GATE 2024 Psychology (XH-C5) Question Paper PDF (Available) - Download Solutions with Answer Key Pdf

Collegedunia Team's profile photo

Collegedunia Team

Content Curator | Updated 3+ months ago

GATE 2024 Psychology (XH-C5) Question Paper PDF is available here. IISc Banglore is conducted GATE 2024 Psychology (XH-C5) exam on February 4 in the Forenoon Session from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. Students have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2024 Psychology (XH-C5) Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Core Discipline.

GATE 2024 Psychology (XH-C5) Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

GATE 2024 Psychology (XH-C5) Question Paper With Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

GATE 2024 Psychology (XH-C5) Question with Solution

Question 1:

If “—” denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [simmer — seethe — smolder] is analogous to [break — raze — ]. Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

(1) obfuscate
(2) obliterate
(3) fracture
(4) fissure

Correct Answer: (2) obliterate
View Solution

Step 1: Interpreting the analogy.
The sequence "simmer — seethe — smolder" suggests a gradual increase in intensity related to heat or emotion.

Similarly, in "break — raze —," we need a word that indicates a stronger, more destructive action than "raze."

Step 2: Reviewing the options.
- Obfuscate: Refers to making something unclear or confusing, not related to destruction.
- Obliterate: Means to completely destroy, making it suitable for the analogy.
- Fracture: Refers to breaking into parts, which is less intense than "raze."
- Fissure: Indicates a crack or split, also less severe than "raze."

Step 3: Concluding the solution.
"Obliterate" is the most appropriate word to complete the analogy as it represents the greatest level of destruction.


Question 2:

In a locality, the houses are numbered in the following way: The house-numbers on one side of a road are consecutive odd integers starting from 301, while the house-numbers on the other side of the road are consecutive even numbers starting from 302. The total number of houses is the same on both sides of the road. If the difference of the sum of the house-numbers between the two sides of the road is 27, then the number of houses on each side of the road is:

(1) 27
(2) 52
(3) 54
(4) 26

Correct Answer: (1) 27
View Solution

Step 1: Problem setup.
House numbers on one side are consecutive odd integers starting from 301. On the other side, they are consecutive even integers starting from 302. Let "n" represent the number of houses on each side.

Step 2: Sum of odd-numbered houses.
Using the arithmetic progression formula, the sum is: n × (n + 300).

Step 3: Sum of even-numbered houses.
Similarly, the sum of even-numbered houses is: n × (n + 301).

Step 4: Calculating the difference in sums.
Given that the difference between the sums is 27:
301n - 300n = 27, which simplifies to n = 27.

Step 5: Final conclusion.
The number of houses on each side of the road is 27.


Question 3:

For positive integers p and q, with p/q ≠ 1,

(p/q)p/q = (p/q)(p/q - 1).

Then:

(1) qp = pq
(2) qp = p2q
(3) √q = √p
(4) q1/q = q × p1/p

Correct Answer: (1) qp = pq
View Solution

Step 1: Simplify the given equation.
Starting with:
(p/q)p/q = (p/q)(p/q - 1)
Rewriting as:
qq / pq = pp/q - 1.
Equating the powers of p and q:
qp = pq.

Step 2: Verification.
The relationship qp = pq satisfies the given equation.


Question 4:

Which one of the given options is a possible value of X in the following sequence?

3, 7, 15, X, 63, 127, 255

(1) 35
(2) 40
(3) 45
(4) 31

Correct Answer: (4) 31
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the given sequence.
The sequence shows a pattern where each number is one less than a power of 2.

Step 2: Express each term.
3 = 22 - 1, 7 = 23 - 1, 15 = 24 - 1, X = 25 - 1 = 31.
The subsequent terms follow the same pattern: 63 = 26 - 1, 127 = 27 - 1, 255 = 28 - 1.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The missing term X is 31.


Question 5:

On a given day, how many times will the second-hand and the minute-hand of a clock cross each other during the clock time 12:05:00 hours to 12:55:00 hours?

(1) 51
(2) 49
(3) 50
(4) 55

Correct Answer: (3) 50
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the motion of the second and minute hands.
The second-hand completes one full revolution (360 degrees) in 60 seconds, while the minute-hand completes one revolution in 3600 seconds (1 hour).

Step 2: Calculate the crossings in one minute.
In one minute, the second-hand crosses the minute-hand exactly once.

Step 3: Calculate the crossings between 12:05:00 and 12:55:00.
The time interval between 12:05:00 and 12:55:00 is 50 minutes. Hence, the second-hand and minute-hand will cross each other exactly 50 times during this period.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The total number of crossings is 50.


Question 6:

In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)—(iv). Select the best match for all the blanks.

From the ancient Athenian arena to the modern Olympic stadiums, athletics (i) the potential for a spectacle. The crowd (ii) with bated breath as the Olympian artist twists his body, stretching the javelin behind him. Twelve strides in, he begins to cross-step. Six cross-steps (iii) in an abrupt stop on his left foot. As his body (iv) like a door turning on a hinge, the javelin is launched skyward at a precise angle.

(1) hold, waits, culminates, pivot
(2) holds, wait, culminates, pivot
(3) hold, wait, culminate, pivots
(4) holds, waits, culminate, pivots

Correct Answer: (4) holds, waits, culminate, pivots
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the grammar.
Each blank requires a verb that agrees with the subject and fits the tense of the sentence.

- (i) holds: Matches the singular subject "athletics."
- (ii) waits: Agrees with the singular subject "crowd."
- (iii) culminate: Fits the progression of actions leading to a conclusion.
- (iv) pivots: Aligns with the description of the athlete's motion.

Step 2: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (4).


Question 7:

Three distinct sets of indistinguishable twins are to be seated at a circular table that has 8 identical chairs. Unique seating arrangements are defined by the relative positions of the people. How many unique seating arrangements are possible such that each person is sitting next to their twin?

(1) 12
(2) 14
(3) 10
(4) 28

Correct Answer: (1) 12
View Solution

Step 1: Problem Setup.
We are tasked with finding the number of unique circular arrangements of 5 units, out of which 2 are alike (E and E).

Step 2: Formula for circular arrangements.
The total number of arrangements in a circle, accounting for repetition, is given by:
Number of arrangements = (n-1)! / k!.
Here, n = 5 and k = 2 (for E and E).

Step 3: Substituting the values.
Number of unique arrangements = (5-1)! / 2! = 4! / 2 = 12.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The total number of unique arrangements is 12.


Question 8:

The chart given below compares the Installed Capacity (MW) of four power generation technologies, T1, T2, T3, and T4, and their Electricity Generation (MWh) in a time of 1000 hours (h). The Capacity Factor of a power generation technology is:

Capacity Factor = Electricity Generation (MWh) / (Installed Capacity (MW) × 1000 h).

Which one of the given technologies has the highest Capacity Factor?

(1) T1
(2) T2
(3) T3
(4) T4

Correct Answer: (1) T1
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Capacity Factor.
The capacity factor is the ratio of actual electricity generation to the maximum possible electricity generation over a given time.

Step 2: Extract data from the chart.
T1: 14,000 MWh / 20 MW.
T2: 9,000 MWh / 25 MW.
T3: 8,000 MWh / 30 MW.
T4: 7,000 MWh / 35 MW.

Step 3: Calculate the Capacity Factor for each technology.
T1: 0.7 (70%)
T2: 0.36 (36%)
T3: 0.267 (26.7%)
T4: 0.2 (20%)

Step 4: Conclusion.
T1 has the highest capacity factor (70%).


Question 9:

In the 4 x 4 array shown below, each cell of the first three columns has either a cross (X) or a number, as per the given rule.

Rule: The number in a cell represents the count of crosses around its immediate neighboring cells (left, right, top, bottom, diagonals). As per this rule, the maximum number of crosses possible in the empty column is:

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

Correct Answer: (3) 2
View Solution

The rule specifies that the number in each cell indicates the count of crosses (X) in its immediate neighbors. To solve this:

  1. Identify the cells with numbers in the first three columns. The numbers guide the arrangement of crosses around each cell to satisfy the count. Each number limits the placement of X in its neighboring cells.
  2. Determine the empty column's capacity for crosses. Check the fourth column for constraints imposed by neighboring numbers in the third column. Ensure the placement of crosses in the fourth column does not violate the numbers in the third column.
  3. Calculate the maximum number of crosses in the fourth column. By observing the constraints and ensuring no violations, it is possible to place 2 crosses in the empty column.

Thus, the maximum number of crosses in the empty column is 2.


Question 10:

During a half-moon phase, the Earth-Moon-Sun form a right triangle. If the Moon-Earth-Sun angle at this half-moon phase is measured to be 89.85°, the ratio of the Earth-Sun and Earth-Moon distances is closest to:

(1) 328
(2) 382
(3) 238
(4) 283

Correct Answer: (2) 382
View Solution

Step 1: Use the trigonometric relationship.
During the half-moon phase, the Earth-Moon-Sun form a right triangle. Using the tangent of the Moon-Earth-Sun angle (89.85°):
tan(θ) = Earth-Moon distance / Earth-Sun distance.
Rewriting:
Earth-Sun distance = Earth-Moon distance / tan(θ).

Step 2: Substitute the values.
With θ = 89.85°, tan(θ) ≈ 0.002618. Hence:
Earth-Sun distance / Earth-Moon distance = 1 / 0.002618 ≈ 382.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The ratio of Earth-Sun to Earth-Moon distances is closest to 382.


Question 11:

Amma’s tone in the context of the given passage is that of:

For Amma, the difference between men and women was a kind of discrimination and inequality; she felt strongly about women’s rights but was not familiar with concepts like gender and patriarchy. She would have dismissed Betty Friedan because she was predominantly dealing with the problems of white middle-class women in the United States. Amma, and women of her generation, could de-link the oppression of women from the wider struggle for the liberation of human beings from class exploitation and imperialism. So Amma continued to play her role as mother and wife, but would often complain: "I am a doormat on which everyone wipes their emotional dirt off."

(A) Compromise
(B) Protest
(C) Contentment
(D) Resignation

Correct Answer: (B) Protest
View Solution

The passage illustrates Amma’s strong feelings about women’s rights and her vocal dissatisfaction with the inequality she faced. While she continues her role as a mother and wife, her complaints and dissatisfaction reflect a sense of protest. The key phrase, "I am a doormat on which everyone wipes their emotional dirt off," highlights her resistance to societal expectations, albeit in a subdued manner.

Key Analysis:
- Amma’s strong feelings and complaints about being taken for granted indicate she is protesting her situation.
- She does not accept her condition passively, ruling out resignation.
- Her dissatisfaction does not suggest a compromise or contentment but aligns with an underlying protest.


Question 12:

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct sequence for the following passage:

I am wearing for the first time some (i) _______ that I have never been able to wear for long at a time, as they are horribly tight. I usually put them on just before giving a lecture. The painful pressure they exert on my feet goads my oratorical capacities to their utmost. This sharp and overwhelming pain makes me sing like a nightingale or like one of those Neapolitan singers who also wear (ii) _______ that are too tight. The visceral physical longing, the overwhelming torture provoked by my (iii) _______, forces me to extract from words distilled and sublime truths, generalized by the supreme inquisition of the pain my (iv) _______ suffer.

(A) (i) patent-leather belt (ii) belts (iii) patent-leather belt (iv) waist
(B) (i) patent-leather shoes (ii) bands (iii) patent-leather bands (iv) wrist
(C) (i) patent-leather shoes (ii) shoes (iii) patent-leather shoes (iv) feet
(D) (i) patent-leather jacket (ii) jacket (iii) patent-leather jacket (iv) body

Correct Answer: (C) (i) patent-leather shoes (ii) shoes (iii) patent-leather shoes (iv) feet
View Solution

The passage describes the tightness and discomfort experienced by the speaker. The use of the words "feet," "shoes," and "pain" clearly indicates that the answer should relate to footwear. Thus, the correct choice is:
(i) patent-leather shoes
(ii) shoes
(iii) patent-leather shoes
(iv) feet


Question 13:

The appropriate synonym for the word ‘ignite’ in the following passage will be:

Spirituality must be integrated with education. Self-realization is the focus. Each one of us must become aware of our higher self. We are links of a great past to a grand future. We should ignite our dormant inner energy and let it guide our lives. The radiance of such minds embarked on constructive endeavor will bring peace, prosperity, and bliss to this nation.

(A) Encourage
(B) Simulate
(C) Dissipate
(D) Engross

Correct Answer: (A) Encourage
View Solution

In this context, "ignite" refers to awakening or inspiring inner energy and positivity. The word "encourage" best matches the meaning of "ignite" here, as it implies motivating or instilling energy for constructive efforts.


Question 14:

Which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly?

(A) One day, I’ll write a book, ‘I said’. Not just a thriller but a real book, about real people.
(B) ‘One day I’ll write a book’, I said, ‘not just a thriller, but a real book, about real people.’
(C) ‘One day I’ll write a book’, I said. ‘Not just a thriller but, a real book, about real people’.
(D) ‘One day I’ll write a book’, I said, not just a thriller, but a real book, about real people.

Correct Answer: (B) ‘One day I’ll write a book’, I said, ‘not just a thriller, but a real book, about real people.’
View Solution

Option (B) uses proper punctuation rules for dialogue and quoted speech:

  • The quoted statement is enclosed in single quotation marks.
  • Commas are correctly placed after "book" and "said."
  • The internal quotation maintains proper punctuation for clarity.

Question 15:

Fill in the blanks with the correct combination of tenses for the given sentence:

Darwin’s work (i) _______ a related effect that (ii) _______ influenced the development of environmental politics – a ‘decentering’ of the human being.

(A) (i) have (ii) had
(B) (i) had (ii) have
(C) (i) had (ii) has
(D) (i) has (ii) have

Correct Answer: (C) (i) had (ii) has
View Solution

The correct tense sequence is:

  • (i) "had" indicates a past effect attributed to Darwin's work.
  • (ii) "has" signifies the continuing influence of this work on the development of environmental politics in the present.

Question 16:

Which of the following options holds a similar relationship as the words, ‘Music: Notes’?

(A) Water: Cold drink
(B) Paper: Class Notes
(C) House: Bricks
(D) Graphite: Charcoal

Correct Answer: (C) House: Bricks
View Solution

The relationship between ‘Music’ and ‘Notes’ is that Notes are the basic components or elements that constitute Music.
Similarly, in the case of ‘House: Bricks,’ Bricks are the basic components used to construct a House.

Incorrect options:

  • (A) Water: Cold drink – Water is an ingredient, not a structural component.
  • (B) Paper: Class Notes – Class Notes are written on Paper but are not structural components of Paper.
  • (D) Graphite: Charcoal – Graphite is a material in Charcoal but does not constitute the entire structure.

Question 17:

In a particular code, if “RAMAN” is written as 52 and “MAP” is written as 33, then how will you code “CLICK”?

(A) 37
(B) 43
(C) 51
(D) 38

Correct Answer: (B) 43
View Solution

To determine the code for "CLICK," we need to identify the pattern used to code the given words:

  1. Assign numerical values to the letters based on their position in the alphabet:
    • A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, ..., Z = 26.
  2. Compute the sum of the letter values for "RAMAN" and "MAP":
    • RAMAN = 18 + 1 + 13 + 1 + 14 = 47. Add 5 → 52.
    • MAP = 13 + 1 + 16 = 30. Add 3 → 33.
  3. Apply the same pattern to "CLICK":
    • CLICK = 3 + 12 + 9 + 3 + 11 = 38. Add 5 → 43.

Question 18:

On the basis of the statements given below, which valid assumption(s) can be made?

Statements:

  • Life has suffering.
  • Desire is the cause of suffering.
  • The end of desire is the end of suffering.
  • Desire can be reduced by following the noble eightfold path.

Assumptions:

  1. Suffering is because of wants.
  2. Life is not always full of suffering.
  3. The eightfold path can reduce suffering.
  4. Suffering is caused by life.

(A) Only 1, 3, and 4
(B) Only 1, 2, and 3
(C) Only 1 and 4
(D) Only 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (B) Only 1, 2, and 3
View Solution

Analyzing each assumption:

  1. "Suffering is because of wants" aligns with "Desire is the cause of suffering."
  2. "Life is not always full of suffering" is valid because "Life has suffering" does not imply it is constant.
  3. "The eightfold path can reduce suffering" is directly supported by "Desire can be reduced by following the noble eightfold path."
  4. "Suffering is caused by life" is not valid; while life has suffering, the cause is identified as desire.

Thus, only assumptions 1, 2, and 3 are valid.


Question 19:

If 'KARAMCHAND' is coded as 'ICPCKEFCLF,' what should be the code of 'CREATION'?

(A) ATCCRKMP
(B) ETGCVKQP
(C) APCCRJMP
(D) ETCGKRPM

Correct Answer: (A) ATCCRKMP
View Solution

To determine the code for "CREATION," analyze the pattern used to encode "KARAMCHAND" into "ICPCKEFCLF."

  1. Divide "KARAMCHAND" into pairs of letters: KA, RA, MC, HA, ND. Transform each pair:
    • KA → IC: Shift each letter two steps backward.
    • RA → PC: Shift each letter two steps backward.
    • MC → KE: Shift each letter two steps backward.
    • HA → FC: Shift each letter two steps backward.
    • ND → LF: Shift each letter two steps backward.
  2. Apply the same pattern to "CREATION":
    • CR → AT: Shift each letter two steps backward.
    • EA → CC.
    • TI → RK.
    • ON → MP.
  3. Combine the transformed pairs: ATCCRKMP.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) ATCCRKMP.


Question 20:

Given an input line of numbers and words, a machine rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. Here is an illustration of an input and rearrangement sequence (Step 1 to Step 5):

Input: 61 wb ob 48 45 29 34 sb pb lb

Step 1: lb wb ob 48 45 29 34 sb pb 61

Step 2: lb ob wb 45 29 34 sb pb 61 48

Step 3: lb ob pb wb 29 34 sb 61 48 45

Step 4: lb ob pb sb wb 61 48 45 34 29

Step 5: lb ob pb sb wb 61 48 45 34 29

Step 5 is the last step of the above arrangement.

Question: Based on the rules followed in the above steps, answer the following question:

Input: cb kb eb 58 49 23 38 jb nb gb 69 82

Which of the following represents the position of 58 in the fourth step?

(A) Second from the left
(B) Fourth from the right
(C) Third from the right
(D) Seventh from the left

Correct Answer: (C) Third from the right
View Solution

The arrangement rule involves two processes:

  1. Words are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right in each step.
  2. Numbers are arranged in descending order from right to left in each step.

For the input: cb kb eb 58 49 23 38 jb nb gb 69 82,

Step-by-step arrangement proceeds as follows:

Step 1: eb cb kb 49 23 38 jb nb gb 69 82 58

Step 2: eb cb gb kb 23 38 jb nb 82 69 58 49

Step 3: eb cb gb jb kb 38 nb 82 69 58 49 23

Step 4: eb cb gb jb kb nb 82 69 58 49 38 23

In Step 4, 58 is the third from the right.


Question 21:

In a certain type of code, 'they play cricket together' is written as ‘mv kb lb iv'; 'they score maximum points' is written as 'gb lb mb kv'; ‘cricket score earned points' is written as 'mb gv kb kv' and ‘points are earned together' is written as 'kv mv ob gv.' What is the code for ‘earned maximum points’?

(A) gv gb kv
(B) mv kb mb
(C) lb iv ob
(D) ob mb iv

Correct Answer: (A) gv gb kv
View Solution

We need to deduce the code for "earned maximum points" by analyzing the given phrases and their codes:

  1. Analyze the given codes:
    • 'they play cricket together' = mv kb lb iv
    • 'they score maximum points' = gb lb mb kv
    • 'cricket score earned points' = mb gv kb kv
    • 'points are earned together' = kv mv ob gv
  2. Identify individual word codes:
    • From 'points': Appears in multiple phrases → Code for 'points' is kv.
    • From 'earned': Appears in multiple phrases → Code for 'earned' is gv.
    • From 'maximum': Appears in one phrase → Code for 'maximum' is gb.
  3. Combine the codes for 'earned', 'maximum', and 'points':
    • 'earned' = gv
    • 'maximum' = gb
    • 'points' = kv

Final code for 'earned maximum points': gv gb kv.


Question 22:

Which of the statement(s) about the passage weaken(s) the argument presented?

Scientists associate large brains with greater intelligence. However, in the evolutionary context it has also been identified that beyond a point, the size of the brain has not increased and yet after a particular period, in spite of no significant change in brain size humans have made significant progress. Certain researchers propose that this is because, while the overall brain size may not have changed, marked structural changes can be noticed in specific structures that run parallel to an increase in human intelligence.

(A) Recent studies refute the hypothesis that region-specific brain development is necessarily associated with rapid human progress
(B) Neanderthal people's extinction was probably because of their brain size
(C) Homo Sapiens and its destruction in the future may happen because of its rapid brain development
(D) Recent studies show that Neanderthal people, with relatively smaller brains, were capable of complex language and social activities

Correct Answer: (A) Recent studies refute the hypothesis that region-specific brain development is necessarily associated with rapid human progress
View Solution

The argument in the passage is that human intelligence increased due to structural changes in the brain, not overall size. Let’s evaluate the options:

  • Option (A): Weakens the argument by refuting the hypothesis of region-specific brain development being linked to human progress.
  • Option (B): Is irrelevant as it speculates on Neanderthals' extinction, which does not contradict the argument.
  • Option (C): Is speculative and unrelated to the argument's premise.
  • Option (D): Does not weaken the argument as it highlights Neanderthals' behavior rather than structural changes.

Thus, the correct answer is (A).


Question 23:

The narrator's use of 'I' in the given passage is/are:

I have never been any good at the more lurid sort of writing. Psychopathic killers, impotent war-heroes, self-tortured film stars, and seedy espionage agents must exist in the world, but strangely enough I do not come across them, and I prefer to write about the people and places I have known and the lives of those whose paths I have crossed. This crossing of paths makes for stories rather than novels, and although I have worked in both mediums, I am happier being a short-story writer than a novelist.

(A) Self-conscious
(B) Apologetic and regretful
(C) Confessional and communicating
(D) Egotistical and vain

Correct Answer: (A) Self-conscious, (C) Confessional and communicating
View Solution

The narrator reflects on their writing style and preferences, which indicates a self-conscious and confessional tone. They openly discuss their personal experiences and choices, demonstrating a desire to communicate their perspective effectively.

  • Self-conscious: Reflects the narrator's awareness of their writing style and limitations.
  • Confessional and communicating: Demonstrates a willingness to share their experiences and writing philosophy.
  • Incorrect options:
    • Apologetic and regretful: The narrator shows no regret or apology.
    • Egotistical and vain: There is no indication of arrogance in the passage.

Question 24:

Which of the following recommended action(s) seem to be appropriate with the stated problem?

Stated Problem: Many students at educational institutes do not attend classes in the post-pandemic scenario.

(A) Disciplinary action against all students should be taken as a warning.
(B) Counselling sessions should be organized to address the issues such students face.
(C) Surveys should be conducted to identify the reasons for their absence.
(D) Course content should immediately be changed.

Correct Answer: (B) Counselling sessions should be organized to address the issues such students face.
(C) Surveys should be conducted to identify the reasons for their absence.
View Solution

The stated problem focuses on student absenteeism in a post-pandemic scenario. The most logical steps would involve:

  1. Understanding the reasons for absenteeism through surveys (Option C).
  2. Addressing the issues faced by students via counselling sessions (Option B).

Analysis of incorrect options:

  • Option A: Disciplinary action is reactive and does not address the underlying issues.
  • Option D: Changing course content without understanding the reasons for absenteeism may not resolve the issue.

Thus, the most appropriate steps are conducting surveys (Option C) and organizing counselling sessions (Option B).


Question 25:

Read the passage and identify the statement(s) which follow(s) from it:

The purpose of this work is to inform educators about the brain science related to emotion and learning, and, more important, to offer strategies to apply these understandings to their own teaching. Although many of the approaches I describe will be familiar, integrating the lens of emotion and the brain may be a new concept. As an educator I had been trained in how to deliver content and organize my lessons, but I had not been taught how to design learning experiences that support emotions for learning.

(A) The author wishes, through his work, to inform us about brain science and learning.
(B) The author, through his work, wishes to offer strategies to apply our learnings to our teaching.
(C) The author feels that the newness of his approach lies in linking emotion-oriented approach to brain.
(D) The author wants to use emotions as a strategy for learning.

Correct Answer: (A, C, D)
View Solution

Analyzing the passage:

  1. Statement (A): Supported by the author's explicit goal to inform educators about "brain science related to emotion and learning."
  2. Statement (C): Valid because the passage highlights that "integrating the lens of emotion and the brain" may be new for educators, indicating the uniqueness of the approach.
  3. Statement (D): A logical inference, as the author emphasizes designing learning experiences that "support emotions for learning."

Note: Statement (B) does not follow directly as the focus is on integrating emotions rather than general strategies for teaching.


Question 26:

If A says that his mother is the daughter of B's mother, then how is B related to A?

(A) Uncle
(B) Aunt
(C) Father
(D) Brother
(E) A or B

Correct Answer: (E) A or B
View Solution

Analyzing the statement:

  • A's mother is the daughter of B's mother. This means that B's mother is A's grandmother.
  • Therefore, B is either A's maternal uncle or maternal aunt, depending on B's gender.

Since the gender of B is not specified in the question, both options Uncle (A) and Aunt (B) are plausible.


Question 27:

In a sampling design, where every Kth case is selected from a random starting point with the value K kept constant throughout, is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_.

(A) Convenient sampling
(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Stratified sampling
(D) Cluster sampling

Correct Answer: (B) Systematic sampling
View Solution

Systematic sampling is a probability sampling technique where a random starting point is chosen, and every kth element is selected from the population.

  1. Key Points:
    • The sampling interval (k) is kept constant throughout.
    • This method ensures that the sample is evenly distributed over the population.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Systematic sampling.


Question 28:

Which among the following correlation coefficient values represents the strongest relationship between two variables?

(A) -0.86
(B) +0.68
(C) +0.59
(D) -0.05

Correct Answer: (A) -0.86
View Solution

The strength of a correlation is determined by the absolute value of the correlation coefficient (r).
Key Points:

  1. The closer the absolute value of r is to 1, the stronger the correlation.
  2. In this case:
    • |-0.86| = 0.86
    • |+0.68| = 0.68
    • |+0.59| = 0.59
    • |-0.05| = 0.05
  3. Therefore, -0.86 represents the strongest relationship.
Thus, the correct answer is (A) -0.86.


Question 29:

A researcher performs an experiment to learn if room temperature affects the amount of aggression displayed by college students under crowded conditions in a simulated prison environment. In this experiment, the independent variable is:

(A) Aggression
(B) Crowding
(C) Room temperature
(D) Simulated prison

Correct Answer: (C) Room temperature
View Solution

The independent variable is the factor that the researcher manipulates to observe its effect on the dependent variable.
In this experiment:

  1. The researcher is manipulating room temperature to study its effect on aggression.
  2. The dependent variable is aggression, as it is being measured in response to the change in room temperature.
Thus, the correct answer is (C) Room temperature.


Question 30:

If the data distribution is skewed to the left, it means:

(A) More scores have low values than have high values
(B) Fewer scores have low values than have high values
(C) Fewer scores have high values than have low values
(D) More scores have high values than have low values

Correct Answer: (B) Fewer scores have low values than have high values
View Solution

In a left-skewed (negatively skewed) distribution:

  1. The tail of the distribution extends to the left.
  2. This indicates that most of the data points are concentrated at higher values, while fewer data points are at lower values.
Thus, the correct answer is (B) Fewer scores have low values than have high values.


Question 31:

The theory of psychoanalysis is based on \_\_\_\_\_\_ method.

(A) Survey
(B) Observation
(C) Case study
(D) Introspection

Correct Answer: (C) Case study
View Solution

Psychoanalysis, developed by Sigmund Freud, relies heavily on the case study method to understand individual psychological processes.
Key Points:

  • Case studies provide detailed insights into unconscious motives and past experiences.
  • Surveys and observations are not the primary methods in psychoanalysis.
Thus, the correct answer is (C) Case study.


Question 32:

If a court acquits the criminal for lack of evidence and sentences the victim for 2 years of rigorous imprisonment in a case, it is an example of:

(A) Type I error only
(B) Type II error only
(C) Type I and Type II error, respectively
(D) Type II and Type I error, respectively

Correct Answer: (D) Type II and Type I error, respectively
View Solution

In statistical terms:

  • A Type I error (false positive) occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected. In this case, the court wrongly convicts an innocent victim.
  • A Type II error (false negative) occurs when a false null hypothesis is not rejected. Here, the court fails to convict the actual criminal due to a lack of evidence.
Explanation:
  • The criminal's acquittal for lack of evidence is a Type II error.
  • Sentencing the victim wrongly is a Type I error.
Thus, the correct answer is (D) Type II and Type I error, respectively.


Question 33:

In the Darwinian sense, _______ refers to the ability of an organism to survive and produce a large number of fertile offspring.

(A) Selection
(B) Intersexual competition
(C) Evolution
(D) Fitness

Correct Answer: (D) Fitness
View Solution

In Darwinian terms:

  • Fitness refers to an organism's ability to survive in its environment and produce a large number of fertile offspring.
  • It is a key concept in natural selection, where organisms with higher fitness are more likely to pass on their genes to the next generation.
Incorrect options:
  • (A) Selection: Refers to the process driving evolution but does not directly define the ability to produce offspring.
  • (B) Intersexual competition: Refers to competition between individuals of the same species for mates.
  • (C) Evolution: Refers to the change in genetic composition over generations, but fitness is a component of this process.
Thus, the correct answer is (D) Fitness.


Question 34:

Which theory states that people try to regulate their emotions to minimize the distress caused by a situation?

(A) Problem-focused coping
(B) General Adaptation Syndrome
(C) Cognitive appraisal
(D) Emotion-focused coping

Correct Answer: (D) Emotion-focused coping
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Emotion-focused Coping:
Emotion-focused coping is a strategy where individuals attempt to manage their emotional responses to a stressful situation instead of addressing the problem itself.

Step 2: Application to the Question:
The question describes regulating emotions to minimize distress, which is directly aligned with the concept of emotion-focused coping.


Question 35:

Which of the following is a suitable description of “grounded theory”?

(A) Theoretical ideas and concepts should emerge from the data.
(B) Theory precedes the data.
(C) Integration of data with researchers’ interpretations.
(D) Conducting in-depth interviews and focus groups.

Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Grounded theory emphasizes that theoretical ideas and concepts should emerge directly from the data collected, rather than being imposed prior to data collection.

Incorrect options:

  • (B) Theory precedes the data: Grounded theory does not advocate this.
  • (C) Integration of data with researchers’ interpretations: This is a general research methodology aspect but does not define grounded theory.
  • (D) Conducting in-depth interviews and focus groups: While these are methods, they do not define grounded theory.
Thus, the correct answer is (A).


Question 36:

Percentage of scores between the mean and ± 1 standard deviation in a normal distribution is closest to:

(A) 68%
(B) 34%
(C) 95%
(D) 99%

Correct Answer: (A) 68%
View Solution

In a normal distribution:

  • Approximately 68% of the data lies within one standard deviation (±1) from the mean.
  • Approximately 95% of the data lies within two standard deviations (±2) from the mean.
  • Approximately 99% of the data lies within three standard deviations (±3) from the mean.
Thus, the correct answer is (A) 68%.


Question 37:

Which of the following is a binocular cue for depth perception?

(A) Motion parallax
(B) Texture gradient
(C) Linear perspective
(D) Convergence

Correct Answer: (D) Convergence
View Solution

Step 1: Definition of Binocular Cues:
Binocular cues are depth perception cues that rely on the use of both eyes.

Step 2: Role of Convergence:
Convergence occurs when the eyes turn inward to focus on nearby objects. The extent of inward turning provides information about the object's distance.

Step 3: Elimination of Other Options:
Other options, such as motion parallax and texture gradient, are monocular cues, while convergence is a binocular cue.


Question 38:

Match the following schedule of reinforcement with their description.

Schedule of Reinforcement Description
I. Fixed Ratio (a) Reinforcement provided after an unpredictable number of responses.
II. Fixed Interval (b) Varying amount of time passes between two reinforcements.
III. Variable Ratio (c) Number of responses required for reinforcement is always the same.
IV. Variable Interval (d) The interval of time that must pass before reinforcement is always the same.

(A) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(C) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(D) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a

Correct Answer: (A) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
View Solution

Step 1: Matching Schedules with Descriptions:
- Fixed Ratio: Matches with (c), as reinforcement is given after a fixed number of responses.
- Fixed Interval: Matches with (d), as reinforcement is provided after a fixed time interval.
- Variable Ratio: Matches with (a), as reinforcement is provided after an unpredictable number of responses.
- Variable Interval: Matches with (b), as reinforcement is provided after varying time intervals.

Step 2: Verifying the Matches:
The matching sequence is I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b.


Question 39:

While retrieving a long-term memory, bits and pieces of information are gathered from various sources and put back together in a process called:

(A) Consolidation
(B) Reintegration
(C) Constructive processing
(D) Automatic processing

Correct Answer: (C) Constructive processing
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Process:
Long-term memory retrieval often involves reconstructing information by gathering bits from different sources.

Step 2: Applying the Concept:
This process is referred to as constructive processing, where the memory is not just retrieved but actively reconstructed.


Question 40:

Which model of decision-making relies on simplifying strategies or rules of thumb based on past experiences, fairness, past events, and aversion to loss?

(A) Bounded rationality model
(B) Judgment heuristics and biases model
(C) Social model
(D) Economic rationality model

Correct Answer: (B) Judgment heuristics and biases model
View Solution

Step 1: Definition of Heuristics and Biases:
This model explains decision-making based on simplifying strategies or rules of thumb derived from past experiences and events.

Step 2: Eliminating Other Options:
- Bounded rationality considers cognitive limitations but not explicitly heuristics.
- Social and economic rationality models focus on social interactions and economic factors, respectively.

Step 3: Correct Model:
The correct model is Judgment heuristics and biases.


Question 41:

When Monkey-A sees Monkey-B touching four pictures in a certain order to gain a banana on a screen, Monkey-A learns to imitate that order even when shown a different configuration. This process is known as:

(A) Social imitation
(B) Classical imitation
(C) Cognitive arousal
(D) Cognitive imitation

Correct Answer: (D) Cognitive imitation
View Solution

Step 1: Defining Cognitive Imitation:
Cognitive imitation involves understanding and replicating a sequence of actions in different contexts.

Step 2: Application to the Scenario:
Monkey-A learns not just by mimicking but by understanding the sequence, indicating cognitive imitation.


Question 42:

Match the following:

Theory of Learning Psychologist
I. Classical Conditioning a. Ivan Pavlov
II. Instrumental Conditioning b. E. L. Thorndike
III. Insightful Learning c. W. Kohler
IV. Trial & Error Learning d. B. F. Skinner

(A) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(B) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
(C) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
(D) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

Correct Answer: (D) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
View Solution

Matching Theories and Psychologists:
- Classical Conditioning: Ivan Pavlov
- Instrumental Conditioning: E. L. Thorndike
- Insightful Learning: W. Kohler
- Trial & Error Learning: B. F. Skinner

The correct match is I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d.


Question 43:

Match the following.

Psychologist Theory of Intelligence
I. Charles Spearman d. Two-factor theory of intelligence
II. Arthur Jensen a. Level-I & Level-II abilities
III. L. L. Thurstone c. Structure of intelligence
IV. Robert Sternberg b. Triarchic theory of intelligence
V. J. P. Guilford e. Primary mental abilities

(A) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-e, V-d
(B) I-d, II-a, III-c, IV-b, V-e
(C) I-e, II-d, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(D) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-e, V-b

Correct Answer: (B) I-d, II-a, III-c, IV-b, V-e
View Solution

Charles Spearman is known for his two-factor theory of intelligence (d).
Arthur Jensen is associated with Level-I & Level-II abilities (a).
L. L. Thurstone's theory focuses on the structure of intelligence (c).
Robert Sternberg proposed the triarchic theory of intelligence (b).
J. P. Guilford's work emphasizes primary mental abilities (e).

Thus, the correct match is I-d, II-a, III-c, IV-b, V-e.


Question 44:

Which theory emphasizes an individual's subjective frame of reference?

(A) Behaviouristic
(B) Dispositional
(C) Phenomenological
(D) Psychoanalytic

Correct Answer: (C) Phenomenological
View Solution

Phenomenological theory focuses on individuals' subjective experiences and their interpretations of reality.
It emphasizes how people perceive the world uniquely from their own frame of reference.
Thus, the correct answer is Phenomenological theory (C).


Question 45:

Tentative answer(s) to a simple research problem that is/are expressed in the form of a clearly stated relationship between independent and dependent variables is/are called:

(A) Alternate Hypothesis
(B) Null Hypothesis
(C) Phi Hypothesis
(D) Nil Hypothesis

Correct Answer: (A, B) Alternate Hypothesis, Null Hypothesis
View Solution

A hypothesis is a tentative answer that describes the relationship between independent and dependent variables.
The Alternate Hypothesis states a specific relationship or effect.
The Null Hypothesis states no significant relationship exists between the variables.
Thus, both Alternate Hypothesis (A) and Null Hypothesis (B) are correct.


Question 46:

Independent variable(s) is/are also known as:

(A) Explanatory variable
(B) Explainable variable
(C) Exogenous variable
(D) Explicit variable

Correct Answer: (A, C) Explanatory variable, Exogenous variable
View Solution

Independent variables are manipulated to observe their effects on dependent variables.
They are referred to as Explanatory Variables because they explain changes in the dependent variable.
They are also called Exogenous Variables as they originate outside the model being studied.
Thus, the correct answers are (A) and (C).


Question 47:

Which of the following is/are not considered as unethical research practice(s)?

(A) Data fabrication
(B) Salami slicing
(C) Data collection
(D) Statistical analysis

Correct Answer: (C, D)
View Solution

Data fabrication and salami slicing are unethical research practices.
Data collection and statistical analysis, when conducted ethically, are not considered unethical.
Thus, the correct answer is (C, D).


Question 48:

In which of the following methods are variables not actively manipulated?

(A) Observational
(B) Experimental
(C) Correlational
(D) Descriptive

Correct Answer: (A, C, D)
View Solution

In observational, correlational, and descriptive research methods, variables are not actively manipulated.
In experimental research, variables are manipulated to observe their effects.
Thus, the correct answer is (A, C, D).


Question 49:

Which of the following is/are distribution-free test(s)?

(A) Pearson correlation
(B) Spearman's rho
(C) Kruskal-Wallis H test
(D) Analysis of variance

Correct Answer: (B, C)
View Solution

Distribution-free tests, also known as non-parametric tests, do not assume a specific data distribution.
- Pearson correlation assumes normality and is not distribution-free.
- Spearman's rho is a non-parametric measure of rank correlation, making it distribution-free.
- Kruskal-Wallis H test is a non-parametric equivalent of ANOVA, hence distribution-free.
- Analysis of variance (ANOVA) assumes normality and equal variances, so it's not distribution-free.
Thus, the correct answer is (B, C).


Question 56:

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding memory?

(A) Visual sensory memory lasts for a fraction of a second.
(B) Selective attention moves the information from short-term memory to long-term memory.
(C) In short-term memory, the information is held for a brief period of time while being used.
(D) Echoic memory capacity is limited to two seconds but smaller than the capacity of iconic memory.

Correct Answer: (A, C)
View Solution

- Visual sensory memory (A) holds visual information briefly, for a fraction of a second.
- Short-term memory (C) temporarily holds information while it's being processed or used.
- Selective attention (B) helps transfer information to long-term memory but is not directly responsible for the transfer.
- Echoic memory (D) lasts longer than iconic memory (visual sensory memory).
Thus, the correct answer is (A, C).


Question 57:

Which of the following is/are correct regarding the pre-operational stage (2-7 years) of the cognitive development theory of Piaget?

(A) Infants develop a sense of object permanence.
(B) Tendency of a child to focus only on one feature of an object, while ignoring other relevant features.
(C) The inability of the young child to mentally reverse an action.
(D) The child can conserve, reverse their thinking and classify objects in terms of various characteristics.

Correct Answer: (B, C)
View Solution

- Object permanence (A) develops in the sensorimotor stage, not the pre-operational stage.
- Centration (B), focusing on one feature, and irreversibility (C), inability to reverse actions, are key features of the pre-operational stage.
- Conservation and reversibility (D) develop in the concrete operational stage (7-11 years).
Thus, the correct answer is (B, C).


Question 58:

Which of the following statements is/are correct about “item-response theory”?

(A) It talks about how items should function based on the knowledge of an ability or trait.
(B) It compares responses to items to determine how well the items function.
(C) It is based on the assumption that many latent traits underlie test performance.
(D) It is a logistic function having one, two, or three parameters.

Correct Answer: (A, B, D)
View Solution

- IRT explains how test items function in relation to a latent trait or ability (A).
- It assesses item functionality by analyzing response patterns (B).
- IRT assumes a single latent trait rather than many underlying traits (C).
- Logistic functions with parameters model the relationship between ability and item response in IRT (D).
Thus, the correct answer is (A, B, D).


Question 59:

Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of groupthink?

(A) There is excessive optimism and risk-taking.
(B) Silence is interpreted as consent.
(C) Members reduce their efforts and performance levels while acting as a part of the group.
(D) People do not know what they are supposed to be doing.

Correct Answer: (A, B)
View Solution

Groupthink occurs when a group's desire for harmony results in irrational decision-making.
- Excessive optimism and risk-taking (A) and interpreting silence as consent (B) are characteristics of groupthink.
- Members reducing effort (C) describes social loafing, not groupthink.
- Lack of clarity (D) is unrelated to groupthink.
Thus, the correct answer is (A, B).


Question 60:

Which of the following dimensions is/are related to Fiedler's Contingency Model of Leadership Effectiveness?

(A) Leader-member relationship
(B) Leader's position power
(C) Leader's personal power
(D) Individual consideration

Correct Answer: (A, B)
View Solution

Fiedler's Contingency Model focuses on the fit between leadership style and situation favorableness.
- Leader-member relations (A): Quality of relationships between leader and members.
- Leader's position power (B): Authority associated with the leader's role.
- Personal power (C) and individual consideration (D) are unrelated to Fiedler's model.
Thus, the correct answer is (A, B).


Question 61:

Which of the following is/are not culture-fair test(s)?

(A) Raven's Progressive Matrices
(B) Dynamic Progressive Matrices
(C) Advanced Progressive Matrices
(D) Millennium Progressive Matrices

Correct Answer: (B, D)
View Solution

Culture-fair tests are designed to minimize cultural and language biases by focusing on non-verbal reasoning and problem-solving abilities.
1. Raven's Progressive Matrices (A): Generally considered culture-fair as it relies on abstract reasoning without language dependency.
2. Dynamic Progressive Matrices (B): While related to Raven's matrices, it may involve elements that are not entirely free of cultural influences.
3. Advanced Progressive Matrices (C): Typically classified as culture-fair due to its focus on non-verbal reasoning.
4. Millennium Progressive Matrices (D): This variation may introduce cultural dependencies, making it less culture-fair in certain contexts.
Thus, the correct answers are (B, D).


Question 62:

Which of the following is/are related to reliability?

(A) A test is administered to the same set of people on two different occasions.
(B) A test administered once is scored by two or more evaluators.
(C) A test administered once is scored by splitting it into two equal halves.
(D) A test measures what it intends to measure.

Correct Answer: (A, B, C)
View Solution

Reliability assesses the consistency and stability of a test's results:
- (A) Test-retest reliability: Consistency over time.
- (B) Inter-rater reliability: Consistency across evaluators.
- (C) Split-half reliability: Consistency within a test.
- (D) Validity measures accuracy, not reliability.
Thus, the correct answers are (A, B, C).


Question 63:

Which of the following is/are not defense mechanism(s)?

(A) Projection
(B) Frustration
(C) Introspection
(D) Rationalization

Correct Answer: (B, C)
View Solution

Defense mechanisms are unconscious strategies to manage difficult emotions:
- (A) Projection: A classic defense mechanism.
- (B) Frustration: An emotional state, not a defense mechanism.
- (C) Introspection: A reflective process, not a defense mechanism.
- (D) Rationalization: A classic defense mechanism.
Thus, the correct answers are (B, C).


Question 64:

On a standard test, the population is known to have a mean of 500 and a standard deviation of 100. Those receiving an experimental treatment have a mean of 540. The effect size is ______ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer: 0.40
View Solution

Effect size quantifies the difference between group means:
Effect size = (Mean of experimental group - Mean of population) / Standard deviation
Effect size = (540 - 500) / 100 = 0.40
Thus, the effect size is 0.40.


Question 65:

The standard deviation for the following scores: 8, 6, 6, 9, 6, 5, 6, 2 is ______ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer: 1.92
View Solution

Steps to calculate the standard deviation:
1. Calculate the mean:
Mean = (8 + 6 + 6 + 9 + 6 + 5 + 6 + 2) / 8 = 48 / 8 = 6
2. Calculate the squared differences from the mean:
(8 - 6)^2 = 4, (6 - 6)^2 = 0, ..., (2 - 6)^2 = 16
3. Sum of squared differences: 4 + 0 + ... + 16 = 30
4. Calculate the variance: Variance = 30 / 8 = 3.75
5. Calculate the standard deviation: √3.75 ≈ 1.92
Thus, the standard deviation is 1.92.




Also Check:

GATE Previous Year Question Papers

Other PG Exam Question Papers

GATE Questions

  • 1.

    Identify the option that has the most appropriate sequence such that a coherent paragraph is formed:
    Statement:
    P. At once, without thinking much, people rushed towards the city in hordes with the sole aim of grabbing as much gold as they could.
    Q. However, little did they realize about the impending hardships they would have to face on their way to the city: miles of mud, unfriendly forests, hungry beasts, and inimical local lords—all of which would reduce their chances of getting gold to almost zero.
    R. All of them thought that easily they could lay their hands on gold and become wealthy overnight.
    S. About a hundred years ago, the news that gold had been discovered in Kolar spread like wildfire and the whole State was in raptures.
     

      • P \(\rightarrow\) Q \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) S
      • Q \(\rightarrow\) S \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) P
      • S \(\rightarrow\) Q \(\rightarrow\) P \(\rightarrow\) R
      • S \(\rightarrow\) P \(\rightarrow\) R \(\rightarrow\) Q

    • 2.
      The ceiling function of a real number \( x \), denoted by \( ce(x) \), is defined as the smallest integer that is greater than or equal to \( x \). Similarly, the floor function, denoted by \( fl(x) \), is defined as the largest integer that is smaller than or equal to \( x \). Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for all possible values of \( x \)?

        • \( ce(x) \geq x \)
        • \( fl(x) \leq x \)
        • \( ce(x) \geq fl(x) \)
        • \( fl(x)<ce(x) \)

      • 3.

        Two plates of thickness 10 mm each are to be joined by a transverse fillet weld on one side and the resulting structure is loaded as shown in the figure below. If the ultimate tensile strength of the weld material is 150 MPa and the factor of safety to be used is 3, the minimum length of the weld required to ensure that the weld does NOT fail is ____________ mm (rounded off to 2 decimal places).


         


          • 4.

            Cylindrical workpieces of diameter 60 mm and length 400 mm are machined on a lathe at a cutting speed of 25 m/min and a feed of 0.2 mm/rev. The Taylor’s tool life parameters \(C\) and \(n\) for this setup are 75 and 0.25, respectively. The tool changing time is 3 minutes. With a labor and overhead cost of ₹5 per minute, the tool changing cost per piece is ₹_________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).


              • 5.
                Identify the grammatically correct sentence:

                  • It is I who am responsible for this fiasco.
                  • It is myself who is responsible for this fiasco.
                  • It is I who is responsible for this fiasco.
                  • It is I who are responsible for this fiasco.

                • 6.

                  Fish : Shoal :: Lion : _________
                  Select the correct option to complete the analogy.

                    • Pride
                    • School
                    • Forest
                    • Series

                  Fees Structure

                  Structure based on different categories

                  CategoriesState
                  General1800
                  Women900
                  sc900
                  pwd900

                  Note: GATE 2024 Application Fee needs to be paid online through net banking or debit card or credit card facilities. Additional charges will be applicable as per the rule of the bank from where the money is being transferred. This charge will be specified on the payment portal.

                  In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

                  Comments


                  No Comments To Show