GATE 2024 Life Sciences Question Paper PDF is available here. IISc Banglore conducted GATE 2024 Life Sciences exam on February 10 in the Afternoon Session from 2:30 PM to 5:30 PM. Students have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2024 Life Sciences Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Core Discipline.

GATE 2024 Life Sciences Question Paper with Solutions PDF

GATE 2024 Life Sciences Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions


Question 1:

If ‘\( \to \)’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words \([ walk \to jog \to sprint ]\) is analogous to \([ bothered \to \_\_\_\_\_\_ \to daunted ]\). Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

  • (A) \( phased\)
  • (B) \( phrased\)
  • (C) \( fazed\)
  • (D) \( fused\)

Question 2:

Two wizards try to create a spell using all the four elements, water, air, fire, and earth. For this, they decide to mix all these elements in all possible orders. They also decide to work independently. After trying all possible combinations of elements, they conclude that the spell does not work. How many attempts does each wizard make before coming to this conclusion, independently?

  • (A) \( 24\)
  • (B) \( 48\)
  • (C) \( 16\)
  • (D) \( 12\)

Question 3:

In an engineering college of 10,000 students, 1,500 like neither their core branches nor other branches. The number of students who like their core branches is \( \frac{1}{4} \) of the number of students who like other branches. The number of students who like both their core and other branches is 500. The number of students who like their core branches is:

  • (A) \(1,800\)
  • (B) \(3,500\)
  • (C) \(1,600\)
  • (D) \(1,500\)

Question 4:

For positive non-zero real variables \( x \) and \( y \), if \[ \ln \left( \frac{x + y}{2} \right) = \frac{1}{2} \left[ \ln(x) + \ln(y) \right], \]
then, the value of \( \frac{x}{y} + \frac{y}{x} \) is:

  • (A) \( 1 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (C) \( 2 \)
  • (D) \( 4 \)

Question 5:

In the sequence \(6, 9, 14, x, 30, 41\), a possible value of \(x\) is:

  • (A) \(25\)
  • (B) \(21\)
  • (C) \(18\)
  • (D) \(20\)

Question 6:

Sequence the following sentences in a coherent passage.


P: This fortuitous geological event generated a colossal amount of energy and heat that resulted in the rocks rising to an average height of 4 km across the contact zone.


Q: Thus, the geophysicists tend to think of the Himalayas as an active geological event rather than as a static geological feature.


R: The natural process of the cooling of this massive edifice absorbed large quantities of atmospheric carbon dioxide, altering the earth’s atmosphere and making it better suited for life.


S: Many millennia ago, a breakaway chunk of bedrock from the Antarctic Plate collided with the massive Eurasian Plate.

  • (A) \( QPSR \)
  • (B) \( QSPR \)
  • (C) \( SPRQ \)
  • (D) \( SRPQ \)

Question 7:

A person sold two different items at the same price. He made 10% profit in one item, and 10% loss in the other item. In selling these two items, the person made a total of:

  • (A) \( 1% profit \)
  • (B) \( 2% profit \)
  • (C) \( 1% loss \)
  • (D) \( 2% loss \)

Question 8:

The pie charts depict the shares of various power generation technologies in the total electricity generation of a country for the years 2007 and 2023.



The renewable sources of electricity generation consist of Hydro, Solar, and Wind. Assuming that the total electricity generated remains the same from 2007 to 2023, what is the percentage increase in the share of the renewable sources of electricity generation over this period?

  • (A) \( 25% \)
  • (B) \( 50% \)
  • (C) \( 77.5% \)
  • (D) \( 62.5% \)

Question 9:

A cube is to be cut into 8 pieces of equal size and shape. Here, each cut should be straight, and it should not stop till it reaches the other end of the cube. The minimum number of such cuts required is:

  • (A) \( 3 \)
  • (B) \( 4 \)
  • (C) \( 7 \)
  • (D) \( 8 \)

Question 10:

In the \(4 \times 4\) array shown below, each cell of the first three rows has either a cross (X) or a number. The number in a cell represents the count of the immediate neighboring cells (left, right, top, bottom, diagonals) NOT having a cross (X). Given that the last row has no crosses (X), the sum of the four numbers to be filled in the last row is:

  • (A) \( 11 \)
  • (B) \( 10 \)
  • (C) \( 12 \)
  • (D) \( 9 \)

Question 11:

The CORRECT order of electronegativity is:

  • (A) \( Al > Si > P > S \)
  • (B) \( Al > S > Si > P \)
  • (C) \( S > Si > Al > P \)
  • (D) \( S > P > Si > Al \)

Question 12:

Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the variation of the Gibbs free energy (\( G \)) of a substance with temperature (\( T \)) at constant pressure?



Question 13:

Among the following, the structure representing histidine is:




Question 14:

The CORRECT order of acidity of the following compounds is:

  • (A) \( I > II > III \)
  • (B) \( II > III > I \)
  • (C) \( I > III > II \)
  • (D) \( III > II > I \)

Question 15:

The molecules A and B are a pair of":


  • (A) \( enantiomers\)
  • (B) \( diastereomers\)
  • (C) \( conformational isomers\)
  • (D) \( constitutional isomers\)

Question 16:

The CORRECT option(s) of \( Y \) for the following reaction is/are:




Question 17:

The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the shell with \( n = 2 \) is _______ (in integer).

(Given: \( n \) = principal quantum number)


Question 18:

One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly to double its volume. If the expansion work done by the system is 1728.85 J, the temperature of the system is _______ K (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

(Given: Gas constant, \( R = 8.314 \, \mathrm{J \, K^{-1} \, mol^{-1}} \))


Question 19:

The initial rate of a reaction triples when the concentration of a reactant, \( A \), is doubled. The order of the reaction with respect to \( A \) is _______ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).


Question 20:

Each of the following alkenes undergoes addition reaction with bromine. Under the same reaction conditions, the CORRECT trend in the reaction rates is:

  • (A) \( I > II > III \)
  • (B) \( II > III > I \)
  • (C) \( I > III > II \)
  • (D) \( III > II > I \)

Question 21:

An enzyme-catalyzed conversion of a substrate at 298 K proceeds by a Michaelis-Menten mechanism. The Lineweaver-Burk plot for the analysis of the experimental data has an intercept along the \( y \)-axis of \( 0.357 \, mmol^{-1} \, dm^{3} \, s \) and a slope of \( 2.10 \, s \). The CORRECT Michaelis constant for the reaction is------- (rounded off to 2 decimal places):

  • (A) \( 5.88 \, mmol \, dm^{-3} \)
  • (B) \( 5.88 \, mmol \, dm^{-3} \, s^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 2.80 \, mmol \, dm^{-3} \)
  • (D) \( 2.80 \, mmol \, dm^{-3} \, s^{-1} \)

Question 22:

Which one among the following structures is the most stable conformer of (Z)-pent-2-ene?


Question 23:

Upon addition of compound \( X \) to an aqueous AgNO\(_3\) solution, a white precipitate appears instantly. Also, \( X \) does not exhibit geometrical isomerism. The CORRECT option(s) for \( X \) is/are:

  • (A) \([Cr(OH_2)_4Cl_2]Cl\)
  • (B) \([Cr(OH_2)_5Cl]Cl_2\)
  • (C) \([Cr(OH_2)_6]Cl_3\)
  • (D) \([Cr(OH_2)_3Cl_3]\)
  • (C) \([Cr(OH_2)_6]Cl_3\)

Question 24:

The paramagnetic species among the following is/are (Given: Atomic numbers of Cr = 24; Fe = 26; Ni = 28):

  • (A) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (B) \([Ni(OH_2)_6]^{2+}\)
  • (C) \([Ni(CN)_4]^{2-}\)
  • (D) \([Cr(CN)_6]^{3-}\)

Question 25:

The molecule(s) with non-zero dipole moment is/are:

  • (A) \(N_2\)
  • (B) \(CO_2\)
  • (C) \(NO\)
  • (D) \(SO_2\)
  • (D) \(SO_2\)

Question 26:

The ionic product of water at \(40 \,^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) is \(2.92 \times 10^{-14} \, \mathrm{M}^2\). The pH of water at \(40 \,^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) is _______ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).


Question 27:

Given the standard reduction potentials (\(E^\Theta\)) for the half-cell reactions below, the standard Gibbs free energy of the dissolution of silver chloride in water, at 298 K, is ---- J mol\(^{-1}\) (rounded off to nearest integer).
\[ (Given: Faraday constant, F = 96500 \, C mol^{-1}); \, J = C \times V) \] \[ AgCl(s) + e^{-} \rightarrow Ag(s) + Cl^{-}(aq) ; \, E^\Theta = 0.22 \, V at 298 K \] \[ Ag^{+}(aq) + e^{-} \rightarrow Ag(s) \, ; \, E^\Theta = 0.80 \, V at 298 K \]


Question 28:

Which one of the following pairs of amino acids is NOT incorporated in a polypeptide chain?

  • (A) \( 4-Hydroxyproline and \gamma-carboxyglutamate\)
  • (B) \( \gamma-Carboxyglutamate and desmosine\)
  • (C) \( Ornithine and citrulline\)
  • (D) \( 4-Hydroxyproline and 5-hydroxylysine\)

Question 29:

Mammalian cells cultured at low temperature (25 to 30 °C) lead to an increased sterol content in the membrane. Elevated sterols in the membrane result in

  • (A) an enhancement in membrane fluidity.
  • (B) stabilization of membrane proteins.
  • (C) an increase in membrane permeability to water.
  • (D) a decrease in membrane fluidity.

Question 30:

Which one of the following metabolic intermediates is common to glycolysis, nucleotide synthesis, and glycogen synthesis?

  • (A) \( Citrate\)
  • (B) \( Oxaloacetate\)
  • (C) \( Glucose 6-phosphate\)
  • (D) \( Glycerol 3-phosphate\)

Question 31:

In mammals, hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to different types of blood cells are known as:

  • (A) \( totipotent stem cells. \)
  • (B) \( pluripotent stem cells. \)
  • (C) \( myeloid progenitor cells. \)
  • (D) \( lymphoid progenitor cells. \)

Question 32:

Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) the addition of N-nucleotides during the rearrangement of the immunoglobulin heavy chain-encoding gene?

  • (A) \( Addition of N-nucleotides is template encoded. \)
  • (B) \( N-nucleotides are added by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase. \)
  • (C) \( The added N-nucleotides are common in V-D and D-J junction. \)
  • (D) \( N-nucleotides are added by the DNA polymerase II. \)

Question 33:

A newly identified viral protein contains one long α-helix spanning 60 amino acid residues. The number of main chain H-bonds formed in this helix is _______. (Answer in integer)


Question 34:

In a lactic acid solution at pH 4.8, the concentrations of lactic acid and lactate are 0.01 M and 0.087 M, respectively. The calculated pKa of lactic acid is _______. (Round off to one decimal place)


Question 35:

If a 10 mM solution of a biomolecule in a cuvette of path length 10 mm absorbs 90% of the incident light at 280 nm, the molar extinction coefficient of the biomolecule at this wavelength is _______ M\(^{-1}\)cm\(^{-1}\). (Round off to two decimal places)


Question 36:

Metabolic intermediates provide the backbone for the synthesis of amino acids. Match the metabolic intermediates listed in Column I with their corresponding amino acids given in Column II.

  • (A) \( P-ii; Q-i; R-v; S-iv \)
  • (B) \( P-iii; Q-ii; R-i; S-v \)
  • (C) \( P-iv; Q-iii; R-ii; S-v \)
  • (D) \( P-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-v \)

Question 37:

Which one of the following is the correct match between the molecular properties listed in Column I and the corresponding biochemical separation methods in Column II?

  • (A) \( P-i; Q-ii; R-v; S-iii \)
  • (B) \( P-iii; Q-iv; R-ii; S-i \)
  • (C) \( P-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii \)
  • (D) \( P-v; Q-iv; R-iii; S-ii \)

Question 38:

Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct regarding the electromotive force generated by the electron transfer chain?

  • (A) \( It is used for the synthesis of ATP. \)
  • (B) \( It is not used for active transport processes. \)
  • (C) \( It includes a pH gradient component. \)
  • (D) \( It does not include an electrical potential gradient component. \)

Question 39:

Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct regarding the transport and retention of proteins in different cell organelles?

  • (A) \( Mannose 6-phosphate residues are involved in targeting proteins to lysosomes. \)
  • (B) \( Transport of proteins into the mitochondrial compartment is aided by positively charged amino acid residues at the N-terminus and internal hydrophobic segments. \)
  • (C) \( The retention of protein in the ER lumen requires the KDEL sequence motif at the C-terminus. \)
  • (D) \( Nuclear proteins are transported in an unfolded conformation and the nuclear localization signal sequence is subsequently cleaved by peptidases in the nucleoplasm.\)

Question 40:

Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) fluorescence spectroscopy?

  • (A) The emission maxima \((\lambda_{max})\) is independent of the excitation wavelength.
  • (B) The emission maxima \((\lambda_{max})\) depends on the concentration of a quencher.
  • (C) The emission maxima \((\lambda_{max})\) varies with solvent polarity.
  • (D) The emission maxima \((\lambda_{max})\) varies with temperature.

Question 41:

Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct in the processing of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

  • (A) \( 3’ → 5’ exonuclease activity is involved in the conversion of pre-mRNA to mRNA. \)
  • (B) \( 5’-capping and addition of 3’- poly A tail precedes splicing. \)
  • (C) \( Splicing of pre-mRNA occurs via transesterification reaction. \)
  • (D) \( Alternative splicing can yield different mRNA products from the same pre-mRNA. \)

Question 42:

Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) the changes upon the addition of puromycin during eukaryotic translation?

  • (A) \( Puromycin resembles aminoacyl end of the charged tRNA. \)
  • (B) \( Puromycin occupies the A site of the translating ribosomes. \)
  • (C) \( Puromycin occupies the P site of the translating ribosomes. \)
  • (D) \( Puromycin occupies the E site of the translating ribosomes. \)

Question 43:

Factor H, a complement regulatory protein in plasma, binds C3b and:

  • (A) \( competes with factor B to displace Bb from convertase. \)
  • (B) \( initiates the catabolism of C3b into inactive products. \)
  • (C) \( then binds to C3bBb convertase. \)
  • (D) \( acts as a cofactor for factor I. \)

Question 44:

In Michaelis-Menten's equation, if \([S] = 15 K_m\), then the ratio \(\frac{V_0}{V_{max}}\) is _______. (Round off to three decimal places)


Question 45:

A 5250 base-pair long plasmid with 10 negative supercoils would have a linking number of _______, considering 10.5 base pairs per turn for B DNA. (Answer in integer)


Question 46:

The spectrum of a protein obtained using electrospray ionization mass spectrometry (ESI-MS) is shown below. Two peaks, one at m/z = 2960.6 and the other at m/z = 3552.5, are marked. The mass of the protein associated with the m/z = 2960.6 peak is ______ Da. (Round off to two decimal places)


Question 47:

Which one of the following plant families does apple (Malus domestica) belong to?

  • (A) \( Rosaceae \)
  • (B) \( Rutaceae \)
  • (C) \( Rubiaceae \)
  • (D) \( Ranunculaceae \)

Question 48:

The collateral and open type of vascular bundle with endarch xylem strand is usually found in

  • (A) \( monocot stem \)
  • (B) \( dicot stem \)
  • (C) \( monocot root \)
  • (D) \( dicot root \)

Question 49:

Which of the following tissue types is/are established during embryogenesis in wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana?

  • (A) \( Shoot apical meristem \)
  • (B) \( Rosette leaf primordium \)
  • (C) \( Procambium \)
  • (D) \( Lateral root primordium \)

Question 50:

Which of the following plant natural products is/are cyanogenic glycosides?

  • (A) \( Linustatin \)
  • (B) \( Limonene \)
  • (C) \( Luteolin \)
  • (D) \( Linamarin \)

Question 51:

Which of the following plant diseases is/are caused by nematode?

  • (A) \( Cereal cyst of barley \)
  • (B) \( Ergot of rye \)
  • (C) \( Wart of potato \)
  • (D) \( Ear-cockle of wheat \)

Question 52:

Which of the following selectable marker genes is/are used for herbicide tolerance during genetic transformation of plants?

  • (A) \( hpt \)
  • (B) \( bar \)
  • (C) \( nptII \)
  • (D) \( pmi \)

Question 53:

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT with reference to rubber production from plants?

  • (A) \( Para rubber is produced from Hevea brasiliensis \)
  • (B) \( India rubber is produced from Ficus elastica \)
  • (C) \( Panama rubber is produced from Manihot glaziovii \)
  • (D) \( Ceara rubber is produced from Castilla elastica \)

Question 54:

In the Calvin-Benson cycle, to produce 1 molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate by fixing 3 molecules of carbon dioxide, 9 molecules of ATP and ____ molecules (in integer) of NADPH are typically utilized.


Question 55:

In wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana, the four types of floral organs (sepal, petal, stamen, carpel) are arranged in concentric whorls from outside to inside. With reference to the ABC model of floral organ patterning, match the homeotic mutants in Group 1 with their respective arrangements of organs in the four whorls given in Group 2.

  • (A) \( P–iv, Q–ii, R–i \)
  • (B) \( P–iii, Q–i, R–ii \)
  • (C) \( P–ii, Q–i, R–iii \)
  • (D) \( P–iii, Q–i, R–iv \)

Question 56:

Match the inhibitors in Group 1 with their respective targets in Group 2.

  • (A) \( P–i, Q–ii, R–iii, S–iv \)
  • (B) \( P–iv, Q–i, R–ii, S–iii \)
  • (C) \( P–iii, Q–i, R–iv, S–ii \)
  • (D) \( P–iv, Q–ii, R–i, S–iii \)

Question 57:

With reference to Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated plant transformation, match the virulence factors in Group 1 with their protein types in Group 2.

  • (A) \( P–i, Q–ii, R–iv, S–iii \)
  • (B) \( P–iii, Q–i, R–ii, S–iv \)
  • (C) \( P–ii, Q–iv, R–i, S–iii \)
  • (D) \( P–iii, Q–i, R–iv, S–ii \)

Question 58:

Match the plant products in Group 1 with the plant species in Group 2 that produce them and the respective plant parts in Group 3 where they accumulate the most.

  • (A) \( P–iii–b, Q–i–d, R–ii–a, S–v–c \)
  • (B) \( P–i–b, Q–iii–d, R–ii–a, S–iv–c \)
  • (C) \( P–iii–b, Q–i–d, R–ii–e, S–v–c \)
  • (D) \( P–iv–b, Q–i–d, R–iii–c, S–ii–a \)

Question 59:

Match the types of ecological interactions in Group 1 with their respective definitions in Group 2.

  • (A) \( P–iii, Q–iv, R–i, S–ii \)
  • (B) \( P–ii, Q–i, R–iii, S–iv \)
  • (C) \( P–i, Q–iv, R–iii, S–ii \)
  • (D) \( P–iii, Q–i, R–iv, S–ii \)

Question 60:

Match the types of ecological energy productivity in Group 1 with their respective definitions in Group 2.

  • (A) \( P–iii, Q–ii, R–iv, S–i \)
  • (B) \( P–ii, Q–i, R–iii, S–iv \)
  • (C) \( P–ii, Q–i, R–iv, S–iii \)
  • (D) \( P–iv, Q–i, R–ii, S–iii \)

Question 61:

Which of the following combinations of plant diseases and the types of their causal organisms is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) \( Late blight of potato – Bacteria \)
  • (B) \( Black rot of crucifer – Bacteria \)
  • (C) \( Tungro disease of rice – Mycoplasma \)
  • (D) \( Root knot of tomato – Nematode \)

Question 62:

Identify the CORRECT combination(s) of plant natural products and the categories they belong to.

  • (A) \( Dhurrin – Phenolic compounds \)
  • (B) \( Farnesene – Terpenoids \)
  • (C) \( Naringenin – Cyanogenic glycosides \)
  • (D) \( Vincristine – Alkaloids \)

Question 63:

Identify the CORRECT combination(s) between the enzymes in Group 1 and the reactions in Group 2 they catalyze.

  • (A) \( S–iv \)
  • (B) \( Q–ii \)
  • (C) \( P–i \)
  • (D) \( R–iii \)

Question 64:

In a genetic cross between two pure-line parents differing in the two independently segregating traits, plant height (tall vs dwarf) and flower color (purple vs white), all the F1 plants were tall with purple flowers. In a testcross population involving these F1 individuals, the expected percentage (%) of dwarf plants with purple flowers would be ______ (in integer).


Question 65:

The mRNA of a hypothetical plant gene \( HSDU \) is 800-nucleotide long and encodes a protein of 160 amino acid residues. The calculated length of \( HSDU \) CDS would be ____ nucleotides (in integer).


Question 66:

Which one of the following bacterial species can cause atypical pneumonia?

  • (A) \( Chlamydia pneumoniae \)
  • (B) \( Streptococcus pneumoniae \)
  • (C) \( Klebsiella pneumoniae \)
  • (D) \( Haemophilus influenzae \)

Question 67:

Which one of the following organisms has axial filaments?

  • (A) \( Mycobacterium tuberculosis \)
  • (B) \( Pasteurella multocida \)
  • (C) \( Treponema pallidum \)
  • (D) \( Shigella dysenteriae \)

Question 68:

Who among the following scientists was the pioneer in development of chemotherapy?

  • (A) \( Elie Metchnikoff \)
  • (B) \( Robert Koch \)
  • (C) \( Paul Ehrlich \)
  • (D) \( Ronald Ross \)

Question 69:

In which of the following processes, glutaraldehyde is used as a sterilizing agent?

  • (A) \( Pasteurization \)
  • (B) \( Incineration \)
  • (C) \( Cold sterilization \)
  • (D) \( Autoclaving \)

Question 70:

The most abundant class of immunoglobulins in serum is ________.

  • (A) \( IgM \)
  • (B) \( IgA \)
  • (C) \( IgD \)
  • (D) \( IgG \)

Question 71:

Which one of the following double-stranded sequences will NOT be recognized by a Type IIP restriction endonuclease?

  • (A) 5’-GGTACC-3’
         3’-CCATGG-5’
  • (B) 5'-GGATCC-3'
         3'-CCTAGG-5'
  • (C) 5'-CATATG-3'
         3'-GTATAC-5'
  • (D) 5'-GAATTC-3'
         3'-CTAAAG-5'

Question 72:

Which one of the following use inorganic compounds as an energy source?

  • (A) \( Heterotrophs \)
  • (B) \( Chemolithotrophs \)
  • (C) \( Chemoorganotrophs \)
  • (D) \( Photoheterotrophs \)

Question 73:

Which one of the following represents the abundance of the organisms found in soil?

  • (A) \( Fungi > Aerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria \)
  • (B) \( Aerobic bacteria > Fungi > Anaerobic bacteria \)
  • (C) \( Aerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria > Fungi \)
  • (D) \( Anaerobic bacteria > Aerobic bacteria > Fungi \)

Question 74:

Match the antibiotics in Group I with the microorganisms that produce them in Group II.

  • (A) \( (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv) \)
  • (B) \( (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(iii) \)
  • (C) \( (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv) \)
  • (D) \( (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(i), (S)-(iii) \)

Question 75:

Which one of the following redox couples has the highest tendency to donate electrons?

  • (A) \( Fumarate / Succinate \)
  • (B) \( NAD^+ / NADH \)
  • (C) \( FAD / FADH_2\)
  • (D) \( Pyruvate / Lactate \)

Question 76:

Which of the following is/are active transport mechanism(s) in prokaryotes where the substance is chemically altered during transport across the membrane?

  • (A) \( Group translocation \)
  • (B) \( Simple diffusion \)
  • (C) \( Facilitated diffusion \)
  • (D) \( Osmosis \)

Question 77:

Which of the following cocci is/are examples of division in one plane?

  • (A) \( Staphylococci \)
  • (B) \( Streptococci \)
  • (C) \( Micrococci \)
  • (D) \( Diplococci \)

Question 78:

Which of the following event(s) occur(s) during translation in prokaryotes?

  • (A) \( tRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 30s subunit of ribosome \)
  • (B) \( Anticodon of tRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 50s subunit of ribosome \)
  • (C) \( The ribosome continues to move along the mRNA to add new amino acids to the polypeptide \)
  • (D) \( The polypeptide is released when the ribosome reaches the stop codon \)

Question 79:

Which of the following is/are consequence(s) of nitrous acid (HNO\(_2\)) mediated deamination?

  • (A) \( Deamination of cytosine, adenine, and guanine \)
  • (B) \( GC-to-AT transitions \)
  • (C) \( AT-to-GC transitions \)
  • (D) \( Addition of alkyl group to the bases \)
  • (A) \( Deamination of cytosine, adenine, and guanine\)
  • (B) \( GC-to-AT transitions\)
  • (C) \( AT-to-GC transitions\)

Question 80:

At root nodules, which of the following C4 organic acid(s) is/are transported across the symbiosome membrane and into bacteroids?

  • (A) \( Succinate \)
  • (B) \( Pyruvate \)
  • (C) \( Malate \)
  • (D) \( Fumarate \)

Question 81:

Which of the following is/are TRUE about the Escherichia coli chromosome?

  • (A) \( It is typically bound by histones \)
  • (B) \( It is circular in nature \)
  • (C) \( It is found in the nucleoid \)
  • (D) \( It contains multiple origins of replication \)

Question 82:

At \( t = 0 \), the bacterial cell number is 10,000 cells/mL. At \( t = 480 \) minutes, the cell number increased to 320,000 cells/mL. The mean generation time during this exponential growth period, rounded off to the nearest integer is ____ minutes.


Question 83:

A landfill sample was analyzed by dilution and plating techniques for viable bacterial count. When one gram of the landfill sample was diluted \(1 \times 10^4\) (w/v) it yielded 400 CFU. The viable bacterial count (in million, rounded off to the nearest integer) in one gram landfill sample is ____.


Question 84:

A fluorescence microscope with an objective lens of numerical aperture (NA) 1.5 is used with light of wavelength (\(\lambda\)) 600 nanometers. The lateral resolution limit of this microscope rounded off to the nearest integer, is ____ nanometers.


Question 85:

Which one of the following statements about gene expression is INCORRECT?

  • (A) \( DNA is transcribed to mRNA. \)
  • (B) \( mRNA can be reverse-transcribed to DNA. \)
  • (C) \( mRNA can be translated to protein. \)
  • (D) \( Protein can be reverse-translated to mRNA. \)

Question 86:

Which one of the following tissues/organs is least likely to experience graft rejection when transplanted from a person to an unrelated person?

  • (A) \( Bone marrow \)
  • (B) \( Cornea \)
  • (C) \( Heart \)
  • (D) \( Kidney \)

Question 87:

Codon bias is correlated with the relative frequencies of which one of the following types of RNA?

  • (A) \( mRNA \)
  • (B) \( rRNA \)
  • (C) \( siRNA \)
  • (D) \( tRNA \)

Question 88:

CREB1 is a eukaryotic transcription factor. In which one of the following compartments of the cell is CREB1 predominantly localized?

  • (A) \( Lysosomes \)
  • (B) \( Mitochondria \)
  • (C) \( Nucleus \)
  • (D) \( Peroxisomes \)

Question 89:

In certain species of salamanders, male-female pairs have multiple mating partners in a breeding season. Which one of the following terminologies accurately describes this mating system?

  • (A) \( Monogamy \)
  • (B) \( Polyandry \)
  • (C) \( Polygyny \)
  • (D) \( Polygynandry \)

Question 90:

Which one of the following statements describes the key function of human sweat glands?

  • (A) \( They serve as touch sensors. \)
  • (B) \( They are responsible for skin color. \)
  • (C) \( They regulate body temperature. \)
  • (D) \( They store fat. \)

Question 91:

Urease enzyme catalyzes the conversion of urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. Which one of the following organisms expresses urease enzyme?

  • (A) \( Caenorhabditis elegans \)
  • (B) \( Drosophila melanogaster \)
  • (C) \( Helicobacter pylori \)
  • (D) \( Homo sapiens \)

Question 92:

The human genetic code is triplet in nature with 64 codons made using four nucleotides. If the human genetic code was doublet in nature, the number of codons theoretically possible from four nucleotides is ____. (Answer in integer)


Question 93:

Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE of glycosaminoglycans?

  • (A) \( Glycosaminoglycans are composed of repeating disaccharide units. \)
  • (B) \( Glycosaminoglycans consist of amino sugars that are frequently sulfated. \)
  • (C) \( Hyaluronic acid is an example of a glycosaminoglycan. \)
  • (D) \( Methionine is the predominant amino acid to which glycosaminoglycan chains are conjugated to form proteoglycans.\)

Question 94:

Which one of the options correctly matches the human tissues/organs with their embryonic germ layers of origin?

  • (A) \( P-II, Q-I, R-III \)
  • (B) \( P-III, Q-I, R-II \)
  • (C) \( P-I, Q-II, R-III \)
  • (D) \( P-II, Q-III, R-I \)

Question 95:

Consider a large population of a finch species, where both small and big beak sizes are advantageous, and an intermediate beak size is maladaptive. Over a period of 10 years, which one of the following evolutionary processes is most likely to operate on the beak size of this finch population?

  • (A) \( Directional selection \)
  • (B) \( Disruptive selection \)
  • (C) \( Genetic drift \)
  • (D) \( Stabilizing selection \)

Question 96:

When the blood glucose level of a healthy person is 100 mg/dL, which one of the following options is most likely to represent the level of glucose in the urine of that person?

  • (A) \( < 1 mg/dL \)
  • (B) \( 10 mg/dL \)
  • (C) \( 50 mg/dL \)
  • (D) \( 100 mg/dL \)

Question 97:

Which one of the following rooted tree topologies best describes the primate phylogeny?

  • (A) \( I \)
  • (B) \( II \)
  • (C) \( III \)
  • (D) \( IV \)

Question 98:

Consider a species of brightly colored beetle. Which one or more of the following observations suggest(s) that this species is aposematic?

  • (A) \( Both male and female beetles are brightly colored. \)
  • (B) \( Only male beetles are brightly colored. \)
  • (C) \( Only female beetles are brightly colored. \)
  • (D) \( The beetle species is toxic and distasteful. \)

Question 99:

The embryos of which one or more of the following animals show meroblastic cleavage?

  • (A) \( Danio rerio (zebrafish) \)
  • (B) \( Gallus gallus (chicken) \)
  • (C) \( Synapta digita (sea cucumber) \)
  • (D) \( Xenopus laevis (frog) \)

Question 100:

Which one or more of the following parasites is/are typically transmitted by mosquitoes as vector?

  • (A) \( Leishmania donovani \)
  • (B) \( Plasmodium vivax \)
  • (C) \( Wuchereria bancrofti \)
  • (D) \( Trichuris trichiura \)

Question 101:

Consider the following nucleotide sequence:

5'-GCGCCCAUGGCGUCGCUACGUCGCGCUCACGCGGACGAUCGUACGUAAUGAUGAA-3'

Assume canonical initiation, canonical termination, no post-translational modification, and the average molecular mass of an amino acid to be 110 daltons.

The theoretical molecular mass of the polypeptide translated from the above nucleotide sequence is ____ daltons. (Answer in integer)


Question 102:

The pKa of a buffer solution with pH of 5, consisting of 0.4 M sodium acetate and 0.04 M acetic acid, is ____. (Answer in integer)


Question 103:

Consider a healthy person with the following lung volumes:


Residual volume = 900 mL

Expiratory reserve volume = 800 mL

Tidal volume = 200 mL

If the Total lung capacity is 5500 mL, then the Inspiratory reserve volume of the person is ____ mL. (Answer in integer)


Question 104:

Which one of the following fungi produces aflatoxins?

  • (A) Aspergillus niger
  • (B) Fusarium verticillioides
  • (C) Aspergillus flavus
  • (D) Rhizopus oligosporus

Question 105:

Under standard conditions in animal feeding studies, the weight gained (in grams) per gram of protein consumed by an animal is termed as

  • (A) Net Protein Ratio
  • (B) Net Protein Utilization
  • (C) Coefficient of Protein Digestibility
  • (D) Protein Efficiency Ratio

Question 106:

Xerophthalmia is caused due to the deficiency of:

  • (A) \( Thiamin \)
  • (B) \( Pantothenic acid \)
  • (C) \( Vitamin A \)
  • (D) \( Vitamin C \)

Question 107:

Which one of the following steps is used to remove phosphatides from crude oil in the refining process?

  • (A) \( Neutralization \)
  • (B) \( Bleaching \)
  • (C) \( Degumming \)
  • (D) \( Deodorization \)

Question 108:

The unique flavor of chocolate and cocoa is due to the formation of:

  • (A) \( 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal \)
  • (B) \( Cyclotene \)
  • (C) \( Furaneol \)
  • (D) \( Maltol \)

Question 109:

Which one of the following statements regarding Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan is NOT correct?

  • (A) \( HACCP is a management tool for ensuring food safety. \)
  • (B) \( HACCP involves five preliminary steps and seven principles. \)
  • (C) \( HACCP is not effective without prior implementation of prerequisite programs. \)
  • (D) \( HACCP plan involves establishment of corrective actions as second principle. \)

Question 110:

The product of cabbage fermentation by Leuconostoc mesenteroides is:

  • (A) \( Tempeh \)
  • (B) \( Natto \)
  • (C) \( Sauerkraut \)
  • (D) \( Miso \)

Question 111:

Which one of the following absorbents is NOT used as an ethylene absorber in active packaging of fruits and vegetables?

  • (A) \( Potassium permanganate \)
  • (B) \( Activated carbon \)
  • (C) \( Calcium hydroxide \)
  • (D) \( Silica gel \)

Question 112:

Which one of the following statements regarding moisture sorption isotherms of a dried food is NOT correct?

  • (A) \( At a given temperature, the difference between adsorption and desorption moisture isotherms is known as hysteresis. \)
  • (B) \( At a given temperature and water activity, an adsorption isotherm exhibits higher equilibrium moisture content than a desorption isotherm in hysteresis. \)
  • (C) \( At a given moisture content, effect of temperature on a moisture sorption isotherm follows the Clausius-Clapeyron equation. \)
  • (D) \( The Guggenheim-Anderson-de Boer (GAB) equation is a multilayer moisture sorption model. \)

Question 113:

Processing of fluid milk at \( 72^\circ C \) for 15 seconds is termed as:

  • (A) \( High-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization \)
  • (B) \( Low-temperature, long-time (LTLT) pasteurization \)
  • (C) \( Ultra high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization \)
  • (D) \( Homogenization process \)

Question 114:

Match the anti-nutritional factor in Column I with their corresponding activity given in Column II.

  • (A) \( P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 \)
  • (B) \( P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 \)
  • (C) \( P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 \)
  • (D) \( P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 \)

Question 115:

Which of the following fatty acids is/are known to increase the low-density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol?

  • (A) \( Omega-3 Fatty acids \)
  • (B) \( Trans Fatty acids \)
  • (C) \( Conjugated Linoleic acids \)
  • (D) \( Saturated Fatty acids \)

Question 116:

The addition of which of the following to high-methoxyl pectin will result in gel formation?

  • (A) \( Calcium ions \)
  • (B) \( Hydrogen ions \)
  • (C) \( Sodium ions \)
  • (D) \( Sugar \)

Question 117:

Which of the following steps in food processing is/are used to reduce the acrylamide formation in food products?

  • (A) \( Pretreatment using asparaginase \)
  • (B) \( Lowering the pH \)
  • (C) \( Increasing the temperature \)
  • (D) \( Adding glucose \)

Question 118:

Which of the following enzymes is/are used for the production of high fructose syrup (HFS) from corn starch?

  • (A) \( \alpha-Amylase \)
  • (B) \( \beta-Amylase \)
  • (C) \( Xylose isomerase \)
  • (D) \( Glucoamylase \)

Question 119:

Which of the following is/are typical characteristic(s) of a fungal cell?

  • (A) \( Presence of histone proteins \)
  • (B) \( Presence of peptidoglycans in the cell wall \)
  • (C) \( Presence of chitin in the cell wall \)
  • (D) \( Presence of pseudomurein in the cell wall \)

Question 120:

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding food and waterborne diseases and the class of causative microorganisms?

  • (A) \( Legionellosis is a bacterial disease. \)
  • (B) \( Giardiasis is caused by the protists. \)
  • (C) \( Typhoid fever is caused by the virus. \)
  • (D) \( Listeriosis is a fungal disease. \)

Question 121:

Which of the following statements is/are true?

  • (A) \( Hagen-Poiseuille’s law is used for calculation of molecular diffusion. \)
  • (B) \( Fick’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction. \)
  • (C) \( Rittinger’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction. \)
  • (D) \( Stokes law is used for derivation of terminal velocity. \)

Question 122:

A 10 kg tomato pulp is concentrated from an initial moisture content of \( 90% \) (wet weight basis) to \( 35% \) (wet weight basis). The weight of the concentrate in kg is _____ (round off to 2 decimal places).