GATE 2022 Geomatics Engineering (GE) Question Paper Available - Download Here with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 15, 2026

GATE 2022 Geomatics Engineering (GE) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs are available for download. GATE GE (Geomatics Engineering) was a newly introduced paper. GATE 2022 GE was successfully conducted on February 13, 2022, by IIT Kharagpur. The exam commenced at 2:30 PM and concluded at 5:30 PM. Since it was the first session of GATE GE, students found it difficult to rate the question paper in terms of overall difficulty level.

GATE 2022 Geomatics Engineering (GE) Question Paper with Solutions

Candidates targeting GATE can download the PDFs for GATE 2022 GE Question Paper and Solution to know the important topics asked, and check their preparation level by solving the past question papers.

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GATE 2022 Geomatics Engineering (GE) Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Writing too many things on the \hspace{2cm} while teaching could make the students get \hspace{2cm}.

  • (A) bored / board
  • (B) board / bored
  • (C) board / board
  • (D) bored / bored

Question 2:

Which one of the following is a representation (not to scale and in bold) of all values of \( x \) satisfying the inequality \( 2 - 5x \leq \frac{-6x - 5}{3} \) on the real number line?


Question 3:

If \( f(x) = 2 \ln(\sqrt{e^x}) \), what is the area bounded by \( f(x) \) for the interval \([0, 2]\) on the x-axis?

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4

Question 4:

A person was born on the fifth Monday of February in a particular year.
Which one of the following statements is correct based on the above information?

  • (A) The 2nd February of that year is a Tuesday
  • (B) There will be five Sundays in the month of February in that year
  • (C) The 1st February of that year is a Sunday
  • (D) All Mondays of February in that year have even dates

Question 5:

Which one of the groups given below can be assembled to get the shape that is shown above using each piece only once without overlapping with each other? (rotation and translation operations may be used).



Question 6:

Fish belonging to species S in the deep sea have skins that are extremely black (ultra-black skin). This helps them not only to avoid predators but also sneakily attack their prey. However, having this extra layer of black pigment results in lower collagen on their skin, making their skin more fragile.

  • (A) Having ultra-black skin is only advantageous to species S
  • (B) Species S with lower collagen in their skin are at an advantage because it helps them avoid predators
  • (C) Having ultra-black skin has both advantages and disadvantages to species S
  • (D) Having ultra-black skin is only disadvantageous to species S but advantageous only to their predators

Question 7:

For the past \( m \) days, the average daily production at a company was 100 units per day.
If today’s production of 180 units changes the average to 110 units per day, what is the value of \( m \)?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 5

Question 8:

Consider the following functions for non-zero positive integers, \( p \) and \( q \):
\[ f(p, q) = p \times p \times p \times \cdots \times p = p^q \quad ; \quad f(p, 1) = p \] \[ g(p, q) = ppppp\cdots (up to q terms) \quad ; \quad g(p, 1) = p \]
Which one of the following options is correct based on the above?

  • (A) \( f(2,2) = g(2,2) \)
  • (B) \( f(g(2,2), 2) < f(2, g(2,2)) \)
  • (C) \( g(2,1) \neq f(2,1) \)
  • (D) \( f(3,2) > g(3,2) \)

Question 9:

Four cities P, Q, R, and S are connected through one-way routes as shown in the figure. The travel time between any two connected cities is one hour. The boxes beside each city name describe the starting time of the first train of the day and their frequency of operation. For example, from city P, the first trains of the day start at 8 AM with a frequency of 90 minutes to each of R and S. A person does not spend additional time at any city other than the waiting time for the next connecting train.
If the person starts from R at 7 AM and is required to visit S and return to R, what is the minimum time required?

  • (A) 6 hours 30 minutes
  • (B) 3 hours 45 minutes
  • (C) 4 hours 30 minutes
  • (D) 5 hours 15 minutes

Question 10:

Equal sized circular regions are shaded in a square sheet of paper of 1 cm side length. Two cases, case M and case N, are considered as shown in the figures below. In the case M, four circles are shaded in the square sheet and in the case N, nine circles are shaded in the square sheet as shown.
What is the ratio of the areas of unshaded regions of case M to that of case N?

  • (A) 2 : 3
  • (B) 1 : 1
  • (C) 3 : 2
  • (D) 2 : 1

Question 11:

Most probable value of a quantity

  • (A) always increases with increase in True value
  • (B) always decreases with decrease in True value
  • (C) is always equal to True value
  • (D) is nearest to True value

Question 12:

Two surveyors, P and Q measured a 20 m distance six times each, as given below (in m):

Surveyor P: 19.97, 20.02, 20.04, 19.98, 19.96, 20.03

Surveyor Q: 20.05, 20.07, 20.05, 20.06, 20.07, 20.07

On the basis of accuracy and precision of the measured values, choose the CORRECT statement.

  • (A) Observed values of Surveyor P are less precise and observed values of Surveyor Q are more accurate.
  • (B) Observed values of Surveyor P are more precise and observed values of Surveyor Q are less accurate.
  • (C) Observed values of Surveyor P are more accurate and observed values of Surveyor Q are more precise.
  • (D) Observed values of Surveyor P are less accurate and observed values of Surveyor Q are less precise.

Question 13:

Identify the error, which has all the following characteristics:

(i) Caused by observer’s misunderstanding and carelessness

(ii) Reading an angle counter-clockwise, but recording it as clockwise angle

(iii) Sighting the wrong target

(iv) Poor judgment by the observer

  • (A) Mistake
  • (B) Cumulative error
  • (C) Probable error
  • (D) Accidental error

Question 14:

Electromagnetic Spectrum can be broadly divided as (in order of increasing wavelength)

  • (A) X-rays, Gamma rays, Infrared, Ultraviolet, Visible, Radiowave, Microwave
  • (B) Gamma rays, X-rays, Radiowave, Microwave, Ultraviolet, Infrared, Visible
  • (C) X-rays, Gamma rays, Microwave, Radiowave, Ultraviolet, Infrared, Visible
  • (D) Gamma rays, X-rays, Ultraviolet, Visible, Infrared, Microwave, Radiowave

Question 15:

The relationship between wavelength (\( \lambda \)), frequency (\( \nu \)), and velocity (\( c \)) of electromagnetic wave is

  • (A) \( c = \frac{\nu^2}{\lambda} \)
  • (B) \( c = \frac{\nu}{\lambda} \)
  • (C) \( c = \nu \lambda \)
  • (D) \( c = \nu \lambda^2 \)

Question 16:

Spectral signature of an object in a satellite image does NOT depend on the

  • (A) season of the year
  • (B) wavelength of electromagnetic spectrum
  • (C) swath width of the satellite
  • (D) reflectance value from the object

Question 17:

Component of GPS signal that gets deciphered by all types of GPS receivers is

  • (A) Coarse-Acquisition code
  • (B) Precision code
  • (C) Link-1 frequency
  • (D) Link-2C frequency

Question 18:

For 3D-positioning, Global Navigational Satellite System (GNSS) requires a minimum of _________ satellites.

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 2

Question 19:

Basic objective of NAVSTAR GPS is to provide services for

  • (A) Positioning, Velocity and Timing
  • (B) Positioning, Navigation and Timing
  • (C) Velocity, Navigation and Timing
  • (D) Positioning, Velocity and Navigation

Question 20:

A satellite image with 6-bit radiometric resolution has _________ gray levels.

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 32
  • (C) 64
  • (D) 128

Question 21:

Thermal Infrared images are provided by

  • (A) LANDSAT MSS and IRS LISS-II sensors
  • (B) SPOT and CARTOSAT
  • (C) IKONOS and QUICKBIRD
  • (D) LANDSAT TM and NOAA AVHRR sensors

Question 22:

Which of the following gets mitigated in DGPS positioning?

  • (A) Atmospheric error
  • (B) Multi-path error
  • (C) Cycle-slip error
  • (D) Topographic error

Question 23:

In GIS database, which type of attribute may be used to represent area?

  • (A) Nominal
  • (B) Interval
  • (C) Ratio
  • (D) Ordinal

Question 24:

What is attribute uncertainty?

  • (A) Error due to imprecision in coordinate registration
  • (B) Error due to incorrect labelling or quantification of features
  • (C) Error in the source document due to cartographic bias
  • (D) Error associated with displacement of the object from its true location

Question 25:

In GIS, _____ triangulation is a proximal method that satisfies the requirement that a circle drawn through the three nodes of a triangle contains no other node.

  • (A) Dalhousie
  • (B) Delaunay
  • (C) David
  • (D) Davenport

Question 26:

In GIS, reclassification is performed to

  • (A) group ranges of values into a single value within a data layer
  • (B) segment a data layer into multiple data layers
  • (C) combine multiple data layers to a single data layer
  • (D) classify a data layer using many attributes

Question 27:

For the following observation equation \[ 2\alpha = 124^\circ 52' 22'' \quad weight 4, \]
the weight of \( \left( \frac{\alpha{3 \right) \text{ is _________ (in integer).


Question 28:

Following observation equations are obtained in a survey task.
\[ x + y = 3
2x + y = 6
x + 2y = 4 \]
Using least square method, the most probable values of x and y will be

  • (A) \( x = 2.10, y = 0.90 \)
  • (B) \( x = 2.64, y = 0.64 \)
  • (C) \( x = 2.51, y = 0.51 \)
  • (D) \( x = 2.75, y = 0.75 \)

Question 29:

The internal angles P, Q, R of a triangle are observed in degree minute second (° ' "). The angles along with their probable errors are given below.

P = 40° 30' 01'' ± 02'', Q = 60° 00' 02'' ± 03'', R = 79° 30' 05'' ± 04''

The corrected values of the angles P, Q and R are

  • (A) P = 40° 30' 01'', Q = 60° 00' 02'', R = 79° 30' 05''
  • (B) P = 40° 29' 59.6'', Q = 59° 59' 59.5'', R = 79° 30' 0.9''
  • (C) P = 40° 29' 59.9'', Q = 59° 59' 59.5'', R = 79° 30' 0.6''
  • (D) P = 40° 29' 59'', Q = 59° 59' 59'', R = 79° 30' 02''

Question 30:

How many number of cells of a 30 m spatial resolution DEM would be required to cover a 1:50,000 topographic map of Survey of India, assuming that 1 minute = 1.85 km?

  • (A) 855,625
  • (B) 855,525
  • (C) 855,425
  • (D) 855,325

Question 31:

Choose the CORRECT statement(s)

  • (A) True Color Composite is produced by superimposing Red band in Red, Green band in Green, and Blue band in Blue color.
  • (B) True Color Composite is produced by superimposing Blue band in Red, Green band in Green, and Red band in Blue color.
  • (C) Standard False Color Composite is produced by superimposing Near Infrared band in Red, Red band in Green, and Green band in Blue color.
  • (D) Standard False Color Composite is produced by superimposing Green band in Red, and Near Infrared band in Blue color.

Question 32:

Choose the CORRECT statement(s) in case of visual image interpretation.

  • (A) Tone/Color is a primary element while Size, Shape and Texture are secondary elements.
  • (B) Size, Shape and Texture are primary elements while Tone/Color is a secondary element.
  • (C) Texture refers to the frequency of tonal changes in an area of image.
  • (D) Tone/Color is a primary element while Pattern and Association are secondary elements.

Question 33:

The spatial resolution of a satellite image \( P \) is 80 m and another satellite image \( Q \) is 20 m; each of 512 \(\times\) 512 pixel size. Choose the CORRECT option(s).

  • (A) Image \( P \) will cover four times the area of image \( Q \).
  • (B) Image \( P \) will cover sixteen times the area of image \( Q \).
  • (C) Minor details will be more clear in image \( Q \) as compared to image \( P \).
  • (D) Image \( P \) is higher resolution and image \( Q \) is lower resolution.

Question 34:

Which statement(s) is/are CORRECT for Hyperspectral images?

  • (A) Bandwidth is large.
  • (B) Bandwidth is narrow.
  • (C) Number of bands are more.
  • (D) Bands are contiguous.

Question 35:

Satellite-Based NAVSTAR GPS Augmentation System(s) is/are

  • (A) EGNOS
  • (B) WAAS
  • (C) GAGAN
  • (D) DGPS

Question 36:

Identify the CORRECT statement(s)

  • (A) NAVSTAR GPS consists of minimum 24 satellites.
  • (B) Precision of GPS positioning is being defined by its standard deviation.
  • (C) DGPS method provides more accurate 3D-position than Relative Static post-processing method.
  • (D) GPS observations from geodetic GPS receiver provide less accurate position than GPS code receiver.

Question 37:

Identify the CORRECT statement(s).

  • (A) For accurate GPS positioning, Geometric Dilution of Precision should be as large as possible.
  • (B) Integer ambiguity is associated with carrier frequency observation of GPS signal.
  • (C) GPS is one way ranging system for user.
  • (D) GPS is two way ranging system for user.

Question 38:

During GPS Surveying, initialization of rover receiver is required for

  • (A) Relative Static method
  • (B) Relative Kinematic method
  • (C) Stop and Go method
  • (D) Kinematic On Fly method

Question 39:

Centroid of a polygon is

  • (A) geometric center of the polygon.
  • (B) arithmetic mean position of all its vertices in two coordinate directions.
  • (C) the point at which a cutout of the polygon could be perfectly balanced on the tip of a pin.
  • (D) center of polyline.

Question 40:

The area of a buffer of 50 m around a proposed 1 km straight road segment to restrict any future construction is _________ sq. m. (in integer).
(Take the value of \(\pi = 3.14\))


Question 41:

The Degree of Accuracy of a traverse having error of closure of 0.5 m and perimeter of 100 m is _________ (round off to 3 decimal places).


Question 42:

Using the following regression equations, the correlation coefficient between two survey quantities x and y will be _________ (round off to 2 decimal places).
\[ 2x - 5y + 98 = 0 \] \[ 6x - 7y + 114 = 0 \]


Question 43:

If population variance is 14.8, sample variance is 15.4 and the number of degrees of freedom is 10, then Chi-square value is _________ (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 44:

Height of a station determined by Global Navigational Satellite System (GNSS) is 284.097 m and the geoid height of the station is –30.052 m. The elevation of the station is _________ m (round off to 3 decimal places).


Question 45:

Number of cells required to cover an area of 9 sq. km of ASTER-GDEM are _________ (in integer).


Question 46:

If a 1:50,000 scale map is digitized to an accuracy of ± 0.5 mm, the level of error that might be expected in ground is ± _________ m (in integer).


Question 47:

The main principle of Surveying is to work from

  • (A) whole to part
  • (B) part to whole
  • (C) higher elevation to lower elevation
  • (D) lower elevation to higher elevation

Question 48:

The type of survey carried out to define the property boundaries for transfer of land property is called

  • (A) city survey
  • (B) cadastral survey
  • (C) municipality survey
  • (D) geodetic survey

Question 49:

Departure of a line of a traverse is obtained by multiplying its length by the _________ of the reduced bearing of the line.

  • (A) Sine
  • (B) Cosine
  • (C) Tangent
  • (D) Cotangent

Question 50:

The multiplying constant of a Tacheometer, where \( f \) is the focal length and \( i \) is the distance between the stadia hairs, is

  • (A) \( if \)
  • (B) \( \frac{f^2}{i} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{f}{i} \)
  • (D) \( f \times i \)

Question 51:

The camera axis of an aerial camera is defined as

  • (A) the line joining the optical centres of the objective and eyepiece lens.
  • (B) the perpendicular line between the photographic centre and optical centre of the objective lens.
  • (C) the line passing through the centre of the camera lens and perpendicular to the camera plane and the photo plane.
  • (D) the line perpendicular to the plumb line.

Question 52:

Bowditch rule for adjusting a closed traverse of perimeter ‘l’ is based on the assumption that the probable error is proportional to

  • (A) l
  • (B) √l
  • (C) l²
  • (D) 1/√l

Question 53:

Select the INCORRECT statement:

  • (A) Scale of a tilted photograph is uniform throughout its extent.
  • (B) The relief displacement of any point will be radial from the nadir point of the tilted photograph.
  • (C) The bisector of the angle of tilt intersects the tilted photograph at a point known as isocentre.
  • (D) A line perpendicular to the principal line and passing through the isocentre is known as the axis of tilt.

Question 54:

A topographic map prepared by Survey of India covers 1 degree by 1 degree area on a single map. The minimum ground distance which can be represented on this map is _________ m (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 55:

In a closed traverse, the sum of the latitudes is 1.39 m and the sum of the departures is 2.17 m. The Length and Whole Circle Bearing of the closing error are

  • (A) Length = 2.57 m, Whole Circle Bearing = 58°
  • (B) Length = 2.57 m, Whole Circle Bearing = 57°
  • (C) Length = 2.67 m, Whole Circle Bearing = 58°
  • (D) Length = 2.67 m, Whole Circle Bearing = 57°

Question 56:

In surveying, an odometer is used for measuring

  • (A) azimuth
  • (B) horizontal angle
  • (C) vertical angle
  • (D) distance

Question 57:

Choose the CORRECT statement(s).

  • (A) The spheroid is a mathematical surface of the Earth.
  • (B) Geoid is an equipotential reference surface of the Earth.
  • (C) True shape of the Earth is perfect spheroid.
  • (D) The WGS-84 datum varies from country to country.

Question 58:

Choose the CORRECT statement(s).

  • (A) Latitude of a place varies from 0 degree to 90 degree North or South, and Longitude varies from 0 degree to 180 degree East or West of Greenwich Meridian.
  • (B) Latitude of a place varies from 0 degree to 180 degree East or West of Greenwich Meridian, and Longitude varies from 0 degree to 90 degree North or South.
  • (C) Longitude of a point is the angle between the Greenwich Meridian and the meridian passing through that point.
  • (D) Latitude and Longitude of a place are subject to change with time.

Question 59:

A map projection is

  • (A) a systematic representation of latitude and longitude lines on a plane (paper map).
  • (B) a representation of the 3D shape of Earth on a 2D plane.
  • (C) dependent on the location of area on the Earth.
  • (D) required for taking theodolite observations of horizontal angles.

Question 60:

Face Left and Face Right observations using a vernier theodolite will eliminate

  • (A) index error
  • (B) graduation error
  • (C) eccentricity error
  • (D) atmospheric error

Question 61:

The parallax of a point ‘a’ on a pair of successive overlapping photographs is 73.22 mm and the micrometer reading of a parallax bar of point ‘a’ is 12.10 mm. Similarly, the micrometer reading of the parallax bar of point ‘b’ is 9.65 mm, then the parallax of the point ‘b’ is _________ mm (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 62:

The scale of an aerial photograph is 5 mm = 100 m. The size of the photograph is 23 cm × 23 cm. If the longitudinal overlap is 65% and sidelap is 20%, the number of photographs required to cover an area of 12.5 km × 8 km is _________ (in integer).


Question 63:

An instrument is set up at a station P and the angle of depression to a vane, 1.20 m above the foot of the staff held at Q is 5°. The horizontal distance PQ is observed to be 300 m. The R.L. of point Q is _________ m (round off to 3 decimal places). Given that the staff reading at a BM (Elevation 436.050 m) is 2.865 m.


Question 64:

A staff is held vertical at a distance of 100 m and 300 m, respectively. Observations are taken with a Tacheometer and staff intercepts, with the telescope kept horizontal, are 0.990 m and 3.000 m, respectively. The theodolite is set over a station having a RL of 950.500 m and the height of instrument is 1.425 m. The multiplicative constant of the Tacheometer is _________ (round off to 2 decimal places).


Question 65:

Survey of India topographic sheet is 53G/12. At this scale, the number of toposheets that would cover a land area equivalent to 4 degree by 4 degree is _________ (in integer).


Question 66:

The correlation coefficient between two bands of remote sensing data that would yield good classification is

  • (A) close to one
  • (B) close to zero
  • (C) close to ten
  • (D) between one to ten

Question 67:

In a covariance matrix, the main diagonal shows the _________ of each band.

  • (A) standard deviation
  • (B) variance
  • (C) mean
  • (D) median

Question 68:

Choose the INCORRECT statement about image segmentation in digital image processing.

  • (A) Segmentation divides an image into different regions.
  • (B) Image segmentation does not help in image classification.
  • (C) Segmentation helps to identify objects or boundaries.
  • (D) Segmentation is a process of partitioning an image into multiple sets of similar pixels.

Question 69:

When the histogram of an image is non-Gaussian in nature, the type of linear contrast enhancement preferred to be used is

  • (A) Piece-wise Linear Contrast Stretching
  • (B) Min-max Linear Contrast Stretching
  • (C) Percentage Linear Contrast Stretching
  • (D) Standard Deviation Contrast Stretching

Question 70:

Spinning of the Earth, as viewed from the North pole, appears to be from

  • (A) West to East in anti-clockwise direction
  • (B) West to East in clockwise direction
  • (C) East to West in anti-clockwise direction
  • (D) East to West in clockwise direction

Question 71:

In case of Principal Component Analysis (PCA), the variance of a single variable expresses the spread of its values about the

  • (A) Mode
  • (B) Median
  • (C) Mean
  • (D) Standard Deviation

Question 72:

Select the CORRECT sequence for supervised classification of satellite image.



(i) Classification

(ii) Training

(iii) Accuracy assessment

(iv) Radiometric/geometric correction

  • (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  • (B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  • (C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  • (D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

Question 73:

The sum of all the values of a normalized histogram is equal to _________ (in integer).


Question 74:

In a Landsat-8 scene, digital number (DN) values of a pixel in band-4, band-5 and band-10 are 80, 100 and 30, respectively. What would be the NDVI value for the same pixel (round off to 3 decimal places)?

  • (A) 0.111
  • (B) 0.222
  • (C) 0.556
  • (D) 0.889

Question 75:

For a given set of radiance values, which amongst the following is/are unitless?

  • (A) Skewness
  • (B) Kurtosis
  • (C) Mean
  • (D) Standard Deviation

Question 76:

Identify the CORRECT statement(s).

  • (A) External geometric errors in satellite images can be corrected using GCPs and an appropriate mathematical model.
  • (B) During rectification, transformation coefficients are used to rectify remote sensing images to a standard datum and map projection.
  • (C) Spatial interpolation models take care of four kinds of distortions in the remote sensing images.
  • (D) Registration is done between a satellite image and field data.

Question 77:

Choose the CORRECT statement(s).

  • (A) Higher frequencies in an original image predominantly appear around the center of its Fourier Spectrum.
  • (B) Higher frequencies in an original image predominantly appear progressively along the outer edge of its Fourier Spectrum.
  • (C) Horizontal features in an original image appear as vertical components in its Fourier Spectrum.
  • (D) Vertical features in an original image appear as vertical components in its Fourier Spectrum.

Question 78:

Match the CORRECT option(s) for the types of filters given in (I), (II), (III), and (IV) with their kernels given in (P), (Q), (R), and (S).

  • (A) I - P and II - Q
  • (B) III - R and IV - S
  • (C) I - P and IV - Q
  • (D) II - R and III - S

Question 79:

Band ratio in satellite images interpretation is applied to

  • (A) enhance the spectral separation
  • (B) reduce the effects of topography
  • (C) enhance the effects of topography
  • (D) increase spatial differences between bands

Question 80:

The decorrelation stretch enhances colour differences and removes inter-band _________.

  • (A) decorrelation
  • (B) contradiction
  • (C) correlation
  • (D) relationship

Question 81:

The overall image classification accuracy (in percentage) calculated from the following error matrix is _________ (in integer).


Question 82:

Number of bytes required to store an 8-bit uncompressed image of size 512 × 512 pixels is _________ (in integer).


Question 83:

The minimum and maximum Digital Number (DN) values of an image are 30 and 55, respectively. If the input DN value of a pixel is 35, the output DN value after linear contrast stretch of an 8-bit data is _________ (in integer).


Question 84:

The FOV of a sensor (for a scene) placed at a nadir height of 6 km is 90 degree. The ground swath width of the scene is _________ km (in integer).



Quick Links:

GATE 2022 GE Detailed Paper Analysis

Likewise any other GATE exam, GATE GE 2022 question paper also comprised 65 questions. GATE 2022 GE question paper was distributed in two sections i.e. Part A and Part B.

  • Part A contained 10 General Aptitude questions that were mandatory to attempt.
  • Part B was related to core GE based questions that were further distributed between Sections i.e. Section A and Section B.
  • Candidates opting for GE could also choose any of the papers from Civil Engineering (CE), Geology and Geophysics (GG), Environmental Science and Engineering (ES), and Mining Engineering (MN).
  • A total of 55 questions were listed in Part B of GATE 2022 GE. Some of the listed concept based questions were based on the following topics:
    • Finding number of images - photogrammetry
    • Thermal infrared images
    • Question on Tacheometry
    • Principle of surveying, Bowditch Relationship

Also Check:

GATE 2022 GE: Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

  • GATE 2022 GE asked both MCQs and NATs. It was held online via CBT mode
  • As per the specified marking scheme by IIT Delhi, from the final score, ⅓ and ⅔ marks would be reduced for each wrong MCQ carried 1 and 2 marks
  • Wrong attempted NATs were not supposed to bring any kind of deduction in the final achieved marks

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