GATE 2022 Environmental Science and Engineering (ES) Question Paper Available - Download Here with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 15, 2026

GATE 2022 Environmental Science and Engineering (ES) Question Paper with Solutions was successfully concluded on 6th February, 2022 by IIT Kharagpur. The overall difficulty level was rated moderate. Although students reviewed the question paper tougher as compared to last year. The question paper had three sections General Aptitude, Engineering Mathematics, and Environmental Science based questions. Maximum weightage was carried by ES based questions.

GATE 2022 Environmental Science and Engineering (ES) Question Paper with Solutions

Candidates targeting GATE can download the PDFs for GATE 2022 ES Question Paper and ASolutions to know the important topics asked, and check their preparation level by solving the past question papers.

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GATE 2022 Environmental Science and Engineering (ES) Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Mr. X speaks _____ Japanese _____ Chinese.

  • (A) neither / or
  • (B) either / nor
  • (C) neither / nor
  • (D) also / but

Question 2:

A sum of money is to be distributed among P, Q, R, and S in the proportion 5 : 2 : 4 : 3, respectively.
If R gets ₹1000 more than S, what is the share of Q (in ₹)?

  • (A) 500
  • (B) 1000
  • (C) 1500
  • (D) 2000

Question 3:

A trapezium has vertices marked as P, Q, R, and S (in that order anticlockwise). The side PQ is parallel to side SR. Further, it is given that, PQ = 11 cm, QR = 4 cm, RS = 6 cm, and SP = 3 cm. What is the shortest distance between PQ and SR (in cm)?

  • (A) 1.80
  • (B) 2.40
  • (C) 4.20
  • (D) 5.76

Question 4:

The figure shows a grid formed by a collection of unit squares. The unshaded unit square in the grid represents a hole. What is the maximum number of squares without a "hole in the interior" that can be formed within the 4 \(\times\) 4 grid using the unit squares as building blocks?

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 21
  • (D) 26

Question 5:

An art gallery engages a security guard to ensure that the items displayed are protected. The diagram below represents the plan of the gallery where the boundary walls are opaque. The location the security guard posted is identified such that all the inner space (shaded region in the plan) of the gallery is within the line of sight of the security guard.
If the security guard does not move around the posted location and has a 360° view, which one of the following correctly represents the set of ALL possible locations among the locations P, Q, R and S, where the security guard can be posted to watch over the entire inner space of the gallery?

  • (A) P and Q
  • (B) Q
  • (C) Q and S
  • (D) R and S

Question 6:

Mosquitoes pose a threat to human health. Controlling mosquitoes using chemicals may have undesired consequences. In Florida, authorities have used genetically modified mosquitoes to control the overall mosquito population. It remains to be seen if this novel approach has unforeseen consequences.
Which one of the following is the correct logical inference based on the information in the above passage?

  • (A) Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes is better than using genetically modified mosquitoes because genetic engineering is dangerous
  • (B) Using genetically modified mosquitoes is better than using chemicals to kill mosquitoes because they do not have any side effects
  • (C) Both using genetically modified mosquitoes and chemicals have undesired consequences and can be dangerous
  • (D) Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes may have undesired consequences but it is not clear if using genetically modified mosquitoes has any negative consequence

Question 7:

Consider the following inequalities.
(i) 2x - 1 \(>\) 7
(ii) 2x - 9 \(<\)1
Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?

  • (A) \( x \leq -4 \)
  • (B) \( -4 < x \leq 4 \)
  • (C) \( 4 < x < 5 \)
  • (D) \( x \geq 5 \)

Question 8:

Four points \( P(0, 1), Q(0, -3), R(-2, -1), \) and \( S(2, -1) \) represent the vertices of a quadrilateral. What is the area enclosed by the quadrilateral?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) \( 4\sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) 8
  • (D) \( 8\sqrt{2} \)

Question 9:

In a class of five students P, Q, R, S and T, only one student is known to have copied in the exam. The disciplinary committee has investigated the situation and recorded the statements from the students as given below.
Statement of P: R has copied in the exam.
Statement of Q: S has copied in the exam.
Statement of R: P did not copy in the exam.
Statement of S: Only one of us is telling the truth.
Statement of T: R is telling the truth.
The investigating team had authentic information that S never lies.
Based on the information given above, the person who has copied in the exam is:

  • (A) R
  • (B) Q
  • (C) S
  • (D) T

Question 10:

Consider the following square with the four corners and the center marked as P, Q, R, S and T respectively.
Let X, Y, and Z represent the following operations:
X: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the S-Q axis.
Y: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the P-R axis.
Z: rotation of the square by 90 degree clockwise with respect to the axis perpendicular, going into the screen and passing through the point T.
Consider the following three distinct sequences of operation (which are applied in the left to right order).
(1) XYZ
(2) XY
(3) ZZZZ
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the information provided above?

  • (A) The sequence of operations (1) and (2) are equivalent
  • (B) The sequence of operations (1) and (3) are equivalent
  • (C) The sequence of operations (2) and (3) are equivalent
  • (D) The sequence of operations (1), (2) and (3) are equivalent

Question 11:

A student reported following arsenic concentrations in water samples:

Which one of the following is a correct statement about arsenic concentration distribution?

  • (A) Arsenic concentration distribution is symmetric
  • (B) Arsenic concentration distribution is positively skewed
  • (C) Arsenic concentration distribution is negatively skewed
  • (D) Arsenic concentration is following Weibull distribution

Question 12:

X is normally distributed with the following data (25.8, 36.6, 26.3, 21.8, 27.2). Select the correct statement about X (\(t_{crit,\ \alpha=0.05,4}=2.132\)):

  • (A) Population mean \(\le 25\) with 95% confidence
  • (B) Population mean \(\le 25\) with 100% confidence
  • (C) Population mean \(> 25\) with 95% confidence
  • (D) Population mean \(> 25\) with 100% confidence

Question 13:

Assuming \(s > 0\), the Laplace transform for \(f(x) = \sin(ax)\) is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{a}{s^2 + a^2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{s}{s^2 + a^2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{a}{s^2 - a^2}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{s}{s^2 - a^2}\)

Question 14:

Given \(P\) is an \(m\times n\) matrix, \(Q\) is an \(n\times l\) matrix, and \(R\) and \(S\) are \(n\times n\) matrices. Consider:
Relationship 1: \quad \((PQ)^T = Q^T P^T\)
Relationship 2: \quad \((RS)^{-1} = S^{-1} R^{-1}\)
Which one of the following is correct?

  • (A) Relationship 1 is false; Relationship 2 is false
  • (B) Relationship 1 is true; Relationship 2 is false
  • (C) Relationship 1 is true; Relationship 2 is true
  • (D) Relationship 1 is false; Relationship 2 is true

Question 15:

Specific conductance is used in water analysis to indirectly estimate dissolved solids. The measurements used in the method account for

  • (A) Cations only
  • (B) All ions
  • (C) Anions only
  • (D) Un-ionized species

Question 16:

Ten litres of the sample was filtered through a membrane filter and the filter was transferred to solid agar media which supports growth of coliform organisms. After incubation at 37°C for 48 hours, the agar plates showed an average of 64 colonies per plate. What was the average concentration of coliform organisms (in CFU/ml) in the original water sample?

  • (A) 64 CFU/ml
  • (B) 640 CFU/ml
  • (C) \(6.4 \times 10^{-3}\) CFU/ml
  • (D) \(64 \times 10^{-3}\) CFU/ml

Question 17:

Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction is an analytical procedure used in detection of pathogenic microorganisms. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in this context?

  • (A) It is used for identifying presence or absence of specific RNA in samples.
  • (B) It is used only for identifying Corona Viruses, including SARS CoV2 in samples.
  • (C) It cannot differentiate between viable and inactivated viruses.
  • (D) It is based on conversion of RNA to DNA followed by DNA amplification.

Question 18:

Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Goodrich method for reservoir routing is based on hydrologic flood routing method.
Statement 2: Muskingum method for channel routing is based on hydraulic flood routing method.
Which one of the following is correct?

  • (A) Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is false
  • (B) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
  • (C) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is true
  • (D) Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true

Question 19:

The correct order of hydraulic conductivity for the geologic formations is

  • (A) Aquifer \(>\) Aquitard \(>\) Aquiclude \(>\) Aquifuge
  • (B) Aquifer \(<\) Aquitard \(<\) Aquiclude \(<\) Aquifuge
  • (C) Aquitard \(>\) Aquifer \(>\) Aquifuge \(>\) Aquiclude
  • (D) Aquifer \(>\) Aquiclude \(>\) Aquitard \(>\) Aquifuge

Question 20:

Centrifugal pumps with suction pipe (shown by solid arrow) and delivery pipe (shown by dotted arrow) are shown in the figures. Choose the option that gives the correct connection.

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 21:

Carbon dioxide is used in recarbonation process. A solution has 1 mole/L supersaturated calcium carbonate. Estimated amount of carbon dioxide (in grams) needed to completely convert calcium carbonate to calcium ions in 1 litre solution is _____.

  • (A) 44.000 gram
  • (B) 0.044 gram
  • (C) 40.000 gram
  • (D) 0.040 gram

Question 22:

A river water sample has pH of 4 and suspended solids concentration of 100 mg/L. If alum is chosen as a coagulant, what will be the coagulation mechanism?

  • (A) Ionic layer compression only
  • (B) Sweep coagulation and Polymer bridging
  • (C) Polymer bridging only
  • (D) Charge neutralization, surface adsorption, ionic layer compression

Question 23:

Which one of the following is most commonly used raw material in flue gas desulfurization units?

  • (A) Limestone
  • (B) Titanium Oxide
  • (C) Fenton reagent
  • (D) Beryllium Oxide

Question 24:

Leachate generated from a legacy municipal solid waste dumping site has to be collected and managed carefully. Which statement is correct for treatment of such leachate?

  • (A) Settling chamber followed by micro-filtration units are required.
  • (B) Modular treatment units targeting dissolved organic matter and salts are required.
  • (C) Only biological treatment units like ASP with extended aeration are required.
  • (D) Only a combination of anaerobic–aerobic treatment units is required.

Question 25:

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Global warming?

  • (A) Water vapour does not contribute to global warming.
  • (B) Global warming is likely to increase the productivity of plants due to CO\textsubscript{2} fertilization.
  • (C) CFCs do not cause global warming, but can cause ozone layer depletion in stratosphere.
  • (D) HFCs and HCFCs are good substitutes for ozone-depleting substances as they cause neither global warming nor ozone layer depletion.

Question 26:

In context of ecosystems, which one of the following is NOT a correct statement?

  • (A) The growth of an organism may depend on multiple factors; Liebig’s law states growth is limited by the most limiting factor.
  • (B) Carrying capacity is the upper limit determined by limiting resources; it specifies the population an ecosystem can support.
  • (C) The Ramsar convention on lakes and backwater systems of international importance was signed in 1981 and became effective in 1985.
  • (D) A Red Data Book lists endangered species in various categories of perceived risk.

Question 27:

Which one of the following statements correctly defines the concept of ‘Extended Producer’s Responsibility’?

  • (A) The responsibility of a producer for environmentally sound disposal of the product after the end of its life
  • (B) The responsibility of a producer for environmentally sound manufacturing process for the product
  • (C) The responsibility of a producer for environmentally sound management of the product from manufacturing stage until it is sold in the market
  • (D) The responsibility of a producer for environmentally sound management of the product until the end of its life

Question 28:

If \(G\) represents Gibbs free energy, select the correct statement(s).

  • (A) If \(\Delta G = 0\), reaction will proceed only in one direction
  • (B) If \(\Delta G = 0\), reaction will be in equilibrium
  • (C) If \(\Delta G < 0\), reaction will proceed forward
  • (D) If \(\Delta G > 0\), reaction will not proceed forward

Question 29:

For effluents generated by a molasses-based distillery and wood-based pulp and paper industry, which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct?

  • (A) Both the effluents have dark colour.
  • (B) Both the effluents have high toxicity.
  • (C) Both the effluents generally have BOD greater than 15{,}000 ppm.
  • (D) Both the effluents have high pH.

Question 30:

PM\(_{2.5}\) concentrations in ambient air can be measured using

  • (A) Beta attenuation method
  • (B) Chemiluminescence method
  • (C) Gravimetric method
  • (D) Non-dispersive infrared spectroscopy method

Question 31:

Biodegradable wastes like vegetable peelings from kitchen are usually processed by composting techniques. Which of the following option(s) regarding the processing of biodegradable wastes is/are correct?

  • (A) Vermi-composting is relatively faster than windrow composting, however vermi-composting is not frequently used on large commercial scale.
  • (B) The windrow height should be as short as possible as large windrow height may cause compaction due to the self-weight.
  • (C) The windrow height should be as large as possible as that will help to ensure appropriate temperature within the windrow.
  • (D) Earthworms facilitate the growth of microorganisms and break down complex organic molecules to simpler ones using enzymatic secretions.

Question 32:

As per ‘Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016’ of Govt. of India, the import of hazardous and other wastes from any country shall NOT be permitted for which of the following option(s)?

  • (A) Recovery, reuse and recycle
  • (B) Disposal in abandoned mines
  • (C) Safe disposal in engineered landfills
  • (D) Utilization, including co-processing

Question 33:

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF\&CC), Govt. of India has published the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) draft Notification 2020, intended to replace the existing EIA Notification 2006 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Which of the following is/are the key change(s) from existing regulation?

  • (A) Removal of several project/activities from the purview of public consultation.
  • (B) A list of projects has been included under Category B2, expressly exempted from the requirement of an EIA.
  • (C) All the project related activities are brought under the purview of necessary public consultation.
  • (D) A list of projects has been included under Category B2, bringing them under the requirement of detailed EIA.

Question 34:

\[ \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sqrt{1+x}-1}{x} \]
is ______ (rounded off to one decimal place).


Question 35:

The following figure shows a 2-hour unit hydrograph (1 cm rainfall excess) for a catchment area of 540 hectare.
Find the peak discharge (in m\(^3\)/s, rounded to one decimal place).


Question 36:

Given, \(y = f(x)\); \(\dfrac{d^2 y}{dx^2} + 4y = 0\); \(y(0) = 0\); \(\dfrac{dy}{dx}(0) = 1\). The problem is a/an

  • (A) initial value problem having solution \(y = x\)
  • (B) boundary value problem having solution \(y = x\)
  • (C) initial value problem having solution \(y = \dfrac{1}{2}\sin 2x\)
  • (D) boundary value problem having solution \(y = \dfrac{1}{2}\sin 2x\)

Question 37:

Eigenvalues of the matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1
-2 & 3 \end{bmatrix}\) are

  • (A) 1 and 2
  • (B) 1 and 3
  • (C) 1 and \(-2\)
  • (D) 0 and 3

Question 38:

For an exponentially growing microbial culture, the specific growth rate \((\mu)\) is related to its doubling time \((t_d)\) by which one of the following relations?

  • (A) \(t_d = \mu\)
  • (B) \(t_d = \mu^2\)
  • (C) \(t_d = \dfrac{1}{\mu}\ln 2\)
  • (D) \(t_d = \dfrac{1}{2}\ln \mu\)

Question 39:

A microbial culture with a specific growth rate of \(\mu_1\) (per hour) is being grown in a continuous reactor at steady state with hydraulic retention time (HRT) of 24 hours. The reactor is subjected to a perturbation by reducing the HRT to 12 hours. The reactor recovers and comes to a new steady state with a specific growth rate of \(\mu_2\). Which one of the following statements is correct?

  • (A) \(\mu_1 = \mu_2\)
  • (B) \(\mu_1 = 0.5\mu_2\)
  • (C) \(\mu_2 = 0.5\mu_1\)
  • (D) \(\mu_2 = e^{0.5}\mu_1\)

Question 40:

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct with respect to a batch reactor?

  • (A) No reactant is added after the reactor has started operation.
  • (B) No product is withdrawn during the course of the reactor operation.
  • (C) The reactor operates under steady state.
  • (D) The reactor operation is carried out for a pre-specified duration.

Question 41:

A bag filter is used for removal of particulate matter having a range of sizes. The correct sequence of air filtration mechanisms for their removal, in order of decreasing size, is

  • (A) Diffusion, Impaction, Disintegration
  • (B) Disintegration, Impaction, Interception
  • (C) Diffusion, Impaction, Interception
  • (D) Impaction, Interception, Diffusion

Question 42:

A relatively calm room has background sound power level (SPL) of 30 decibels (dB). A television and a radio with SPL of 80 dB and 70 dB, respectively, started operating simultaneously in this room. Given the reference sound power is \(10^{-12}\) Watts, what will be the resulting SPL in the room, assuming all the sources operate independently?

  • (A) 180.0 dB
  • (B) 80.4 dB
  • (C) 82.4 dB
  • (D) 150.0 dB

Question 43:

During night, in troposphere, which of the following is/are NOT correct?

  • (A) \(NO_2 + h\nu \rightarrow NO + O\)
  • (B) Most of the NOx (i.e., NO + NO\(_2\)) converts to NO
  • (C) NO + O\(_3\) \(\rightarrow\) NO\(_2\) + O\(_2\)
  • (D) Most of the NOx (i.e., NO + NO\(_2\)) converts to NO\(_2\()

Question 44:

A typical plasmid-free bacterial cell having a single chromosome consists of \(\sim 55%\) protein, \(\sim 3%\) DNA and \(\sim 21%\) RNA (percent of dry weight). Assuming there are 2500 different types of protein molecules (with at least one copy number) being expressed in a bacterial cell at any given time, which of the following statements is/are NOT correct with respect to the number of intracellular DNA, RNA and protein molecules?

  • (A) DNA = RNA = Protein \(\ge 2500\)
  • (B) DNA = RNA = 1; Protein \(\ge 2500\)
  • (C) DNA = 1; RNA = Protein \(\ge 2500\)
  • (D) DNA = 1; RNA > Protein \(\ge 2500\)

Question 45:

Average values of the re-aeration rate constant for river X and Y are 0.92 day\(^{-1}\) and 1.12 day\(^{-1}\) respectively. Average de-oxygenation rate constants are 0.23 day\(^{-1}\) and 0.35 day\(^{-1}\) for the same rivers. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  • (A) Self-purification capacity of river Y is more than that of river X.
  • (B) Self-purification capacity of river X is more than that of river Y.
  • (C) River Y has higher turbulence and/or higher velocity and/or higher algal growth compared to river X.
  • (D) Pollutants in river X are more biodegradable than those in river Y.

Question 46:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct while comparing continuously stirred tank reactor (CSTR) and plug flow reactor (PFR)?

  • (A) CSTR and PFR are normally operated under steady state condition.
  • (B) There is complete homogeneity in the CSTR while there are concentration variations within the PFR.
  • (C) The overall reaction carried out in a PFR is always higher than that in a CSTR for the same total volume.
  • (D) Reaction kinetics do not play any role in choosing between a CSTR and PFR.

Question 47:

According to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (CPCB, Govt. of India, 2009), which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  • (A) SO\textsubscript{2} and NO\textsubscript{2} have annual average standards; while O\textsubscript{3} and CO have eight hour average standards.
  • (B) SO\textsubscript{2} and CO have annual average standards; while O\textsubscript{3} and NO\textsubscript{2} have eight hour average standards.
  • (C) SO\textsubscript{2} and CO have eight hour average standards; while O\textsubscript{3} and NO\textsubscript{2} have hourly average standards.
  • (D) SO\textsubscript{2} and NO\textsubscript{2} have 24 hour average standards; while O\textsubscript{3} and CO have hourly average standards.

Question 48:

Consider the figure shown below for three different cases.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for surface level emissions, given the environmental temperature?

  • (A) Case P represents unstable atmosphere and results in higher dispersion of emissions.
  • (B) Case Q represents subsidence inversion and results in higher dispersion of emissions than Case P.
  • (C) Case Q represents elevated inversion and results in lower dispersion of emissions than Case P.
  • (D) Case R represents subsidence inversion and results in lower dispersion of emissions than Case P.

Question 49:

As per the Solid Waste Management Rules of 2016 (Govt. of India), which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  • (A) Biodegradable wastes should be processed biologically preferably in decentralized facilities at the sources of generation.
  • (B) Biodegradable wastes should be processed biologically preferably in centralized facilities away from the sources of generation.
  • (C) Used sanitary pads and napkins should be wrapped and disposed into the domestic hazardous waste containers.
  • (D) Non-biodegradable components with a heat content more than 1500 kcal/kg should be used for power generation or Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF) manufacture.

Question 50:

Carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle and phosphorus cycle play important roles in ecosystems. Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct about the phosphorus cycle?

  • (A) Shortage of phosphorus can be a limiting factor in many ecosystems, however, its excess can stimulate eutrophication.
  • (B) Organic phosphates exist in various rock and soil minerals.
  • (C) Like carbon cycle, phosphorus also has a gaseous phase and can move into far away ecosystems.
  • (D) Human interventions like application of phosphorus fertilizers cause much phosphorus to get into the ocean.

Question 51:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding National Green Tribunal (NGT) of India?

  • (A) NGT Act 2010 draws inspiration from the India's constitutional provision of Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty, which assures the citizens of India the right to a healthy environment.
  • (B) A retired Judge of the Supreme Court, can be the Chairperson of the NGT.
  • (C) NGT Act 2017 is based on the India's constitutional provision of Article 361 - Protection of Biodiversity and Environmental Protection, which bestows the citizens of India with a duty to protect all abiotic and biotic components of the environment.
  • (D) The NGT is mandated to make and endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 45 days of filing of the same.

Question 52:

The area of the region (rounded off to one decimal place) enclosed between the curves \(y = x\) and \(y = 3\sqrt{x}\) and between the lines \(x = 0\) and \(x = 1\) is ______ units.


Question 53:

An individual has four different email accounts. 60% of emails come into his corporate account,
30% come into his gmail account and the remaining 10% are equally divided into his yahoo and zoho accounts.
Only 1% of the emails in his corporate accounts are spam, whereas corresponding percentages for gmail, yahoo and zoho accounts are 2%, 3% and 3%, respectively. Assuming that the same spam filter is used in all the four email accounts, the probability (in percentage, rounded off to one decimal place) of having a randomly selected email as spam is ______.


Question 54:

A solution has 0.001 mole/L zinc ions with pH = 6.
The solubility product of zinc hydroxide is \[ K_{sp} = 8 \times 10^{-18}\ (mol/L)^{3}. \]
Ignoring activity corrections, find the ratio (rounded to two decimals) of the reaction quotient to the solubility product.


Question 55:

The Henry’s law constant of CO\(_2\) is \(3.4 \times 10^{-2}\) M/atm at 25\(^\circ\)C.
Dissolved CO\(_2\) undergoes:
CO\(_2 \cdot\)H\(_2\)O \(\rightleftharpoons\) H\(^+\) + HCO\(_3^-\) \quad (\(K_1 = 4.3 \times 10^{-7}\) M)
HCO\(_3^- \rightleftharpoons\) H\(^+\) + CO\(_3^{2-}\) \quad (\(K_2 = 4.7 \times 10^{-11}\) M)
If ambient CO\(_2\) concentration is 300 ppm, the total dissolved CO\(_2\) (in \(\mu\)M, rounded off to one decimal place) is _____.


Question 56:

An isolated 3-hour storm occurred over a catchment.
Given the \(\phi\)–index and rainfall data, compute the total rainfall excess
(rounded off to one decimal place).


Question 57:

Two reservoirs differ by 20 m in water levels and are connected through a confined aquifer
(thickness = 5 m, length = 2 km, hydraulic conductivity \(K = 3\times10^{-3}\) m/s,
porosity \(\eta = 0.3\)). If Reservoir 1 is contaminated, the time (in days, rounded off to one decimal place)
taken by the pollutant to reach Reservoir 2 by advection is _____.


Question 58:

A venturimeter with a differential manometer is installed to measure flow in a water pipeline.
Taking water specific weight = 9810 N/m\(^3\), compute the pressure difference (in Pa,
rounded off to one decimal place) between points Q and P.


Question 59:

Two reservoirs differ by 10 m in water surface elevation and are connected by a 50 m long,
10 cm diameter pipeline (friction factor \(f = 0.02\)).
If the last 25 m is replaced with a 20 cm diameter pipe of the same material,
the increase in discharge (in %, rounded to one decimal place) is:


Question 60:

Find the depth of flow (in m, rounded to two decimals)
in a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel (\(n = 1/80\))
carrying 64 m\(^3\)/s at slope \(S = 0.01\).


Question 61:

Clean water is passed through a bed of uniform spherical sand at a filtration velocity of 0.002 m/s.
Sand grains are 0.4 mm diameter, specific gravity 2.65, bed depth = 0.67 m, porosity \(\eta = 0.35\).
Water density = 998.2 kg/m\(^3\), viscosity = \(1.002\times10^{-3}\) Pa·s.
Friction factor: \[ f = 1.75 + \frac{150(1-\eta)}{Re}, \]
where \(Re\) is Reynolds number.
The headloss (in m, rounded off to three decimal places) using the Carman–Kozeny equation is _____.


Question 62:

A sewage treatment plant (capacity 10 MLD) treats wastewater using an aerobic biological process.
Inlet BOD = 100 mg/L, outlet BOD = 30 mg/L. Microbial yield = 0.5 g VSS/g BOD removed.
At 80% plant capacity, the sludge production rate (in kg/day, rounded off to one decimal place) is _____.


Question 63:

A centrifuge processes 1000 L/h of water containing 2 g/L suspended solids.
The thickened slurry leaving the centrifuge has 20 g per 100 mL of solids.
If the centrifuge has 99% solids-separation efficiency,
find the flow rate (in L/h, rounded to one decimal place) of the supernatant stream.


Question 64:

A ground level source emits 1000 g/day of SO\(_2\). Wind speed = 2 m/s.
Dispersion coefficients at 1000 m downwind are given.
Estimate the ground-level SO\(_2\) concentration (in \(\mu\)g/m\(^3\), rounded off to two decimals)
at 1000 m at the plume centerline.


Question 65:

The figure shows heat inflow and outflow for a waste-to-energy plant furnace.
Assume:
(i) total heat loss = 3% of heat released from waste,
(ii) sensible heat of waste is negligible,
(iii) complete burning of waste.


Given waste feed rate = 70 kg/h, air heat input = 300 kcal/h,
flue gas = 90000 kcal/h, ash = 10000 kcal/h.
Find the heat content of waste (kcal/kg), rounded to one decimal place.


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GATE 2022 ES Detailed Paper Analysis

A total of 65 questions listed in GATE 2022 ES that were related to 10 sections. Follow the below-mentioned table in order to get details of the appeared questions as per the sections-

Topics/Sections No. Of Questions Carried
General Aptitude 10
Engineering Mathematics 10
Environmental Chemistry 5
Air and Noise Pollution 6
Environmental Microbiology 5
Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management 8
Global Issues 4
Environmental Management and Sustainable Development 5
Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics 4
Water & Wastewater Treatment and Management 8
Total 65
  • The question paper carried more theory based questions, along with a few tricky questions
  • The General Aptitude and Mathematics section was rated comparatively easy

GATE 2022 ES Question Types and Question Frequency

The appeared questions were in three forms i.e. MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions), NATs (Numerical Answer Type), and MSQs (Multiple Select Questions). More number of MSQs made the paper difficult to attemp. Candidates can go through the below-mentioned table to see the total number of MCQs, MSQs and NATs in GATE 2022 ES Question Paper-

Question Types Question Frequency
No. Of MCQs 33
No. Of MSQs 14
No. Of NATs 18
Total 65

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GATE 2022 ES: Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

  • GATE 2022 ES asked both MCQs and NATs. It was held online via CBT mode
  • As per the specified marking scheme by IIT Delhi, from the final score, ⅓ and ⅔ marks would be reduced for each wrong MCQ carried 1 and 2 marks
  • Wrong attempted NATs were not supposed to bring any kind of deduction in the final achieved marks

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