, repeated syllables reuse the same symbol—only unique syllables are counted.