GATE 2025 ES Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

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IIT Roorkee is conducting the GATE 2025 Environmental Science & Engineering (ES) exam, and the GATE 2025 ES Question Paper PDF is now available after the conclusion of the February 15 shift 1 from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. As per the updated exam pattern, the exam consists of 65 questions totaling 100 marks, with 10 questions from General Aptitude and 55 questions covering Engineering Mathematics and Environmental Science & Engineering topics.

The difficulty level of GATE 2025 ES was moderate.

GATE 2025 ES Question Paper with Solutions PDF

GATE 2025 ES Question Paper with Answer Key Download Check Solutions
GATE 2025 ES Question Paper with solution pdf

GATE 2025 ES Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

Courage : Bravery :: Yearning :

Select the most appropriate option to complete the analogy.

  • (A) Longing
  • (B) Yelling
  • (C) Yawning
  • (D) Glaring
Correct Answer: (A) Longing
View Solution

Question 2:

We _______ tennis in the lawn when it suddenly started to rain.

Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.

  • (A) have been playing
  • (B) had been playing
  • (C) would have been playing
  • (D) could be playing
Correct Answer: (B) had been playing
View Solution

Question 3:

A 4 × 4 digital image has pixel intensities (U) as shown in the figure. The number of pixels with \( U \leq 4 \) is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer: (C) 11
View Solution

Question 4:

In the given figure, the numbers associated with the rectangle, triangle, and ellipse are 1, 2, and 3, respectively. Which one among the given options is the most appropriate combination of \( P \), \( Q \), and \( R \)?


  • (A) \( P = 6; Q = 5; R = 3 \)
  • (B) \( P = 5; Q = 6; R = 3 \)
  • (C) \( P = 3; Q = 6; R = 6 \)
  • (D) \( P = 5; Q = 3; R = 6 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( P = 6; Q = 5; R = 3 \)
View Solution

Question 5:

A rectangle has a length \(L\) and a width \(W\), where \(L > W\). If the width, \(W\), is increased by 10%, which one of the following statements is correct for all values of \(L\) and \(W\)?

Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.

  • (A) Perimeter increases by 10%.
  • (B) Length of the diagonals increases by 10%.
  • (C) Area increases by 10%.
  • (D) The rectangle becomes a square.
Correct Answer: (C) Area increases by 10%.
View Solution

Question 6:

Column-I has statements made by Shanthala; and, Column-II has responses given by Kanishk.


  • (A) P – 2; Q – 3; R – 1; S – 4
  • (B) P – 3; Q – 4; R – 1; S – 2
  • (C) P – 4; Q – 1; R – 2; S – 3
  • (D) P – 1; Q – 2; R – 4; S – 3
Correct Answer: (B) P – 3; Q – 4; R – 1; S – 2
View Solution

Question 7:

Weight of a person can be expressed as a function of their age. The function usually varies from person to person. Suppose this function is identical for two brothers, and it monotonically increases till the age of 50 years and then it monotonically decreases. Let \( a_1 \) and \( a_2 \) (in years) denote the ages of the brothers and \( a_1 < a_2 \).

Which one of the following statements is correct about their age on the day when they attain the same weight?

  • (A) \( a_1 < a_2 < 50 \)
  • (B) \( a_1 < 50 < a_2 \)
  • (C) \( 50 < a_1 < a_2 \)
  • (D) Either \( a_1 = 50 \) or \( a_2 = 50 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( a_1 < 50 < a_2 \)
View Solution

Question 8:

A regular dodecagon (12-sided regular polygon) is inscribed in a circle of radius \( r \) cm as shown in the figure. The side of the dodecagon is \( d \) cm. All the triangles (numbered 1 to 12 in the figure) are used to form squares of side \( r \) cm, and each numbered triangle is used only once to form a square.

The number of squares that can be formed and the number of triangles required to form each square, respectively, are:


  • (A) 3; 4
  • (B) 4; 3
  • (C) 3; 3
  • (D) 3; 2
Correct Answer: (A) 3; 4
View Solution

Question 9:

If a real variable \(x\) satisfies \(3^{x^2} = 27 \times 9^x\), then the value of \(\frac{2^{x^2}}{(2^x)^2}\) is:

  • (A) \(2^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2^0\)
  • (C) \(2^3\)
  • (D) \(2^{15}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(2^3\)
View Solution

Question 10:

The number of patients per shift (X) consulting Dr. Gita in her past 100 shifts is shown in the figure. If the amount she earns is \(Rs. 1000(X - 0.2)\), what is the average amount (in Rs.) she has earned per shift in the past 100 shifts?


  • (A) 6,100
  • (B) 6,300
  • (C) 6,000
  • (D) 6,500
Correct Answer: (A) 6,100
View Solution

Question 11:

Assuming \( s > |a| \); the Laplace transform of \( f(x) = \cosh(ax) \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{s}{s^2 + a^2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{a}{s^2 + a^2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{s}{s^2 - a^2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{a}{s^2 - a^2} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{s}{s^2 - a^2} \)
View Solution

Question 12:

For the ordinary differential equation \( \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + 4y = 0 \), the general solution is:

  • (A) \( y = c_1 \cos 2x + c_2 \sin 2x \)
  • (B) \( y = c_1 \cosh 2x + c_2 \sinh 2x \)
  • (C) \( y = c_1 e^{2x} + c_2 e^{-2x} \)
  • (D) \( y = c_1 e^{2x} \cos 2x + c_2 e^{-2x} \sin 2x \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( y = c_1 \cos 2x + c_2 \sin 2x \)
View Solution

Question 13:

Consider the following two series:
\( \textbf{P: } \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} \qquad \textbf{Q: } \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} \)

Choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) P is convergent series; Q is divergent series
  • (B) P is divergent series; Q is convergent series
  • (C) Both P and Q are convergent series
  • (D) Both P and Q are divergent series
Correct Answer: (B) P is divergent series; Q is convergent series
View Solution

Question 14:

Choose the redox reaction from the following:

  • (A) \( \mathrm{H_2CO_3 \rightleftharpoons H^+ + HCO_3^-} \)
  • (B) \( \mathrm{Hg^{2+} + 2OH^- \rightleftharpoons Hg(OH)_2} \)
  • (C) \( \mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \rightleftharpoons 6CO_2 + 6H_2O} \)
  • (D) \( \mathrm{CaCO_3(s) \rightleftharpoons Ca^{2+} + CO_3^{2-}} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \rightleftharpoons 6CO_2 + 6H_2O} \)
View Solution

Question 15:

Which one of the following is performed by autotrophic bacteria?

  • (A) Aerobic biodegradation of organic matter
  • (B) Anaerobic biodegradation of organic matter
  • (C) Aerobic nitrification
  • (D) Anaerobic de-nitrification
Correct Answer: (C) Aerobic nitrification
View Solution

Question 16:

For flood routing, consider the following statements:

P: Hydrologic routing method uses continuity equation and momentum equation

Q: Hydraulic routing method uses continuity equation and energy equation

Choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) P is TRUE; Q is TRUE
  • (B) P is TRUE; Q is FALSE
  • (C) P is FALSE; Q is TRUE
  • (D) P is FALSE; Q is FALSE
Correct Answer: (D) P is FALSE; Q is FALSE
View Solution

Question 17:

For a gradually varied flow, consider the following statements:

P: \( y_n > y_c > y \) in M3 surface profile

Q: \( y_n < y_c < y \) in S1 surface profile

where, \( y_n \) is normal depth, \( y_c \) is critical depth, and \( y \) is flow depth.

Choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) P is TRUE; Q is TRUE
  • (B) P is TRUE; Q is FALSE
  • (C) P is FALSE; Q is TRUE
  • (D) P is FALSE; Q is FALSE
Correct Answer: (A) P is TRUE; Q is TRUE
View Solution

Question 18:

Match the following and choose the correct option from the following:





\textit{Note: The symbol indicates a stirrer for mixing (not to scale).

  • (A) 1-x, 2-y, 3-z
  • (B) 1-z, 2-y, 3-x
  • (C) 1-y, 2-z, 3-x
  • (D) 1-x, 2-z, 3-y
Correct Answer: (B) 1-z, 2-y, 3-x
View Solution

Question 19:

Multiple effect evaporator is commonly used, in the zero liquid discharge (ZLD) scheme, for ________\

  • (A) oxidation of organic pollutants
  • (B) precipitation of heavy metals
  • (C) concentrating reverse osmosis (RO) reject salts
  • (D) performing selective ion exchange
Correct Answer: (C) concentrating reverse osmosis (RO) reject salts
View Solution

Question 20:

Consider the following statements:

P: According to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (Central Pollution Control Board, Govt. of India, notification 2009), annual time-weighted average PM\textsubscript{10 standard is more than PM\textsubscript{2.5 standard.

Q: According to the National Air Quality Index released by Govt. of India in 2015, sub-index value of PM\textsubscript{10 can be less than that of PM\textsubscript{2.5.

Choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) P is TRUE; Q is FALSE
  • (B) P is FALSE; Q is TRUE
  • (C) P is TRUE; Q is TRUE
  • (D) P is FALSE; Q is FALSE
Correct Answer: (C) P is TRUE; Q is TRUE
View Solution

Question 21:

Which option gives the components that are most likely to be present in the segregated combustible fraction (SCF) separated from raw mixed municipal solid waste (MSW)?

  • (A) plastics, paper, rubber, metals
  • (B) plastics, paper, leather, glass
  • (C) plastics, leather, textiles, rubber
  • (D) plastics, rubber, textiles, food waste
Correct Answer: (C) plastics, leather, textiles, rubber
View Solution

Question 22:

Correctly match the sustainable development goal (SDG) with its theme:


  • (A) i -q ii-r iii-p iv-s
  • (B) i-s ii-r iii-p iv-q
  • (C) i-s ii-r iii-q iv-p
  • (D) i-p ii-q iii-r iv-s
Correct Answer: (B) i-s ii-r iii-p iv-q
View Solution

Question 23:

Choose the correct option regarding the Basel Convention

  • (A) Almost all the nations of the world assembled for the first time in the history to discuss and find out the solution for a common environmental problem.
  • (B) It was for formulating the strategies and guidelines to reduce CO2 and CH4 emissions to control the global warming.
  • (C) It was for formulating the strategies and guidelines to control the release of acidic gases that can cause acid rains in another country.
  • (D) It was for formulating the strategies and guidelines for the trans-boundary movement of hazardous wastes.
Correct Answer: (D) It was for formulating the strategies and guidelines for the trans-boundary movement of hazardous wastes.
View Solution

Question 24:

Consider the following statements:

(i) Environmental pollutant concentration is generally modeled using lognormal distribution.

(ii) Environmental pollutant concentration is generally modeled using Poisson distribution.

(iii) The weekly rate of exceedance of environmental pollutant concentration with regards to a given standard is generally modeled using lognormal distribution.

(iv) The weekly rate of exceedance of environmental pollutant concentration with regards to a given standard is generally modeled using Poisson distribution.


Choose the correct option(s) from the following:

  • (A) (i) and (iv) are correct.
  • (B) (i) is correct and (iii) is incorrect.
  • (C) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) (ii) and (iv) are incorrect.
Correct Answer: (A) (i) and (iv) are correct , (B) (i) is correct and (iii) is incorrect.
View Solution

Question 25:

Choose the correct statement(s) from the following regarding the structure/reproduction of microorganisms:

  • (A) Prokaryotes do not have nucleus but Eukaryotes have nucleus.
  • (B) Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes have nucleus.
  • (C) No binary fission happens in Eukaryotes, however, Prokaryotes rely on binary fission for reproduction.
  • (D) Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes rely on binary fission for reproduction.
Correct Answer: (A) Prokaryotes do not have nucleus but Eukaryotes have nucleus. (C) No binary fission happens in Eukaryotes, however, Prokaryotes rely on binary fission for reproduction.
View Solution

Question 26:

Consider the following statements related to nitrification process: \[ (i) \, Electron acceptor type vary depending on whether nitrosomonas or nitrobacter is involved. \] \[ (ii) \, Predominant carbon source is organic matter. \] \[ (iii) \, Predominant carbon source is inorganic carbon. \] \[ (iv) \, Electron donor during conversion of ammonium ions to nitrite ions is ammonium ions. \]
Choose the correct option(s) from the following:

  • (A) (iii) and (iv) are correct
  • (B) (i) and (ii) are correct
  • (C) (i) is incorrect and (iii) is correct
  • (D) (ii) is correct and (iii) is incorrect
Correct Answer: (A) (iii) and (iv) are correct. (C) (i) is incorrect and (iii) is correct.
View Solution

Question 27:

Stubble burning results in release of particulate matter, volatile organic compounds, oxides of nitrogen and sulfur, to name a few. A researcher is planning to use a conventional Gaussian dispersion model to estimate the contribution of stubble burning in a nearby state to air pollution in New Delhi. Choose the option(s) which could explain the possible limitations in this approach.

  • (A) assumption of steady state conditions e.g. constant wind speed, wind direction, and emission, etc. in conventional Gaussian dispersion models.
  • (B) non-accounting of wet and dry deposition in conventional Gaussian dispersion models.
  • (C) non-handling of chemical transformation of pollutants in conventional Gaussian dispersion models.
  • (D) requirement of more computational resources by conventional Gaussian dispersion models compared to chemical transport models.
Correct Answer: (A), (B), and (C)
View Solution

Question 28:

Choose the correct option(s) from the following in the plastic waste management:

  • (A) Plastic wastes may be burnt to generate fuel oil and fuel gas.
  • (B) Plastic wastes along with bitumen may be used for road/pavement construction.
  • (C) Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) and high density polyethylene (HDPE) are the most common plastics for recycling.
  • (D) Plastics made of branched monomers can be easily recycled.
Correct Answer: (B) and (C)
View Solution

Question 29:

Which of the following is the primary objective of the activated sludge process in wastewater treatment?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (A) To remove suspended solids from wastewater.
View Solution

Question 30:

Choose the correct option(s) from the following regarding the symbiotic relationships:

  • (A) Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi and bacteria. They can survive in extreme conditions of air pollution.
  • (B) Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi and bacteria. The fungi can absorb water and minerals from atmosphere, and bacteria can generate foods.
  • (C) Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi and algae. They can survive in extreme conditions, but are very sensitive to air pollution.
  • (D) Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi and algae. The fungi can absorb water and minerals from atmosphere, and algae can generate food through photosynthesis.
Correct Answer: (C) and (D)
View Solution

Question 31:

Methane hydrates have a special crystal structure of water, where methane gas molecules are trapped. Choose the correct option(s) from the following:

  • (A) Methane hydrates exist in abundance near the ocean bed, where the pressure is high enough for their existence.
  • (B) Methane hydrates exist in abundance in the polar regions, where the temperature is low enough for their existence.
  • (C) Methane hydrates can be a huge source of energy, but can accelerate global warming considerably if the entrapped methane is released to the atmosphere.
  • (D) Methane hydrates can be a huge source of energy, but difficult to exploit commercially.
Correct Answer: (A), (C), and (D)
View Solution

Question 32:

Choose the correct option(s) from the following regarding the urban environment:

  • (A) Urban heat island can exacerbate urban flooding by intensifying rainfall intensity.
  • (B) Urban canyons increase ventilation by trapping heat and thus enhancing urban heat island effect.
  • (C) Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) is always used to estimate the economic impact of mitigation strategies for urban heat island effect.
  • (D) In general, land surfaces in urban areas emit more long wave radiation compared to those in rural areas, and thus contribute to higher night time temperature.
Correct Answer: (A) Urban heat island can exacerbate urban flooding by intensifying rainfall intensity. (D) In general, land surfaces in urban areas emit more long wave radiation compared to those in rural areas, and thus contribute to higher night time temperature.
View Solution

Question 33:

Choose the correct option(s) from the following regarding cumulative toxicity:

  • (A) Bioaccumulation is the process by which a living organism keeps on accumulating pollutants in its body due to continuous exposure, whereas, bio-magnification is the process by which higher order organisms accumulate more pollutants than the lower order organisms in a food chain.
  • (B) Biomagnification is the process by which a living organism keeps on accumulating pollutants in its body due to continuous exposure, whereas, bioaccumulation is the process by which higher order organisms accumulate more pollutants than the lower order organisms in a food chain.
  • (C) Bioaccumulation and biomagnification are possible with heavy metals, but not with pesticides and pharmaceutical compounds.
  • (D) Bioaccumulation and biomagnification are possible with heavy metals, pesticides and pharmaceutical compounds.
Correct Answer: (A) Bioaccumulation is the process by which a living organism keeps on accumulating pollutants in its body due to continuous exposure, whereas, bio-magnification is the process by which higher order organisms accumulate more pollutants than the lower order organisms in a food chain. (D) Bioaccumulation and biomagnification are possible with heavy metals, pesticides and pharmaceutical compounds.
View Solution

Question 34:

Evaluate the following limit: \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\ln(1+x)}{2 \sin(x)} \quad (rounded off to two decimal places). \]

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 35:

An unconfined aquifer of areal extent 20 km × 20 km has hydraulic conductivity of 4 m/day, porosity of 0.32, and storage coefficient (specific yield) of 0.18. If the initial saturated thickness of the aquifer is 30 m, and 4×10^8 m\(^3\) of water is extracted from the aquifer, then the decline in the saturated thickness is ____________ m.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 36:

A researcher added a certain amount of HgCl2 to water at pH 10. He calculated the expected concentration of mercury in the water. He asked his student to measure the concentration. His student used an instrument that can measure only the free metal, Hg2+. The student observed that the concentration measured by him was significantly less than the concentration calculated by the researcher. How can he explain the paradox to the researcher?

  • (A) Only Explanation 1 is correct.
  • (B) Explanations 1 and 2 are correct.
  • (C) Explanations 1 and 3 are correct.
  • (D) Explanations 2 and 3 are correct.
Correct Answer: (D) Explanations 2 and 3 are correct.
View Solution

Question 37:

Correctly label the speciation diagram below:


  • (A) I = PO\(_4^{3-}\), II = HPO\(_4^{2-}\), III = H\(_2\)PO\(_4^{-}\), IV = H\(_3\)PO\(_4\)
  • (B) I = H\(_3\)PO\(_4\), II = H\(_2\)PO\(_4^{-}\), III = HPO\(_4^{2-}\), IV = PO\(_4^{3-}\)
  • (C) I = H\(_3\)PO\(_4\), II = H\(_2\)PO\(_4^{-}\), III = HPO\(_4^{2-}\), IV = PO\(_4^{3-}\)
  • (D) I = PO\(_4^{3-}\), II = H\(_2\)PO\(_4^{-}\), III = H\(_3\)PO\(_4\), IV = HPO\(_4^{2-}\)
Correct Answer: (C) I = H\(_3\)PO\(_4\), II = H\(_2\)PO\(_4^{-}\), III = HPO\(_4^{2-}\), IV = PO\(_4^{3-}\)
View Solution

Question 38:

Consider the following statements on microbial metabolism:
(i) Utilization of carbon for cell synthesis is termed as anabolism.
(ii) During catabolism, adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is converted into adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
Choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
  • (B) (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
  • (C) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
  • (D) (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.
Correct Answer: (C) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
View Solution

Question 39:

Consider the following figure of an activated sludge process (ASP), depicting the flow (Q), substrate (S), and microorganism concentration (X) at various points in the system, where subscripts “0”, “r”, “w”, “e”, and “i” indicate influent, recycle line, wastage, effluent, and flow from aeration tank to settling tank, respectively. Note that influent to the ASP has microbes too. V is volume of aeration tank.

Choose the correct option for net rate of formation of microorganisms in the system at steady state, from the following

  • (A) \(\frac{(Q-Q_w)X_e + Q_wX_r - QX_0}{V}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{(Q-Q_w)X_e + Q_wX_r}{V}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{(Q-Q_w)X_e + Q_wX_r}{VX_e}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(Q+Q_r)X_i + Q_wX_r}{VX}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{(Q-Q_w)X_e + Q_wX_r - QX_0}{V}\)
View Solution

Question 40:

Consider the following statements:

(i) Sound pressure changes with distance from the source

(ii) Sound power is a property of the source

(iii) Sound intensity is sound power per unit volume

Choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct
  • (B) only (i) and (ii) are correct
  • (C) only (i) and (iii) are correct
  • (D) only (ii) and (iii) are correct
Correct Answer: (B) only (i) and (ii) are correct
View Solution

Question 41:

At a pressure of 1 atmosphere and temperature of 25\(^{\circ}\)C, 365 µg m\(^{-3}\) of a pollutant corresponds to a mixing ratio of 139 parts per billion (ppb). The atomic weights: C – 12, H – 1, O – 16, N – 14 and S – 32. Which one of the following options most closely represents the pollutant?

  • (A) SO\(_2\)
  • (B) NO\(_2\)
  • (C) O\(_3\)
  • (D) CO
Correct Answer: (A) SO\(_2\)
View Solution

Question 42:

Which option gives the best control strategies for Dioxins and Furans in the flue gas emitted from waste incineration facilities?

  • (A) Avoid burning polystyrene (PS) and polyethylene (PE); ensure the furnace temperature above 1000 °C; and use a bag filter for cleaning the flue gas.
  • (B) Avoid burning polyvinyl chloride (PVC); quickly cool down the flue gas through the temperature range 400 - 250 °C; and use an activated carbon treatment for the flue gas.
  • (C) Avoid burning food wastes; ensure the furnace temperature above 900 ± 50 °C; and use an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) for cleaning the flue gas.
  • (D) Avoid burning metal bearing waste; ensure the flue gas temperature above 1000 °C; and use a venturi scrubber for cleaning the flue gas.
Correct Answer: (B) Avoid burning polyvinyl chloride (PVC); quickly cool down the flue gas through the temperature range 400 - 250 °C; and use an activated carbon treatment for the flue gas.
View Solution

Question 43:

Choose the correct option(s) from the following regarding the solubility in water:

  • (A) Water is a polar molecule because of the asymmetric distribution of charge between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms of the water molecule.
  • (B) In a water molecule, the electrons shared between oxygen and hydrogen are attracted more towards the hydrogen atom.
  • (C) Non-polar compounds are highly soluble in water because of their strong interaction with water molecules.
  • (D) Aromaticity and charge of molecules influence their solubility in water.
Correct Answer: (A) and (D)
View Solution

Question 44:

If microbial growth occurs under substrate unlimited conditions, according to Monod’s kinetics, choose the correct option(s) from the following:

  • (A) Microbial growth follows zero order with respect to substrate concentration.
  • (B) Microbial growth follows first order with respect to substrate concentration.
  • (C) Specific growth rate is half of maximum specific growth rate.
  • (D) Specific growth rate is almost equal to maximum specific growth rate.
Correct Answer: (A), (D)
View Solution

Question 45:

Choose the correct option(s) for removing solids from water.

  • (A) chlorination
  • (B) coagulation-flocculation-sedimentation followed by slow sand filtration
  • (C) chlorination followed by aeration
  • (D) slow sand filtration
Correct Answer: (B), (D)
View Solution

Question 46:

According to the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016, choose the correct option(s) from the following

  • (A) Bio-medical waste generated should be taken to a common bio-medical waste management facility except for rural areas where common facility is not available.
  • (B) Bio-medical waste generated should not be taken out of the hospital premise as it may contain dangerous pathogenic organisms.
  • (C) The red bag containing the human anatomical wastes like amputated body parts, cotton and bandages contaminated with body fluids, etc. should be treated using autoclave or hydroclave to kill the pathogenic organisms.
  • (D) Increasing operational temperature of an autoclave from 121 \( ^\circ \mathrm{C} \) (pressure 15 psi) to 149 \( ^\circ \mathrm{C} \) (pressure 52 psi), the residence time requirement for treating bio-medical waste will be reduced by 15 minutes.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Question 47:

A residential family is considering two cities for relocation. The data related to pollutant exposure and associated health cost per year are given in the following figure.





The pollutant exposure is characterized in high, mild and low exposure categories with respective probability values. The difference in expected value of health cost of City1 with respect to that of City 2 is ________ lakhs/year. (rounded off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer: 3.40
View Solution

Question 48:

The following is a system of linear equations
\begin{align
x - 2y + z &= 34 \quad \text{(1)

2x + y + z &= 102 \quad \text{(2)

x + y - 3z &= 17 \quad \text{(3)
\end{align
The value of \( x + y + z \) is ________. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Correct Answer: 61
View Solution

Question 49:

The value of \( \int_0^\infty \frac{\sin(4x)}{\pi x} \, dx \) is _______\.

Correct Answer: 0.50
View Solution

Question 50:

A tank has inflow, outflow, and a stirring mechanism. Initially, the tank holds 500 L of a brine solution of concentration 200 g/L. At \( t = 0 \), an inflow of another brine solution of concentration 100 g/L starts entering the tank at the rate of 15 L/minute. At the same time, the outflow of thoroughly stirred mixture also takes place at the same rate so that the volume of brine in the tank remains constant. The brine concentration \( C \) (g/L) in the tank at any time \( t \) (minute) can be expressed by the following differential equation: \[ \frac{dC}{dt} + 0.03 C = 3 \]
The brine concentration in the tank at \( t = 1.5 \) hour is ________ g/L. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 51:

Aerobic biomass has a yield coefficient value of 0.4 for glucose (molecular weight = 180 g/mole) substrate. The bacteria is represented as \( C_5H_7O_2N \) (molecular weight = 113 g/mole). Assume that no endogenous metabolism occurs. The percentage of carbon going into CO2 from 1 mole/L glucose is ________ % (rounded off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 52:

If the storm produced a direct runoff of 12.5 mm, then the \(\phi\)-index of the storm for the catchment is ________ mm/hour. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Correct Answer: 15.00
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Question 53:

The following table and figure (not to scale) show characteristics of a catchment





The hyetograph resulting from a storm that occurred uniformly over the catchment, is as follows





Assuming a constant base flow of 40 m\(^3\)/s, the peak of the runoff hydrograph produced by storm for the catchment at the outlet \(O\) is ________ m\(^3\)/s. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Correct Answer: 250.00
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Question 54:

A homogeneous isotropic confined aquifer of uniform thickness 30 m has hydraulic conductivity of 5 m/day and porosity of 0.3. There are two observation wells X and Y along a radial line from a fully penetrating pumping well at 100 m and 200 m distance, respectively. The well is pumped at a uniform rate to produce steady drawdown of 5 m at X and 3 m at Y. If a non-reactive pollutant enters at the observation well Y, then the time taken by the pollutant (under advection) to reach the observation well X is ________ days. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Correct Answer:
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Question 55:

Diameter (\(d\)) and length (\(l\)) of each pipe are as presented in figure and all pipes are of same material having friction factor (\(f\)) of 0.02. Assume acceleration due to gravity (\(g\)) as 10.0 m/s\(^2\). If the head difference between \(P\) and \(Q\) is 10 m, then the head loss between \(Q\) and \(R\) is ________ m. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Correct Answer: 5.05
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Question 56:

A circular sewer pipe, having Manning’s coefficient (n) of 0.01, is laid at a bed slope of 1:100. If it is flowing 80% full for a discharge of 2 m\(^3\)/s, then its diameter is _____ m. (rounded off to three decimal places)

Correct Answer:
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Question 57:

You conducted a batch experiment in the lab for 10 minutes to degrade a toxic compound, which follows first-order kinetics. The compound degrades from \( 2 \times 10^{-3} \, M \) to \( 2 \times 10^{-4} \, M \). The information from the lab experiment will be used to design a plug flow reactor in field conditions.

Given field conditions:

• Flow rate of contaminated water to be treated: 1 m\(^3\)/hour

• Concentration of toxic compound in contaminated water: \( 5 \times 10^{-1} \, M \)

• Target concentration of toxic compound in treated water: \( 1 \times 10^{-4} \, M \)

• Temperature is the same in lab and field conditions.

The required volume of the plug flow reactor is ________ m\(^3\). (rounded off to two decimal places)

Correct Answer:
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Question 58:

A common effluent treatment plant with a capacity of 2 million litres per day (MLD) employs reverse osmosis (RO) for water reuse. The RO unit removes 95% of the total dissolved solids (TDS) and the water recovery rate is 70%. If the TDS concentration in the RO feed is 8000 parts per million (ppm), the TDS in the RO reject is ____ g/L. (rounded off to one decimal place)

Correct Answer:
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Question 59:

A boiler burns coal at a rate of 1 kg/s. If the coal has 3% sulfur content, assuming that there is no sulfur in ash, SO2 emitted is _____ kg/day. (rounded off to nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
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Question 60:

A particle dispersoid has 1510 spherical particles of uniform density. An air purifier is proposed to be used to remove these particles. The diameter-specific number of particles in the dispersoid, along with the number removal efficiency of the proposed purifier is shown in the following table:





The overall mass removal efficiency of the proposed purifier is _____% (rounded off to one decimal place).

Correct Answer:
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Question 61:

An incandescent light bulb operated for two hours per day uses 12.2 kWh of energy per month. Burning of one kg of coal generates 2 kWh of electrical energy and releases 7 g of PM10. The reduction in PM10 emitted per month, if this incandescent bulb is replaced with a light emitting diode (LED) bulb which consumes 1/6th of energy, is ____ g (rounded off to one decimal place).

Correct Answer:
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Question 62:

Length of the streets, in km, are shown on the network. The minimum distance travelled by the sweeping machine for completing the job of sweeping all the streets is ________ km. (rounded off to nearest integer)


Correct Answer: 16
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Question 63:

A solid waste of composition \( C_{60}H_{135}O_{50}N_5 \) is to be composted aerobically in a closed vessel mechanical composting facility. Given: all ammonia generated escapes the facility; air contains 23% of Oxygen by weight; 100% excess air requirement for the closed vessel composting facility. The atomic weights: C – 12, H – 1, O – 16, N – 14. The actual air required for composting is:

Correct Answer:
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Question 64:

An industry releases three greenhouse gases (GHGs), CO2 (5 kg/day), CH4 (0.5 kg/day), and N2O (0.1 kg/day). The industry flares the CH4 before it is released to the atmosphere. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) are as follows: CO2 = 1, CH4 = 21, N2O = 310. The annual GWP of GHGs released from the industry is ____ kg CO2 equivalent (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer:
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Question 65:

Water from a hand pump located near a landfill has 1 mg/L arsenic (oral carcinogenic potency factor = 1.75 (kg-day)/mg). A person who lives nearby drinks 2 L/day of water from this hand pump for 10 years. Assume a body weight of 70 kg and an average life duration of 70 years. The chances of this person getting an excess risk of cancer is ________ \(\times 10^{-3}\) (rounded off to three decimal places).

Correct Answer: 7.002
View Solution


GATE Questions

  • 1.

    The given figure is reflected about the horizontal dashed line and then rotated clockwise by 90° about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the figure.
    Which one of the following options correctly shows the resultant figure?
    Note: The figures shown are representative


     


    • 2.
      The ceiling function of a real number \( x \), denoted by \( ce(x) \), is defined as the smallest integer that is greater than or equal to \( x \). Similarly, the floor function, denoted by \( fl(x) \), is defined as the largest integer that is smaller than or equal to \( x \). Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for all possible values of \( x \)?

        • \( ce(x) \geq x \)
        • \( fl(x) \leq x \)
        • \( ce(x) \geq fl(x) \)
        • \( fl(x)<ce(x) \)

      • 3.
        Which one of the following options has the correct sequence of objects arranged in the increasing number of mirror lines (lines of symmetry)?

          • Circle; Square; Equilateral triangle; Isosceles triangle
          • Isosceles triangle; Equilateral triangle; Square; Circle
          • Equilateral triangle; Isosceles triangle; Square; Circle
          • Isosceles triangle; Square; Equilateral triangle; Circle

        • 4.

          A heat pump, operating in reversed Carnot cycle, maintains a steady air temperature of 300 K inside an auditorium. The heat pump receives heat from the ambient air. The ambient air temperature is 280 K. Heat loss from the auditorium is 15 kW. The power consumption of the heat pump is _________ kW (rounded off to 2 decimal places).


            • 5.

              Identify the option that has the most appropriate sequence such that a coherent paragraph is formed:
              Statement:
              P. At once, without thinking much, people rushed towards the city in hordes with the sole aim of grabbing as much gold as they could.
              Q. However, little did they realize about the impending hardships they would have to face on their way to the city: miles of mud, unfriendly forests, hungry beasts, and inimical local lords—all of which would reduce their chances of getting gold to almost zero.
              R. All of them thought that easily they could lay their hands on gold and become wealthy overnight.
              S. About a hundred years ago, the news that gold had been discovered in Kolar spread like wildfire and the whole State was in raptures.
               

                • P \(\rightarrow\) Q \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) S
                • Q \(\rightarrow\) S \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) P
                • S \(\rightarrow\) Q \(\rightarrow\) P \(\rightarrow\) R
                • S \(\rightarrow\) P \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) Q

              • 6.

                A project involves eight activities with the precedence relationship and duration as shown in the table below. The slack for the activity D is __________ hours (answer in integer). 


                 

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