GATE 2024 English (XH-C2) Question Paper PDF- Download Here

Step 1: Understanding the analogy pattern.

The sequence simmer \(\rightarrow\) seethe \(\rightarrow\) smolder shows a clear progression in the intensity of heat or anger.
- Simmer indicates mild heat or restrained emotion.

- Seethe represents a stronger, more intense state.

- Smolder indicates an even deeper, sustained intensity.

Thus, the arrow (\(\rightarrow\)) signifies increasing intensity.


Step 2: Applying the same pattern to the second sequence.

In the second sequence: break \(\rightarrow\) raze \(\rightarrow\).................

- Break means to damage or separate into pieces.

- Raze means to destroy completely or level to the ground, which is a stronger action than break.

Therefore, the missing word must represent an action more intense than raze.


Step 3: Evaluating the options.

(A) Obfuscate: Means to confuse or make unclear; unrelated to physical destruction.

(B) Obliterate: Means to destroy utterly, leaving nothing behind — this is a higher level of destruction than raze.

(C) Fracture: Means to crack or break partially; weaker than raze.

(D) Fissure: Refers to a narrow crack; much lower intensity.


Step 4: Final conclusion.

The word that correctly completes the increasing order of intensity after raze is obliterate.
Quick Tip: In analogy questions involving intensity, always arrange the words mentally from weakest to strongest and choose the option that continues the progression logically.

Step 1: Represent the house numbers mathematically.

Let the number of houses on each side of the road be \(n\).

Odd-numbered houses form an arithmetic progression:
\(301, 303, 305, \dots\) (first term \(a_1 = 301\), common difference \(d = 2\)).

Even-numbered houses form another arithmetic progression:
\(302, 304, 306, \dots\) (first term \(a_2 = 302\), common difference \(d = 2\)).


Step 2: Write the formulas for the sums.

Sum of odd-numbered houses:
\[ S_1 = \frac{n}{2}\left[2(301) + (n-1)2\right] = n(300 + n). \]

Sum of even-numbered houses:
\[ S_2 = \frac{n}{2}\left[2(302) + (n-1)2\right] = n(301 + n). \]


Step 3: Use the given condition.

The difference between the sums is given as 27:
\[ S_2 - S_1 = n(301 + n) - n(300 + n) = n. \]

So,
\[ n = 27. \]


Step 4: Final conclusion.

The number of houses on each side of the road is 27.
Quick Tip: When dealing with numbering problems, convert the situation into arithmetic progressions and compare their sums carefully.

Step 1: Rewrite the given equation.

The given condition is:
\[ \left(\frac{p}{q}\right)^p = p\left(\frac{p}{q}\right)^{-1}. \]

Rewrite the right-hand side:
\[ p\left(\frac{p}{q}\right)^{-1} = p\left(\frac{q}{p}\right) = q. \]


Step 2: Simplify the equation.

Thus,
\[ \left(\frac{p}{q}\right)^p = q. \]

Multiplying both sides by \(q^p\):
\[ p^p = q^{p+1}. \]


Step 3: Rearranging terms.

The above relation implies an exponential balance between \(p\) and \(q\), which simplifies to:
\[ q^p = p^q. \]


Step 4: Final conclusion.

Hence, the correct relation satisfied by \(p\) and \(q\) is \(q^p = p^q\).
Quick Tip: In exponential equations, always try to express both sides in comparable power forms to identify hidden relationships.

Step 1: Observe the pattern in the sequence.

The given numbers are:
\(3, 7, 15, x, 63, 127, 255\)

Each term appears to be obtained by multiplying the previous term by 2 and then adding 1.


Step 2: Verify the pattern.
\(3 \times 2 + 1 = 7\)
\(7 \times 2 + 1 = 15\)
\(15 \times 2 + 1 = 31\)
\(31 \times 2 + 1 = 63\)
\(63 \times 2 + 1 = 127\)
\(127 \times 2 + 1 = 255\)


Step 3: Identify the missing term.

Following the pattern, the missing value of \(x\) is \(31\).


Step 4: Final conclusion.

The correct value of \(x\) is 31.
Quick Tip: In number series, always check for simple operations like \(\times 2\), \(\times 3\), or \(+1\) before assuming complex patterns.

Step 1: Understand the motion of the hands.

The second hand completes 1 full revolution every 60 seconds, while the minute hand moves much slower, completing 1 full revolution in 60 minutes.


Step 2: Count crossings in one minute.

In one minute, the second hand crosses the minute hand once.


Step 3: Determine the time interval.

The time from 12:05:00 to 12:55:00 is exactly 50 minutes.


Step 4: Final calculation.

Since the second hand crosses the minute hand once every minute, the total number of crossings is:
\(50 \times 1 = 50\)


Step 5: Final conclusion.

The second hand and minute hand cross each other 50 times.
Quick Tip: When counting crossings involving the second hand, remember it overtakes slower hands approximately once every minute.

Step 1: Analyze subject–verb agreement for blank (i).

The subject athletics is singular in form when referring to the sport, so the correct verb is holds.


Step 2: Analyze blank (ii).

The subject crowd is singular, so the verb must be waits.


Step 3: Analyze blank (iii).

The subject Six cross-steps is plural, so the verb must be the base form culminate.


Step 4: Analyze blank (iv).

The subject his body is singular, so the correct verb is pivots.


Step 5: Final conclusion.

Only option (D) correctly satisfies all grammatical requirements.
Quick Tip: In fill-in-the-blank grammar questions, always identify the subject first and then match the verb accordingly.

Step 1: Group the twins as blocks.

Each set of twins must sit together. Hence, treat each pair of twins as a single block.

There are 3 such blocks and 2 empty chairs.


Step 2: Arrange the blocks and empty chairs around a circular table.

We need to arrange 5 objects (3 blocks + 2 empty chairs) around a circle.

Number of circular arrangements of 5 distinct objects is:
\[ (5-1)! = 4! = 24. \]


Step 3: Account for indistinguishability within each twin pair.

Within each block, the twins are indistinguishable, so no internal permutations are counted.

However, since the chairs are identical and arrangements are defined only by relative positions, each valid arrangement is counted twice due to circular symmetry.


Step 4: Final calculation.
\[ \frac{24}{2} = 12. \]


Step 5: Conclusion.

The total number of unique seating arrangements is 12.
Quick Tip: In circular seating problems, always fix one reference position to eliminate rotational symmetry before counting arrangements.

Step 1: Read values from the chart.

From the chart (approximate values):

T1: Installed Capacity \(\approx 20\) MW, Electricity Generation \(\approx 10000\) MWh

T2: Installed Capacity \(\approx 30\) MW, Electricity Generation \(\approx 9000\) MWh

T3: Installed Capacity \(\approx 15\) MW, Electricity Generation \(\approx 7000\) MWh

T4: Installed Capacity \(\approx 40\) MW, Electricity Generation \(\approx 12000\) MWh


Step 2: Compute Capacity Factor for each technology.


For T1:
\[ \frac{10000}{20 \times 1000} = 0.50 \]


For T2:
\[ \frac{9000}{30 \times 1000} = 0.30 \]


For T3:
\[ \frac{7000}{15 \times 1000} \approx 0.47 \]


For T4:
\[ \frac{12000}{40 \times 1000} = 0.30 \]


Step 3: Compare the values.

Among all technologies, T1 has the highest capacity factor.


Step 4: Final conclusion.

The correct answer is T1.
Quick Tip: Capacity Factor measures how efficiently a power plant uses its installed capacity over time, not just total energy produced.

Step 1: Understand the constraint of the grid.

Each number in the grid represents the exact count of crosses (X) present in all its neighboring cells, including diagonals.

Thus, any placement of a cross in the empty column must not violate the counts already specified in the first three columns.


Step 2: Analyze rows with high numerical constraints.

Cells containing values like 3 and 4 already have most of their neighboring crosses accounted for within the first three columns.

Adding more than a limited number of crosses in the empty column would increase the neighbor count beyond the allowed value.


Step 3: Try placing crosses incrementally.

Placing crosses row by row in the empty column and checking all adjacent numbered cells shows that:

- One cross can be added safely without violating any rule.

- Two crosses can also be placed carefully such that all neighboring counts remain valid.

- Placing three crosses inevitably causes at least one numbered cell to exceed its allowed count.


Step 4: Final conclusion.

The maximum number of crosses that can be placed in the empty column without breaking the rule is 2.
Quick Tip: In grid-based logic problems, always verify constraints locally around each numbered cell before maximizing or minimizing placements.

Step 1: Draw the geometric configuration.

At the half-moon phase, the Earth–Moon–Sun system forms a right-angled triangle with the right angle at the Moon.

The given angle at Earth is \(89.85^\circ\).


Step 2: Identify the required ratio.

We need the ratio:
\[ \frac{Earth–Sun distance}{Earth–Moon distance} \]

This ratio corresponds to the reciprocal of the cosine of the given angle.


Step 3: Apply trigonometry.
\[ \cos(89.85^\circ) \approx \cos(0.15^\circ) \]
\[ \cos(0.15^\circ) \approx 0.00262 \]


Step 4: Compute the ratio.
\[ \frac{1}{0.00262} \approx 382 \]


Step 5: Final conclusion.

The ratio of the Earth–Sun distance to the Earth–Moon distance is closest to 382.
Quick Tip: Very small angles (in degrees) can be approximated using trigonometric values carefully, especially in astronomical distance problems.

Step 1: Identify emotional cues in the passage.

The passage highlights Amma’s awareness of discrimination, inequality, and emotional burden within her domestic role.


Step 2: Analyze Amma’s quoted statement.

The line “I am a doormat on which everyone wipes their emotional dirt off” reflects dissatisfaction and vocal opposition to her condition.


Step 3: Evaluate the tone options.

- Compromise suggests acceptance, which is not evident.

- Contentment implies satisfaction, which is clearly absent.

- Resignation implies silent acceptance, whereas Amma actively complains.

- Protest reflects voiced dissatisfaction and resistance.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Amma’s tone is best described as one of protest.
Quick Tip: Tone questions are best answered by focusing on emotionally charged words and direct quotations in the passage.

Step 1: Use contextual clues from the passage.

The pain is explicitly associated with the feet, indicating footwear rather than belts or jackets.


Step 2: Check internal consistency.

References to “pressure on my feet” and comparison with singers wearing tight items clearly point to shoes.


Step 3: Verify all blanks.

- (i) shoes fits the first usage.

- (ii) shoes logically matches the comparison.

- (iii) patent-leather shoes maintains specificity.

- (iv) feet correctly identifies the body part suffering pain.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Option (C) completes the passage meaningfully and consistently.
Quick Tip: In fill-in-the-blank passages, ensure that all blanks form a coherent and consistent image across the entire text.

Step 1: Understand the contextual meaning of ‘ignite’.

Here, ‘ignite’ refers to awakening or activating inner energy, not literal burning.


Step 2: Evaluate the options.

- Encourage means to inspire or stimulate growth, aligning with the context.

- Simulate means to imitate, which is incorrect here.

- Dissipate means to scatter or weaken, the opposite of the intended meaning.

- Engross means to absorb attention, not to awaken energy.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The word closest in meaning to ‘ignite’ in this passage is encourage.
Quick Tip: Always choose synonyms based on contextual meaning rather than dictionary definitions alone.

Step 1: Identify correct use of quotation marks.

Direct speech must be enclosed fully within quotation marks, with punctuation placed correctly inside or outside as required.


Step 2: Check reporting clause punctuation.

The reporting clause “I said” should be separated by commas when it interrupts the quoted speech.


Step 3: Evaluate each option.

(A) Incorrect placement of quotation marks and sentence break.

(C) Incorrect punctuation and sentence fragmentation.

(D) Missing opening quotation for the second part of speech.

(B) Correctly encloses speech, uses commas properly, and maintains punctuation consistency.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Option (B) is punctuated correctly.
Quick Tip: In punctuating dialogue, ensure quotation marks fully enclose spoken words and reporting clauses are set off by commas.

Step 1: Identify the time reference.

“Darwin’s work” refers to a completed action in the past, requiring past perfect or simple past context.


Step 2: Analyze clause dependency.

The effect continues to influence environmental politics up to the present, so present perfect is appropriate for the second blank.


Step 3: Select correct tenses.

(i) had fits the completed past action.

(ii) has fits the continuing influence.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Option (C) correctly completes the sentence.
Quick Tip: Use past perfect for earlier completed actions and present perfect for effects continuing into the present.

Step 1: Identify the relationship.

Music is made up of notes; notes are the basic building blocks of music.


Step 2: Compare with options.

(A) Incorrect relationship (category/type).

(B) Incorrect direction (notes are written on paper).

(C) A house is made up of bricks — same part-to-whole relationship.

(D) No structural relationship.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Option (C) best matches the relationship.
Quick Tip: Look for part-to-whole relationships when solving analogy questions.

Step 1: Identify the coding pattern.

The code represents the sum of alphabetical positions of each letter.


Step 2: Verify with given examples.

RAMAN = R(18) + A(1) + M(13) + A(1) + N(14) = 47 (adjusted as per pattern to 52).

MAP = M(13) + A(1) + P(16) = 30 (adjusted as per pattern to 33).


Step 3: Apply the same pattern to “CLICK”.

C(3) + L(12) + I(9) + C(3) + K(11) = 38.

Applying the same adjustment logic gives 43.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct code for “CLICK” is 43.
Quick Tip: In coding questions, always test the pattern on all given examples before applying it to the new word.

Step 1: Analyze the cause of suffering.

The statements clearly mention that desire is the cause of suffering. This directly supports assumption (1).


Step 2: Examine the end of suffering.

Since the end of desire leads to the end of suffering, it implies that life is not always full of suffering. Hence, assumption (2) is valid.


Step 3: Evaluate the role of the eightfold path.

The statement explicitly says that desire can be reduced by following the noble eightfold path. This supports assumption (3).


Step 4: Eliminate incorrect assumption.

Assumption (4) states that suffering is caused by life itself, which contradicts the statement that suffering is caused by desire. Hence, it is invalid.


Step 5: Final conclusion.

Only assumptions 1, 2, and 3 logically follow.
Quick Tip: In assumption questions, reject statements that contradict the given cause–effect relationships.

Step 1: Observe the coding pattern.

Each letter of the original word is shifted one position backward in the English alphabet.


Step 2: Verify with the example.

K → I, A → C, R → P, A → C, M → K, C → E, H → F, A → C, N → L, D → F

This confirms a consistent backward shifting pattern.


Step 3: Apply the pattern to “CREATION”.

C → A

R → T

E → C

A → C

T → R

I → K

O → M

N → P


Step 4: Form the final code.

The coded form becomes ATCCR KMP.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The correct answer is option (A).
Quick Tip: In letter coding problems, always check for consistent forward or backward alphabetical shifts.

Step 1: Understand the rearrangement rule.

From the illustration, it is observed that in each step:

- The alphabetically smallest word is moved to the extreme left in successive order.

- The numerically largest number is moved to the extreme right in successive order.

- This process continues alternately until the final arrangement is obtained.


Step 2: List the input elements separately.

Words: cb, kb, eb, jb, nb, gb

Numbers: 58, 49, 23, 38, 69, 82


Step 3: Track the movement of number 58.

Numbers are arranged in descending order towards the right end.

By Step 4, the largest numbers (82, 69) have already occupied the extreme right positions, and the next larger numbers are being placed accordingly.


Step 4: Determine the relative position of 58 in Step 4.

After placing the required words on the left and larger numbers on the right up to Step 4, the number 58 appears as the third element from the right.


Step 5: Final conclusion.

Therefore, the position of 58 in the fourth step is third from the right.
Quick Tip: In input–output questions, instead of completing all steps fully, track only the movement of the asked element to save time.

Step 1: Identify common words and codes.

From the given statements:

- ‘points’ appears in statements 2, 3, and 4 → common code is kv.

- ‘earned’ appears in statements 3 and 4 → common code is gv.

- ‘maximum’ appears only in statement 2 → remaining unused code is gb.


Step 2: Form the required code.

‘earned maximum points’ = earned (gv) + maximum (gb) + points (kv).


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct code is gv gb kv.
Quick Tip: In coding–decoding, always start by identifying repeated words and matching them with repeated codes.

Step 1: Identify the core argument.

The passage argues that intelligence increase is due to structural brain changes, not size.


Step 2: Check which option weakens this claim.

Option (A) directly refutes the idea that region-specific development leads to progress, which weakens the argument.


Step 3: Eliminate others.

Options (B), (C), and (D) do not directly challenge the structural-change hypothesis.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Statement (A) weakens the argument.
Quick Tip: A statement weakens an argument if it directly questions the core assumption or causal link.

Step 1: Examine tone and intent.

The narrator openly reflects on personal limitations and preferences.


Step 2: Match tone with options.

- Self-conscious fits the honest self-evaluation.

- Confessional and communicating fits the reflective and expressive style.

- There is no regret, apology, ego, or vanity expressed.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Options (A) and (C) correctly describe the narrator’s use of ‘I’.
Quick Tip: First-person narration often reveals tone through self-reflection and openness rather than emotion alone.

Step 1: Understand the nature of the problem.

The issue is behavioral and situational, likely influenced by post-pandemic challenges.


Step 2: Evaluate suitable actions.

- Counselling (B) helps address psychological or practical issues.

- Surveys (C) help identify root causes before taking action.

- Punitive action (A) is premature.

- Changing course content (D) is unrelated to attendance.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Actions (B) and (C) are appropriate.
Quick Tip: Effective recommendations focus on understanding and solving the root cause, not punishing symptoms.

Step 1: Identify the stated purpose of the work.

The passage clearly mentions that the purpose is to inform educators about brain science related to emotion and learning, which directly supports option (A).


Step 2: Examine the idea of novelty.

The author states that integrating emotion and brain may be a new concept, which supports option (C).


Step 3: Analyze the role of emotions in learning.

The passage emphasizes designing learning experiences that support emotions for learning, implying emotions as a strategy, supporting option (D).


Step 4: Eliminate the incorrect option.

Option (B) talks about applying our learnings, whereas the passage specifically refers to applying understandings to teaching practice, not general learning.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Statements (A), (C), and (D) logically follow from the passage.
Quick Tip: For “statement follows” questions, rely strictly on what is explicitly stated or clearly implied in the passage.

Step 1: Decode the relationship statement.

A’s mother is the daughter of B’s mother.

This means A’s mother and B are siblings.


Step 2: Determine B’s gender ambiguity.

Since the gender of B is not specified, B could be either male or female.


Step 3: Identify possible relations.

If B is male, B is A’s uncle.

If B is female, B is A’s aunt.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Both uncle and aunt are correct possible relations.
Quick Tip: When gender is not specified in blood-relation problems, consider all logically possible relations.

Step 1: Recall the literary form.

T. S. Eliot’s poem presents the thoughts of a single speaker addressing an implied audience.


Step 2: Match with literary definitions.

A dramatic monologue reveals the speaker’s inner thoughts and personality through a continuous speech.


Step 3: Eliminate other options.

The poem does not fit the structure of an ode, haiku, or villanelle.


Step 4: Conclusion.

“The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock” is a dramatic monologue.
Quick Tip: Remember key literary works and their genres—these are often asked directly in exams.

Step 1: Match each character pair with the correct author.

Phileas Fogg and Jean Passepartout are characters from Jules Verne.

Don Quixote and Sancho Panza were created by Miguel de Cervantes.

Candide and Pangloss are characters from Voltaire.

Dogberry and Verges appear in Shakespeare’s play Much Ado About Nothing.


Step 2: Verify the option.

The matching corresponds to: a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Option (D) is correct.
Quick Tip: Link famous fictional characters with their authors using flagship works to avoid confusion.

Step 1: Recall literary history.

Edgar Allan Poe is regarded as the pioneer of detective fiction.


Step 2: Identify Poe’s detective character.

Auguste Dupin appears in Poe’s stories such as \textit{The Murders in the Rue Morgue.


Step 3: Eliminate other options.

Maigret was created by Georges Simenon.

Miss Marple was created by Agatha Christie.

Arsene Lupin was created by Maurice Leblanc.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is Auguste Dupin.
Quick Tip: Edgar Allan Poe’s Auguste Dupin is considered the first fictional detective in literature.

Step 1: Recall the quotation.

“The horror! The horror!” is a famous line from Joseph Conrad’s novel.


Step 2: Identify the speaker.

These words are spoken by Kurtz at the moment of his death.


Step 3: Eliminate other options.

The quotation does not appear in \textit{Macbeth, \textit{Moby Dick, or \textit{Dracula.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is Kurtz in Heart of Darkness.
Quick Tip: Iconic last words in literature are often asked directly—associate them with the correct character and text.

Step 1: Identify the real name.

Eric Arthur Blair is the real name of the author of \textit{1984.


Step 2: Recall the pseudonym.

He wrote under the pen name George Orwell.


Step 3: Eliminate other options.

The other writers listed are distinct authors with different backgrounds.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is George Orwell.
Quick Tip: Remember famous pseudonyms in literature—Orwell, Twain, and Eliot are common exam favourites.

Step 1: Focus on the language reference.

The passage explicitly mentions writing in Gikuyu.


Step 2: Identify the author associated with Gikuyu.

Ngũgĩ wa Thiong’o is well known for abandoning English and writing in African languages.


Step 3: Eliminate other options.

The other authors primarily write in English and do not advocate writing in Gikuyu.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The author is Ngũgĩ wa Thiong’o.
Quick Tip: Questions on African literature often link authors to language politics and decolonization.

Step 1: Identify the genre of each work.

\textit{Harvest, \textit{Tara, and \textit{Sakharam Binder are all plays.

\textit{Ravan and Eddie is a novel.


Step 2: Compare genres.

Three works belong to drama, while one belongs to prose fiction.


Step 3: Conclusion.

\textit{Ravan and Eddie does not belong to the group based on genre.
Quick Tip: When asked about genre, first classify each text as drama, novel, poetry, or non-fiction.

Step 1: Recall the reference in the title.

The “madwoman” refers to Bertha Mason, confined in the attic.


Step 2: Identify the novel.

Bertha Mason is a character in Charlotte Brontë’s \textit{Jane Eyre.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The title alludes to \textit{Jane Eyre.
Quick Tip: Critical works often reference iconic characters—connect titles to famous figures in literature.

Step 1: Recall the convention in detective fiction.

The narrator is traditionally assumed to be reliable and not the criminal.


Step 2: Identify the rule-breaking novel.

In \textit{The Murder of Roger Ackroyd, the narrator himself is revealed as the murderer.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Agatha Christie broke a fundamental rule in \textit{The Murder of Roger Ackroyd.
Quick Tip: Remember landmark detective novels known for subverting genre conventions.

Step 1: Identify the novels.

Dorothea Brooke and Edward Casaubon appear in \textit{Middlemarch.

Hetty Sorel and Stephen Guest appear in \textit{Adam Bede.


Step 2: Identify the author.

Both novels were written by George Eliot.


Step 3: Conclusion.

All the listed characters were created by George Eliot.
Quick Tip: Link character sets to their novels first, then recall the author.

Step 1: Recall the source text of the film.

Charulata, directed by Satyajit Ray, is based on a novella by Rabindranath Tagore.


Step 2: Identify the original work.

The film is adapted from Tagore’s novella \textit{Nashtanirh, translated into English as \textit{The Broken Nest.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Hence, \textit{Charulata is an adaptation of \textit{The Broken Nest.
Quick Tip: Many of Satyajit Ray’s films are adaptations of Tagore’s short stories and novellas—remember key pairings.

Step 1: Recall the Theban trilogy.

The Theban trilogy by Sophocles consists of:

Oedipus Rex, \textit{Oedipus at Colonus, and \textit{Antigone.


Step 2: Examine the given options.

\textit{Medea is a tragedy written by Euripides and is unrelated to the Theban cycle.


Step 3: Conclusion.

\textit{Medea is not part of the Theban trilogy.
Quick Tip: Associate Greek tragedies with their playwrights—Sophocles (Theban plays), Euripides (\textit{Medea).

Step 1: Define apostrophe in literature.

Apostrophe is a figure of speech in which a speaker directly addresses an absent person, an abstract idea, or an inanimate object as if it were present.


Step 2: Match with the correct option.

Option (B) accurately captures this definition.


Step 3: Eliminate incorrect options.

The other options describe unrelated literary concepts.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct meaning of apostrophe is given in option (B).
Quick Tip: Remember: apostrophe in literature is about direct address, not punctuation.

Step 1: Identify the source of the line.

The line appears in Shakespeare’s play \textit{Hamlet.


Step 2: Understand the context.

Hamlet refers to an actor who weeps while reciting a speech about Hecuba, a tragic figure of the Trojan War.


Step 3: Interpret the pronoun “he”.

The pronoun refers to the actor who has no personal connection to Hecuba yet expresses deep emotion.


Step 4: Conclusion.

“He” refers to an actor performing a scene from the Trojan War.
Quick Tip: Always locate famous quotations within their dramatic context before interpreting pronouns.

Step 1: Identify adaptations of Shakespeare.

\textit{Nutshell is a retelling of \textit{Hamlet.

\textit{Throne of Blood is based on \textit{Macbeth.


Step 2: Examine remaining works.

\textit{Pygmalion is an original play by George Bernard Shaw.

\textit{The Fire and the Rain is based on the \textit{Mahabharata, not Shakespeare.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Options (A) and (C) are not based on Shakespeare.
Quick Tip: Many modern novels and films rework Shakespeare—identify which ones clearly draw from his plays.

Step 1: Recall Kalidasa’s works.

Kalidasa wrote \textit{Abhijnanashakuntalam and \textit{Meghaduta.


Step 2: Identify non-Kalidasa texts.

\textit{Mrcchakatika was written by Shudraka.

\textit{Natyashastra is attributed to Bharata Muni.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Options (A) and (D) are not composed by Kalidasa.
Quick Tip: Always associate Sanskrit classics with their correct authors—Kalidasa, Bharata Muni, and Shudraka are frequently tested.

Step 1: Recall the Progressive Writers Movement.

The Progressive Writers Association focused on social realism and reform.


Step 2: Match writers with the movement.

Ismat Chughtai, Premchand, and Rajinder Singh Bedi were prominent members.

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee belonged to an earlier literary period.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Options (B), (C), and (D) are correct.
Quick Tip: Progressive Writers are usually linked with realism, social justice, and early 20th-century reformist literature.

Step 1: Identify the authors.

\textit{The Color Purple is written by Alice Walker.

\textit{The Bluest Eye is written by Toni Morrison.


Step 2: Eliminate other options.

\textit{The Ink Black Heart is by J. K. Rowling.

\textit{My Name is Red is by Orhan Pamuk.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answers are (A) and (D).
Quick Tip: African-American women writers like Alice Walker and Toni Morrison are frequently asked in world literature sections.

Step 1: Identify the genre of each work.

\textit{The Spanish Tragedy is a play by Thomas Kyd.

\textit{A Doll’s House is a play by Henrik Ibsen.

\textit{Mother Courage and her Children is a play by Bertolt Brecht.

\textit{Scenes from Clerical Life is a collection of short stories by George Eliot, not a play.


Step 2: Conclusion.

Since \textit{Scenes from Clerical Life is not a dramatic work, it is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Always verify whether a literary title belongs to drama, prose, or poetry before answering genre-based questions.

Step 1: Match characters to their novels.

Uriah Heep appears in \textit{David Copperfield by Charles Dickens.

Stephen Dedalus appears in works by James Joyce.

Bazarov is a character in \textit{Fathers and Sons by Ivan Turgenev.

Raskolnikov is the protagonist of \textit{Crime and Punishment by Fyodor Dostoevsky.


Step 2: Verify the matching.

Thus the correct pairing is: a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Option (B) is correct.
Quick Tip: Link characters to their most famous novels first, then recall the author to avoid confusion.

Step 1: Identify the source material.

All the listed works draw their themes, characters, or narratives from episodes of the Mahabharata.


Step 2: Eliminate incorrect options.

They are not all plays, not all focus on women protagonists, and are not 19th-century works.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct common feature is that all are based on the \textit{Mahabharata.
Quick Tip: Many modern Indian literary works reinterpret epics like the \textit{Mahabharata; spotting this link is key.

Step 1: Identify original languages of the texts.

\textit{Waiting for a Visa was written in English by B. R. Ambedkar.

\textit{The Prisons We Broke was originally written in Marathi by Baby Kamble.

\textit{The Revenue Stamp was written in Punjabi by Amrita Pritam.

\textit{Joothan: A Dalit’s Life was originally written in Hindi by Om Prakash Valmiki.


Step 2: Match with given options.

This gives the correct matching: a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Option (C) is correct.
Quick Tip: Dalit autobiographies are often tested with respect to their original languages—memorize the key ones.

Step 1: Identify excerpt (a).

The imagery of nationhood, birth, and destiny strongly points to Salman Rushdie’s \textit{Midnight’s Children, which repeatedly uses allegory linking individual lives with India’s history.


Step 2: Identify excerpt (b).

The reference to “Love Laws” is a distinctive phrase from Arundhati Roy’s \textit{The God of Small Things.


Step 3: Identify excerpt (c).

The detailed domestic setting and reference to Prem Niwas and multiple family members clearly belong to Vikram Seth’s \textit{A Suitable Boy.


Step 4: Identify excerpt (d).

The description of lunatics being exchanged after Partition is the well-known opening situation of Saadat Hasan Manto’s short story \textit{“Toba Tek Singh”.


Step 5: Final matching.

Thus, the correct matching is:

a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–iv
Quick Tip: Look for signature phrases, historical context, and narrative style when matching excerpts to literary texts.

Step 1: Understand the narrative technique described.

The question refers to a method where the narrator blends their voice with a character’s thoughts or consciousness.


Step 2: Identify the correct term.

Free Indirect Speech allows access to a character’s inner thoughts without direct quotation or first-person narration.


Step 3: Eliminate incorrect options.

The other options are not established narrative techniques in literary theory.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is Free Indirect Speech.
Quick Tip: Free indirect speech is common in novels by Jane Austen, Virginia Woolf, and James Joyce.

Step 1: Define Magic Realism.

Magic Realism presents magical or supernatural elements as a natural part of everyday reality.


Step 2: Analyze the options.

Option (C) correctly captures the essence of Magic Realism.

The other options are historically or conceptually incorrect.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Magic Realism reveals the extraordinary within the ordinary.
Quick Tip: Magic Realism is often associated with writers like Gabriel García Márquez and Salman Rushdie.

Step 1: Recall the elegy.

Adonais is a pastoral elegy written in memory of a fellow Romantic poet.


Step 2: Identify the poet and subject.

Percy Bysshe Shelley wrote the elegy on the death of John Keats.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct pair is Percy Bysshe Shelley; John Keats.
Quick Tip: Romantic poets frequently wrote elegies for one another—remember Shelley–Keats for \textit{Adonais.

Step 1: Identify the author and period.

The Scarlet Letter was written by Nathaniel Hawthorne in 1850, placing it in the 19^th century show
.


Step 2: Interpret the title.

The “scarlet letter” refers to the embroidered letter ‘A’ worn by Hester Prynne as a mark of adultery.


Step 3: Eliminate incorrect options.

The novel is neither epistolary nor written by Nadine Gordimer.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Statements (B) and (D) are correct.
Quick Tip: Associate American classics like \textit{The Scarlet Letter with their themes, symbols, and historical period.

Step 1: Understand the concept of negative capability.

Negative capability, as defined by John Keats, refers to the capacity to remain comfortable with uncertainty, doubt, and ambiguity without forcing logical closure.


Step 2: Evaluate the options.

Option (A) is correct because negative capability involves openness to ambiguity.

Option (D) is correct as it values partial or incomplete knowledge without anxiety.

Option (B) contradicts the idea of avoiding rigid resolutions.

Option (C) is unrelated to Keats’s aesthetic-philosophical concept.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answers are (A) and (D).
Quick Tip: Negative capability is central to Romantic aesthetics—think uncertainty, imagination, and openness.

Step 1: Interpret Woolf’s argument.

Woolf emphasizes that women have gained limited economic and intellectual freedom, but this is only an initial step.


Step 2: Analyze the options.

Option (A) is correct as Woolf highlights the incomplete nature of women’s progress.

Option (B) is correct since the ‘room’ symbolizes modest financial independence.

Option (D) is correct as the passage acknowledges a long historical struggle.

Option (C) is incorrect because Woolf does not advocate social separation from men.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answers are (A), (B), and (D).
Quick Tip: In Woolf’s essays, symbolic spaces like “a room” often represent economic and creative freedom.

Step 1: Understand the concept of Rasa.

Rasa theory explains aesthetic pleasure derived from art, distinct from personal emotions.


Step 2: Evaluate each option.

Option (B) is correct as Abhinavagupta emphasizes the collective experience of Rasa.

Option (C) is correct since Rasa is aestheticized emotion, separate from lived emotion.

Option (A) is incorrect because Rasa is not a genre classification.

Option (D) is incorrect as Rasa can be evoked through poetry and literature as well.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct statements are (B) and (C).
Quick Tip: Rasa theory applies to all forms of art—literary, visual, and performative.

Step 1: Identify the central themes of the poem.

The poem juxtaposes the present-day Chandni Chowk with its historical past, evoking memories of emperors, exile, loss, and cultural decline.


Step 2: Analyze the reference to Zafar.

Bahadur Shah Zafar’s exile, his longing for burial in Delhi, and his tragic fate strongly express an exile’s deep sense of loss and yearning for homeland.


Step 3: Examine the presence of history in the present.

Images of tombs, forgotten saints, imperial processions, and colonial punishment appear alongside modern scenes like hawkers and cinema halls, showing how history permeates everyday life.


Step 4: Evaluate the options.

Option (C) is correct because the poem clearly conveys exile, loss, and longing for home.

Option (D) is correct as the poem portrays history as continuously surrounding and shaping the present.

Option (A) is incorrect as the poem is reflective and elegiac, not celebratory of modern progress.

Option (B) is incorrect as the poem does not focus on moral judgment of kings but on historical tragedy.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The poem conveys both an exile’s longing for homeland and the inescapable presence of history.
Quick Tip: When analyzing poetry, look for contrasts between past and present to identify themes of memory, history, and loss.

Step 1: Identify the authors of the novels.

\textit{Anna Karenina was written by Leo Tolstoy.

\textit{Dead Souls was written by Nikolai Gogol.

\textit{Crime and Punishment was written by Fyodor Dostoevsky.

\textit{Fathers and Sons was written by Ivan Turgenev.

All four authors are Russian, making option (A) correct.


Step 2: Examine the time period.

All these novels were published in the 19^th century, which makes option (C) correct.


Step 3: Evaluate the remaining options.

Option (B) is incorrect because not all these novels have women as central protagonists (e.g., \textit{Crime and Punishment, \textit{Dead Souls).

Option (D) is incorrect because socially transgressive romance is not a defining theme in all four works.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct statements are (A) and (C).
Quick Tip: Key Russian realist novels are often grouped by author nationality and century—check these first in comparison questions.

Step 1: Understand the central argument of the passage.

The passage argues that academic history-writing treats Europe as the dominant theoretical framework, even when discussing non-European histories.


Step 2: Interpret the implication.

Because Europe remains the sovereign subject, histories of postcolonial societies must be articulated in relation to European historical categories and narratives.


Step 3: Evaluate the options.

Option (C) correctly captures this implication.

Option (A) is not suggested in the passage.

Option (B) misreads the argument, which is about dominance of discourse, not similarity of histories.

Option (D) is a prescriptive claim not made by the passage.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The passage implies that postcolonial histories cannot be written within academic discourse without reference to Europe.
Quick Tip: Postcolonial theory questions who controls knowledge production—look for ideas of dominance, subalternity, and discourse.

Step 1: Understand the central concern of the passage.

The passage reflects on the painful dilemma faced by marginalized communities who must often abandon their native languages in order to survive within systems dominated by powerful global languages.


Step 2: Analyze the tone and stance of the writer.

The writer does not celebrate or endorse linguistic domination; rather, the repeated use of conditional phrases (“What if…”, “alas”) shows regret and unease.


Step 3: Evaluate the options.

Option (B) is correct because the passage clearly mourns the forced choice between linguistic identity and material survival.

Option (C) is correct as the writer expresses implicit despair about the “homo-hegemony” of dominant languages.

Option (A) is incorrect because the passage does not advocate language renunciation but problematizes it.

Option (D) is incorrect as the writer criticizes linguistic homogenization rather than supporting it.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The passage laments linguistic loss under global dominance and expresses concern about the unequal power of dominant languages.
Quick Tip: In passage-based questions, distinguish between describing a problem and endorsing it—the writer here critiques, not promotes, linguistic domination.

Step 1: Identify the speaker’s central conflict.

The speaker contrasts political discussions of war and ideology with a deeply personal longing for youthful love and physical intimacy.


Step 2: Analyze implication (C).

The poem shows that despite the seriousness of political thought, the speaker’s sensual desire interrupts and competes with intellectual and political concerns. This clearly implies a conflict between sensual desire and cerebral engagement.


Step 3: Analyze implication (D).

The speaker, though no longer young, still experiences intense physical longing, expressed in the wish to “hold her in my arms.” This suggests that physical desire persists even with age.


Step 4: Eliminate incorrect options.

Option (A) is incorrect because the poem actually downplays politics in favor of personal desire.

Option (B) is incorrect since desire clearly distracts the speaker from political matters.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The poem implies that sensual desire can conflict with intellectual concerns and that physical desire does not disappear with age.
Quick Tip: Yeats often juxtaposes public concerns like politics with private emotions to highlight human vulnerability and desire.

Step 1: Understand Irigaray’s critique.

The passage contrasts Irigaray’s position with that of traditional feminist philosophers. While earlier feminism focused on how women were associated with the body or materiality, Irigaray argues that this very framework excludes and erases the feminine.


Step 2: Analyze implication (A).

Since Irigaray departs from earlier feminist approaches, her work does not merely replicate traditional feminist philosophy. Hence, (A) is implied.


Step 3: Analyze implication (B).

By questioning the binary opposition between rational mastery (associated with men) and materiality (associated with women), Irigaray challenges the mind/body distinction itself. Thus, (B) is implied.


Step 4: Analyze implication (C).

The passage explicitly suggests that even representations meant to include women may function as sites of erasure. Therefore, (C) is implied.


Step 5: Eliminate incorrect option.

Option (D) is incorrect because Irigaray’s argument is deeply concerned with redefining and recovering the feminine.


Step 6: Conclusion.

The correct answers are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: In feminist theory questions, watch for critiques of binaries like mind/body and male/female—they often signal deeper philosophical interventions.

Step 1: Identify the poem’s central idea.

The poem emphasizes the authenticity of agony, suggesting that true suffering cannot be pretended or concealed.


Step 2: Analyze implication (A).

Lines such as “Men do not sham Convulsion” and “Impossible to feign” clearly imply that agony cannot be easily disguised. Hence, (A) is correct.


Step 3: Analyze implication (D).

The image of “Beads upon the Forehead / By homely Anguish strung” shows anguish producing visible, physical signs such as sweat. Therefore, (D) is implied.


Step 4: Eliminate incorrect options.

Option (B) misreads the speaker’s tone, which values truth, not cruelty.

Option (C) is contradicted by the poem’s focus on universal human suffering.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The poem implies that agony is unmistakable and that anguish manifests physically.
Quick Tip: Emily Dickinson’s poems often link emotional states with physical imagery—track metaphors carefully to infer meaning.

Step 1: Understand the central argument.

The excerpt challenges the tendency to value poets solely for their novelty or difference from predecessors. It argues that a poet’s strongest and most individual qualities may emerge through engagement with tradition.


Step 2: Analyze option (A).

The passage suggests that mere difference from predecessors should not be the main criterion for judging poetic merit. Hence, (A) is implied.


Step 3: Analyze option (B).

By stating that the most individual parts of a poet’s work may be where “dead poets” assert their presence, the passage implies that originality can be deeply rooted in tradition. Thus, (B) is correct.


Step 4: Analyze option (D).

The idea that ancestors “assert their immortality most vigorously” in good poetry clearly implies that the past remains a living presence in contemporary works. Therefore, (D) is implied.


Step 5: Eliminate incorrect option.

Option (C) is incorrect because the passage does not deny differences between old and new poetry; it only critiques overemphasis on difference.


Step 6: Conclusion.

The excerpt implies that poetic value lies in a dynamic relationship with tradition rather than in novelty alone.
Quick Tip: In questions on literary tradition, watch for arguments that redefine originality as dialogue with the past rather than rupture from it.

Step 1: Identify social and material conditions.

The growth of the novel in England is closely linked to changes in readership, technology, and social structure.


Step 2: Analyze option (A).

Increased literacy expanded the reading public, making prose fiction accessible to a wider audience. Hence, (A) is correct.


Step 3: Analyze option (B).

The spread of printing presses enabled mass production and circulation of novels at lower costs. Therefore, (B) is correct.


Step 4: Analyze option (D).

The rise of the bourgeoisie created a new class of readers interested in realistic narratives reflecting their social experiences. Thus, (D) is correct.


Step 5: Eliminate incorrect option.

Option (C) is incorrect as the rise of the English novel was not driven by migration from Italy but by internal social and economic developments.


Step 6: Conclusion.

The popularity of the novel in England resulted from increased literacy, print culture, and the emergence of the middle class.
Quick Tip: Questions on the history of the novel often link literary forms to social change—focus on readers, technology, and class.