GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences- Psychology Question Paper PDF with Answer Key and Solutions PDF- Download Here

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Sep 20, 2025

GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences Psychology Question Paper PDF is available here for download. IIT Kanpur conducted GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences exam on February 5, 2023 in the Forenoon Session from 09:30 AM to 12:30 PM. Students have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences Psychology Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Core Discipline.

GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences Psychology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Question 1:

Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he ______ of watching a film that weekend.

  • (A) thought
  • (B) is thinking
  • (C) am thinking
  • (D) was thinking
Correct Answer: (D) was thinking
View Solution



Goal: Convert the direct speech to reported (indirect) speech with correct tense, pronoun, and time expression.


Step 1: Identify the reporting verb and decide on backshift

Reporting clause: Rafi told Mary.

The reporting verb told is in the simple past. For ordinary statements (not universal truths), English backshifts the tense of what was said.

Present Continuous \(\Rightarrow\) Past Continuous.


Step 2: Map pronouns and deictic (time) words

Speaker in quotes = Rafi; therefore “I” \(\Rightarrow\) “he”.

“This weekend” is deictic (relative to the moment of speaking) \(\Rightarrow\) “that weekend” in reported speech.


Step 3: Apply tense conversion

Direct: am thinking (Present Continuous) \(\Rightarrow\) Past Continuous was thinking.


Step 4: Assemble the indirect sentence

Use the conjunction “that” (optional but standard in exams), remove quotation marks, keep the prepositional phrase “of watching a film”:
\[ \boxed{Rafi told Mary that he was thinking of watching a film that weekend.} \]

Step 5: Eliminate distractors

(A) thought = Simple Past (loses the “continuous/ongoing” meaning) \(\Rightarrow\) incorrect.

(B) is thinking keeps Present Continuous (no backshift) \(\Rightarrow\) incorrect with a past reporting verb.

(C) am thinking wrong pronoun and tense (“am” with “he” is ungrammatical) \(\Rightarrow\) incorrect.
Quick Tip: Reported speech checklist: (1) backshift tense if the reporting verb is past; (2) change pronouns from speaker’s point of view; (3) shift time/place words (this} \(\Rightarrow\) that}, now} \(\Rightarrow\) then}, here} \(\Rightarrow\) there}); (4) remove quotes and use “that”.


Question 2:

Permit : ______ :: Enforce : Relax (By word meaning)

  • (A) Allow
  • (B) Forbid
  • (C) License
  • (D) Reinforce
Correct Answer: (B) Forbid
View Solution



Understanding the analogy format

“A : B :: C : D” means “A is to B as C is to D” — the relationship between the first pair must match the relationship between the second.

Here, Enforce : Relax are antonyms (opposites): to enforce is to compel; to relax is to make less strict.


Step 1: Determine the needed relation for the first pair

We must choose a word so that Permit : ( ? ) forms an antonym pair, mirroring Enforce : Relax.


Step 2: Evaluate each option against “permit”

(A) Allow — near-synonym of permit (same meaning), not an antonym \(\Rightarrow\) reject.

(B) Forbid — direct antonym of permit (permit = allow; forbid = prohibit) \(\Rightarrow\) fits.

(C) License — also a synonym/closely related (to grant permission) \(\Rightarrow\) reject.

(D) Reinforce — means strengthen/support; not the opposite of permit, and pairs conceptually with enforce rather than relax \(\Rightarrow\) reject.


Step 3: State the completed analogy
\[ \boxed{Permit : Forbid :: Enforce : Relax} \] Quick Tip: In analogy questions, first identify the relation in the given pair (synonym, antonym, degree, cause–effect, part–whole, etc.). Then enforce the same} relation on the missing pair. Watch for distractors that are synonyms when you need antonyms (or vice versa).


Question 3:

Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{36}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{5}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\dfrac{1}{36}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify sample space per roll.

A fair die has 6 equally likely outcomes, so for any specified face \(k\in\{1,\dots,6\}\), \(P(roll=k)=\dfrac{1}{6}\).


Step 2: Compute each required single-roll probability.
\(P(first roll = 1)=\dfrac{1}{6}\), \(P(second roll = 4)=\dfrac{1}{6}\).


Step 3: Use independence of successive rolls.

The two rolls are independent, so the joint probability equals the product:
\[ P(first=1 \ AND\ second=4)=\frac{1}{6}\times\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{36}. \]
\[ \boxed{\dfrac{1}{36}} \] Quick Tip: For multiple independent events, multiply individual probabilities for “AND” questions. If it had been “OR”, use addition with inclusion–exclusion.


Question 4:

A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

  • (A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.
  • (B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.
  • (C) Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.
  • (D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Key facts from the passage.

65% of tobacco users were advised to stop.
30% (3 out of 10) attempted to stop using tobacco.


Step 2: Eliminate impossible options.

(C) and (D) both talk about successful quitting, but the passage only mentions attempts, not success. So (C) and (D) cannot be inferred.
(A) claims that a majority of those advised attempted to stop. But overall only 30% of users attempted, which is less than half of the total users, and certainly less than the 65% who were advised. So it is impossible that a majority of the advised group attempted to stop.


Step 3: Verify option (B).
If 65% were advised and only 30% attempted overall, then even if all attempts came from the advised group, at most \(30%\) of total users attempted compared to \(65%\) advised. Thus, less than half of the advised group attempted, meaning a majority did not.
\[ \Rightarrow \boxed{B\ is the only logically certain inference.} \] Quick Tip: Always distinguish between “advised,” “attempted,” and “succeeded.” If the data gives only attempts, we cannot conclude anything about success. Use proportions carefully to test majority vs. minority.


Question 5:

How many triangles are present in the given figure?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 24
Correct Answer: (D) 24
View Solution



Step 1: Decompose into panels.

Two nearly-vertical segments split the slanted outer quadrilateral into three slanted panels. Two oblique lines traverse all panels. Intersections of \{top, bottom\ with the \{two obliques\ and the \{two verticals\ create repeatable triangular cells.


Step 2: Count unit triangles (smallest).

Each panel cut by the two obliques contains four unit triangles (two up, two down). Therefore \[ N_{unit}=3\times 4=12. \]


Step 3: Count size–2 triangles within a panel.

In each panel, pairs of adjacent unit triangles along an oblique combine to form two larger triangles (one up, one down). Hence \[ N_{size-2, within}=3\times 2=6. \]


Step 4: Count size–2 triangles across panel boundaries.

Across each of the two vertical boundaries, a unit triangle from the left panel can pair with its touching unit from the right panel (both orientations). Thus \[ N_{size-2, across}=2\times 2=4. \]


Step 5: Count the largest spanning triangles.

Using full panel height with both obliques we obtain four additional distinct large triangles (two on the left half, two on the right half): \[ N_{largest}=4. \]


Step 6: Sum without double counting (disjoint constructions).
\[ N_{\triangle}=12+6+4+4=\boxed{24}. \] Quick Tip: Avoid double counting by (i) fixing a scale (unit, 2-unit, spanning) and (ii) counting panel-wise. Alternatively, enumerate by apex: list all triangles from each allowed vertex, then move to the next.


Question 6:

Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. By the due date, none} of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process. Which set(s) of statements can be inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (i) and (iii)
  • (C) only (i)
  • (D) only (iii)
Correct Answer: (D) only (iii)
View Solution



Given rule: Eligible voters \(\Rightarrow\) completed registration.

New fact: No Human Sciences (HS) student completed registration by the due date.


Test (iii).

If eligibility requires completion, and HS has zero completers, then no HS student can be eligible. Hence any eligible voter must come from a non-HS department. Statement (iii) is certainly true.


Test (i).

(i) claims: “All ineligible students are certainly HS.” But it is possible that some non-HS students also failed to complete registration and are therefore ineligible. The premise does not say all non-HS students completed. Thus (i) is not certain (could be false).


Test (ii).

(ii) claims: “No non-HS student failed to complete.” This would mean every non-HS student completed. The premises do not guarantee this; some non-HS students might also have missed the deadline. Hence (ii) is not certain.

\[ \boxed{Only (iii) follows with certainty \Rightarrow Option (D).} \] Quick Tip: In inference questions, separate necessary} from sufficient} conditions. Here, “completed registration \(\Rightarrow\) eligible” does not} imply the converse, and saying “none from HS completed” rules out HS from the eligible set but tells you nothing definite about completion in other departments.


Question 7:

Which one of the following options represents the given graph?


  • (A) \(f(x)=x^2\,2^{-|x|}\)
  • (B) \(f(x)=x\,2^{-|x|}\)
  • (C) \(f(x)=|x|\,2^{-x}\)
  • (D) \(f(x)=x\,2^{-x}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(f(x)=x\,2^{-|x|}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Symmetry check.
The graph is odd, since it is symmetric with a sign change across the origin (\(f(-x)=-f(x)\)). This immediately eliminates (A) and (C), as both always yield non-negative values.


Step 2: Behavior for \(x>0\).
For option (B): \(f(x)=x\,2^{-x}\) for \(x>0\). As \(x\to\infty\), \(2^{-x}\to0\), so \(f(x)\to0^+\). There is a positive maximum near \(x=1/\ln2\approx1.44\), consistent with the positive hump in the graph.


Step 3: Behavior for \(x<0\).
For option (B): \(f(x)=x\,2^{x}\) for \(x<0\). As \(x\to-\infty\), \(2^{x}\to0\), hence \(f(x)\to0^-\). There is a negative minimum near \(x=-1/\ln2\approx-1.44\), consistent with the graph’s left-side dip.


Step 4: Eliminate (D).
Option (D), \(f(x)=x\,2^{-x}\), works fine for \(x>0\) but for \(x<0\), it diverges to \(-\infty\) instead of tending to \(0^-\), which does not match the graph.
\[ \boxed{Hence the correct function is (B) only.} \] Quick Tip: To identify the correct function from a graph: always check symmetry, asymptotic behavior at \(\pm \infty\), and positions of maxima/minima. These eliminate wrong options quickly.


Question 8:

Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

Passage:
We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its initial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

  • (A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.
  • (B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.
  • (C) Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often imagined as a machine.
  • (D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the key idea of the passage.

The author emphasizes that cancer is understood in modern times through metaphors — particularly, cancer is likened to a machine. Modern cell biology encourages us to use figurative language and imagine the cell as a "molecular machine".


Step 2: Check each option.

- (A) Correctly follows. The passage explains why cancer seems modern, because the metaphors applied to it are modern.
- (B) Correctly follows. The passage explicitly says modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.
- (C) Correctly follows. The passage literally uses the metaphor of a cell as a molecular machine, showing cancer as an automaton.
- (D) Does not follow. The passage repeatedly states that modern cell biology does use metaphors (machine analogy). Saying it "never uses figurative language" is the exact opposite of the passage’s meaning.

\[ \boxed{The statement that does NOT follow is (D).} \] Quick Tip: When tackling comprehension questions, look for absolute words like “never” or “always.” They often signal the incorrect option when the passage gives examples to the contrary.


Question 9:

The digit in the unit’s place of the product \(3^{999}\times 7^{1000}\) is ______.

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 9
Correct Answer: (A) 7
View Solution



Step 1: Units digit cycle of \(3^n\).

The units digit of \(3^n\) repeats in a cycle of \(4\): \(3,9,7,1\).
Since \(999 \bmod 4 = 3\), we have \(3^{999}\) ending with the same digit as \(3^3=27\).
Thus, \(3^{999}\) ends with 7.

Step 2: Units digit cycle of \(7^n\).

The units digit of \(7^n\) repeats in a cycle of \(4\): \(7,9,3,1\).
Since \(1000 \bmod 4 = 0\), we have \(7^{1000}\) ending with the same digit as \(7^4=2401\).
Thus, \(7^{1000}\) ends with 1.

Step 3: Multiply units digits.
\[ 7 \times 1 = 7 \]
So, the final units digit of \(3^{999}\times 7^{1000}\) is 7.
\[ \boxed{7} \] Quick Tip: Always check repeating cycles of units digits (mod 10). Both \(3\) and \(7\) have cycles of length 4. Reducing exponents mod 4 gives the correct digit quickly.


Question 10:

A square with sides of length \(6\,cm\) is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown. The area of the shaded region is ______ \(cm^2\).

  • (A) \(6\pi\)
  • (B) \(18\)
  • (C) \(20\)
  • (D) \(9\pi\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(18\)
View Solution



Setup.

Let the square be \([0,6]\times[0,6]\). The two semi-circles have radius \(r=3\) with centers at \((0,3)\) (left side) and \((3,0)\) (bottom side). Their full circles are \[ C_1:\ x^2+(y-3)^2=9,\qquad C_2:\ (x-3)^2+y^2=9. \]
The shaded region consists of the parts of these semi-circles excluding their common lens (the lens is white in the figure).


Step 1: Area of the two semi-circles.

Each semi-circle area \(=\tfrac12\pi r^2=\tfrac12\pi(3^2)=\tfrac{9\pi}{2}\).
Sum of two semi-circles: \[ A_{semi-sum}=\frac{9\pi}{2}+\frac{9\pi}{2}=9\pi. \]


Step 2: Area of their overlap (circular lens).

Distance between centers: \[ d=\sqrt{(3-0)^2+(0-3)^2}=3\sqrt{2}. \]
For two equal circles of radius \(r\) and separation \(d\), the overlap area is \[ A_{\cap}=2r^2\cos^{-1}\!\left(\frac{d}{2r}\right)-\frac{d}{2}\sqrt{4r^2-d^2}. \]
Here \(r=3,\ d=3\sqrt{2}\Rightarrow \frac{d}{2r}=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\), so \(\cos^{-1}(\sqrt{2}/2)=\frac{\pi}{4}\). Thus \[ A_{\cap}=2(3^2)\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)-\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{2}\sqrt{36-18} = \frac{18\pi}{4}-\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{2}\cdot 3\sqrt{2} = \frac{9\pi}{2}-9. \]


Step 3: Shaded area (union minus the lens twice).

The shaded part is the two semi-circles with the overlap removed from both, i.e. \[ A_{shaded} = A_{semi-sum} - 2A_{\cap} = 9\pi - 2\!\left(\frac{9\pi}{2}-9\right) = 9\pi - 9\pi + 18 = \boxed{18\ cm^2}. \] Quick Tip: When two equal circles overlap, remember the lens formula \(A_{\cap}=2r^2\cos^{-1}\!\left(\tfrac{d}{2r}\right)-\tfrac{d}{2}\sqrt{4r^2-d^2}\). For “two semi-circles on perpendicular sides”, the centers are \(d=r\sqrt{2}\) apart and the lens simplifies to \(\frac{9\pi}{2}-9\) for \(r=3\).


Question 11:

Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless} and Cowardly}?

  • (A) Pusillanimous
  • (B) Unctuous
  • (C) Obsequious
  • (D) Reticent
Correct Answer: (A) \textbf{Pusillanimous}
View Solution



Step 1: Meaning of “spineless” and “cowardly”

- Spineless = lacking courage, weak-willed.

- Cowardly = showing lack of bravery.


Step 2: Check each option

(A) Pusillanimous — literally means “lacking courage,” “cowardly,” “timid.” This directly matches the given clue.

(B) Unctuous — overly flattering, insincere (nothing to do with cowardice).

(C) Obsequious — excessively submissive, sycophantic (close in tone but not exactly cowardly).

(D) Reticent — reserved, silent, not willing to speak (again not cowardly).


Thus, the only correct match is Pusillanimous.

\[ \boxed{Pusillanimous = Spineless + Cowardly} \] Quick Tip: The word pusillanimous} comes from Latin roots: “pusillus” (very small) + “animus” (spirit), literally “small-spirited.” Perfect synonym for cowardly.


Question 12:

Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:
The whole family got together ___ Diwali

  • (A) of
  • (B) at
  • (C) in
  • (D) till
Correct Answer: (B) \textbf{at}
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the sentence

“The whole family got together ___ Diwali” means the reunion happened on the occasion of Diwali. We must use the preposition that fits events/festivals.


Step 2: Evaluate options

(A) of Diwali — incorrect usage, not idiomatic in English.

(B) at Diwali — correct idiom. We say “at Christmas,” “at Diwali,” “at Easter,” etc., to refer to festive occasions.

(C) in Diwali — unnatural; “in” is used for months/years (“in October,” “in 2022”), not for festivals.

(D) till Diwali — means “up to Diwali,” changes the meaning of the sentence completely.

\[ \boxed{The whole family got together at Diwali.} \] Quick Tip: Remember: “at” is the standard preposition used for festivals and specific occasions (at Diwali, at Christmas, at the party).


Question 13:

Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i)______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii)______ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii)______. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv)______ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

  • (A) (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching
  • (B) (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing
  • (C) (i) shocking (ii) underperformance (iii) cinemas (iv) below
  • (D) (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze blank (i).

The context says: “Amid this turbulence, there is a factor that stands out positively.” The word “redeeming” fits perfectly as it indicates something positive in an otherwise negative situation.

Step 2: Analyze blank (ii).

The sentence mentions films like RRR, KGF 2, and Pushpa, which were very successful. Hence, “outperformance” is the most suitable choice.

Step 3: Analyze blank (iii).

Traditionally, South Indian films have done well in their own “geographies” (regions). Words like “channels” or “theatres” do not convey regional success. Thus, “geographies” fits best.

Step 4: Analyze blank (iv).

The dubbed versions in Hindi are so successful that their collections are “eclipsing” (surpassing) those of Bollywood counterparts.

Step 5: Eliminate other options.

- (A): “disheartening failure” is opposite in meaning.
- (C): “underperformance” contradicts the idea of success.
- (D): “bombing” and “falling behind” are negative, unsuitable here.

Thus, all four blanks align only with option (B).
\[ \boxed{(B) redeeming, outperformance, geographies, eclipsing} \] Quick Tip: In passage completion, always check tone and context. Positive words align with success stories, while negative words contradict them. Elimination of mismatched tone helps reach the correct answer.


Question 14:

The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

1. Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

2. Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

3. The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

4. Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

5. Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

6. I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

  • (A) 3, 2, 5, 4
  • (B) 2, 3, 4, 5
  • (C) 5, 4, 3, 2
  • (D) 4, 2, 5, 3
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Sentence 1 introduces the theme.
“Mobility” is both geographical and social. So the next sentence must expand on how traditional social mobility studies treated society — this is sentence 2.

Step 2: Logical follow-up.
After criticizing the older literature in (2), the author notes that even migration sociology is limited. This is sentence 3.

Step 3: Expanding concern.
Then comes sentence 4, which broadens the scope to flows of people beyond societies (work, asylum, etc.).

Step 4: Transition to objects.
Sentence 5 logically introduces the idea that not only people but also objects are mobile, which prepares the ground for sentence 6.

Step 5: Conclusion.
Sentence 6 then emphasizes the “sociology of objects” and their intersection with people’s flows, completing the passage.
\[ Final sequence: 1 \; \to \; 2 \; \to \; 3 \; \to \; 4 \; \to \; 5 \; \to \; 6 \]

Thus, the correct option is (B) 2, 3, 4, 5. Quick Tip: For jumbled paragraph questions, track the logical flow: - Introductory idea \(\to\) critique of past work \(\to\) elaboration \(\to\) expansion \(\to\) transition \(\to\) conclusion. Checking coherence across transitions ensures the correct sequence.


Question 15:

The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

  • (A) -0.25%
  • (B) 0%
  • (C) 2.5%
  • (D) 10.25%
Correct Answer: (A) -0.25%
View Solution



Step 1: Assume initial population in 2020.

Let the population in 2020 be \(P = 100\).


Step 2: Population in 2021 after 5% increase.
\[ P_{2021} = 100 \times (1 + 0.05) = 105 \]


Step 3: Population in 2022 after 5% decrease.
\[ P_{2022} = 105 \times (1 - 0.05) = 105 \times 0.95 = 99.75 \]


Step 4: Net percentage change from 2020 to 2022.
\[ %\ \Delta P = \frac{99.75 - 100}{100} \times 100 = -0.25% \]

\[ \boxed{-0.25%} \] Quick Tip: Remember that a 5% increase followed by a 5% decrease does not cancel out — it produces a slight net decrease because percentages apply to different bases.


Question 16:

The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

  • (A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous
  • (B) Short: Small: Petite
  • (C) Tall: Taller: Tallest
  • (D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish
Correct Answer: (A) and (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the given set.

Thin, Slim, and Slender are not degree words (like positive–comparative–superlative). Instead, they are near-synonyms with subtle differences in nuance, all pointing to leanness.


Step 2: Check each option.

(A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous — all related to fullness/heaviness, close in meaning, with nuanced connotations. Correct analogy.

(B) Short: Small: Petite — all linked to small size/dimension, again nuanced synonyms. Correct analogy.

(C) Tall: Taller: Tallest — this is a degree sequence (positive, comparative, superlative), not a synonym group. Not analogous.

(D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish — these are contrasting/opposite skin tones, not synonyms. Not analogous.


\[ \boxed{Correct options: (A) and (B)} \] Quick Tip: When solving synonym-based analogy questions, look for words that belong to the same “semantic field” with subtle shades of meaning, not words showing comparison or opposites.


Question 17:

A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

  • (A) In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.
  • (B) The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.
  • (C) The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.
  • (D) The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.
Correct Answer: (B) and (C)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze option (A).
This option suggests assigning permanent responsibility for both healthcare and economy revival to district administrations. While they were actively involved during the crisis, giving them permanent responsibility for all such matters may not be realistic. Such roles are usually coordinated at state/national levels. Hence, (A) is not strongly plausible.


Step 2: Analyze option (B).
A task force to review the post-pandemic measures is both logical and practical. Governments commonly review their response to crises to learn lessons, improve systems, and understand effectiveness. Thus, (B) is highly plausible.


Step 3: Analyze option (C).
A committee to create a future pandemic management program is also very reasonable. Planning ahead by learning from past experiences minimizes losses in life and economy for future emergencies. Hence, (C) is also plausible.


Step 4: Analyze option (D).
Population control as a solution to pandemics is neither directly relevant nor scientifically valid, since pandemics are driven by disease transmission and preparedness, not population size alone. Therefore, (D) is implausible.
\[ \boxed{Thus, the plausible actions are (B) and (C).} \] Quick Tip: In decision-making questions, focus on actions that are logical, realistic, and directly related to the problem. Avoid extreme or unrelated measures like population control for pandemics.


Question 18:

Six students, Arif (Ar), Balwinder (Bw), Chintu (Ct), David (Dv), Emon (Em) and Fulmoni (Fu) appeared in GATE–XH (2022).
Bw scores less than Ct in XH–B1, but more than Ar in XH–C1.
Dv scores more than Bw in XH–C1, and more than Ct in XH–B1.
Em scores less than Dv, but more than Fu in XH–B1.
Fu scores more than Dv in XH–C1.
Ar scores less than Em, but more than Fu in XH–B1.
Who scores highest in XH–B1?

  • (A) Fulmoni
  • (B) Emon
  • (C) David
  • (D) Chintu
Correct Answer: (C) David
View Solution



Step 1: Collect XH–B1 inequalities.

From the statements for paper B1: \[ \begin{aligned} (i)\ &Bw < Ct
(ii)\ &Dv > Ct
(iii)\ &Em < Dv, Em > Fu
(iv)\ &Ar < Em, Ar > Fu \end{aligned} \]

Step 2: Chain what we can.

From (iv) and (iii): \(Fu < Ar < Em < Dv\).
From (ii): \(Ct < Dv\).
From (i) and (ii): \(Bw < Ct < Dv\).

Step 3: Decide the topper in B1.

Every candidate is strictly below Dv:
- \(Ct < Dv\) (given), hence \(Bw < Ct < Dv\).

- \(Em < Dv\) (given), and \(Ar < Em\), \(Fu < Ar\).
Therefore, \(\boxed{Dv is the highest in XH–B1}\). Quick Tip: In order-comparison puzzles, segregate constraints by category (here, by paper B1 vs C1), write only the relevant inequalities, then build a single chain. A strict “\(>\)” link from the topper to each} other candidate certifies the topper.


Question 19:

Select the correct relation between \(E\) and \(F\). \(E=\dfrac{x}{1+x}\) \; and \; \(F=\dfrac{-x}{\,1-x\,}\), \; with \(x>1\).

  • (A) \(E>F\)
  • (B) \(E
  • (C) \(E=F\)
  • (D) \(E<-F\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(EView Solution



Step 1: Simplify \(F\).
\[ F=\frac{-x}{1-x}=\frac{x}{x-1}(multiply numerator and denominator by -1). \]

Step 2: Compare \(F\) and \(E\) by subtraction.

For \(x>1\), denominators \(x-1\) and \(x+1\) are positive. Compute \[ F-E=\frac{x}{x-1}-\frac{x}{x+1} =\frac{x\big[(x+1)-(x-1)\big]}{(x-1)(x+1)} =\frac{2x}{x^2-1}. \]
Since \(x>1\Rightarrow x^2-1>0\), we have \(F-E>0\).
\[ \boxed{F>E\ \Rightarrow\ EQuick Tip: When comparing two rational expressions with the same positive numerator pattern, reduce to one fraction: \(A/B - A/C = A\,(C-B)/(BC)\). For \(x>1\), signs are easy to track since all denominators are positive.


Question 20:

A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by the previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

  • (A) HUUFNUSPOPH
  • (B) FIICLIQMEMF
  • (C) FUUCLUQMOMF
  • (D) HEEDATTACRH
Correct Answer: (C) FUUCLUQMOMF
View Solution



Let us break down the word GOODMORNING and apply the rules:


1. Vowels rule:

- O is replaced by U (the next vowel).

- O is replaced by U (the next vowel).

- O is replaced by U (the next vowel).

- I is replaced by O (the next vowel).

- I is replaced by O (the next vowel).


2. Consonants rule:

- G is replaced by F (the previous consonant).

- D is replaced by C (the previous consonant).

- M remains M (no previous consonant before M in the alphabet).

- R is replaced by Q (the previous consonant).

- N is replaced by M (the previous consonant).

- N is replaced by M (the previous consonant).

- G is replaced by F (the previous consonant).


Thus, the coded word for GOODMORNING is FUUCLUQMOMF.
Quick Tip: When decoding or encoding based on letter substitutions, break down each character and apply the transformation rules step by step. Keep track of vowels and consonants separately for accuracy.


Question 21:

The stranger is by nature no "owner of soil" -- soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an "owner of soil." Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

  • (A) The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.
  • (B) The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.
  • (C) The stranger can become an owner of soil through establishing ties of kinship and so on.
  • (D) The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological.
Correct Answer: (B) and (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the central idea of the passage

The stranger is described as fundamentally “not an owner of soil.” This metaphor of soil applies both in the physical sense (ownership of land or fixed place) and in the psychological/social sense (fixed, organic ties in a community). The stranger is defined by mobility and lack of rooted connection.

Step 2: Examine each option

(A) Incorrect. Although the stranger may develop charm and significance, the passage clearly says this does not make him an “owner of soil.” Personal charm does not remove the condition of strangeness.


(B) Correct. The stranger, by definition, “is not an owner of soil” in either sense — physical or psychological. This matches the core statement of the passage.


(C) Incorrect. Establishing ties of kinship, locality, or occupation would contradict the very definition of the stranger, who is never “organically connected” with such ties.


(D) Correct. The passage allows a subtle interpretation: physically, one could own soil (in the sense of land), but psychologically/socially, the stranger remains a stranger, not organically tied. Hence, this option also aligns with the text.


Step 3: Final Answer

Both (B) and (D) are consistent with the description in the passage.
\[ \boxed{Correct Assumptions: (B) and (D)} \] Quick Tip: In comprehension passages, carefully distinguish between literal (physical) and figurative (psychological/social) meanings. The “stranger” here is defined by lack of organic ties, regardless of charm or interaction.


Question 22:

L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related? Select the possible option(s):

  • (A) Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather
  • (B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather
  • (C) Grandchild and Paternal Grandmother
  • (D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother
Correct Answer: (B) and (D) \;[Both are possible]
View Solution



Step 1: Decode the family links.

L is the only son of parents A and S \(\Rightarrow\) L is male; A and S are L’s parents (genders not yet known).

S has one sibling, B.

B is married to L’s aunt K. If K were S’s sister, B (S’s sibling) would be marrying his own sister — impossible. Hence K is A’s sister (paternal aunt of L). Therefore, B is S’s only sibling and A’s brother-in-law.


Step 2: Use “B is the only son of D”.

Since S and B are siblings and B is the only son of D, it follows that:
- B is male,
- S cannot be male (otherwise D would have at least two sons, contradicting “only son”).

Therefore, S is female \(\Rightarrow\) S is L’s mother. Consequently, D is a parent of S, i.e., D is L’s maternal grandparent.


Step 3: Determine which options fit.

From Step 2, the relationship between L and D is always “grandchild \(\leftrightarrow\) maternal grandparent”. The question does not specify D’s gender. Hence both of the following are possible and consistent with the data: \[ (B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather, (D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother. \]

Why not paternal?

If D were on the paternal side, D would be a parent of A. But D is explicitly the parent of B, who is S’s only sibling; thus D is on S’s side, not A’s. So (A) and (C) are impossible.
Quick Tip: When you see “only son/daughter,” use it to fix genders and sides of the family. Here “B is the only son of D” forces S to be female, putting D on the maternal side.


Question 23:

The following segments of a sentence are given in jumbled order. The first and last segments (1 and 5) are in their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

1. Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

2. and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

3. clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my
talisman, my open-sesame,

4. I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which
it really began,

5. some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clockridden, crime-stained birth.

  • (A) 2 – 3 – 4
  • (B) 3 – 2 – 4
  • (C) 4 – 2 – 3
  • (D) 4 – 3 – 2
Correct Answer: (A) 2 – 3 – 4
View Solution



The first segment of the sentence is:
1. Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me.

This implies that the subject is in a crowded or chaotic state.


The last segment of the sentence is:
5. some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

This indicates a time reference, looking back at an event (birth) that occurred thirty-two years ago.
\

Now, we need to arrange segments 2, 3, and 4 to form a coherent thought.

Segment 2: and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center.
\
Segment 3: clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame.

Segment 4: I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began.


Clearly, segment 2 introduces the guiding memory, and segment 3 further explains it as a "talisman" and "open-sesame," meaning it is a key to the story. Finally, segment 4 follows logically by talking about starting the process of remaking life from this point.


Thus, the correct order of the middle segments is: \[ \boxed{2 - 3 - 4} \] Quick Tip: When dealing with jumbled sentence questions, focus on connecting the subject and the action first, and then find logical transitions that fit the time or context (here, the reference to time in the last segment).


Question 24:

“I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

  • (A) Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.
  • (B) Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.
  • (C) Truth is the product of memory that is fallible, selective and slanted.
  • (D) Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.
Correct Answer: (C) and (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Extract claims about “memory’s truth.”

The passage stresses that memory selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, vilifies and finally creates its own reality. This presents truth as constructed by memory and therefore fallible and slanted. \(\Rightarrow\) Matches (C).


Step 2: Observer–dependence.

“No sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own” implies truth varies with the observer and is thus contingent and partial. \(\Rightarrow\) Matches (D).


Step 3: Why (A) and (B) do not follow.

(A) \& (B) appeal to empiricism/sense verification, but the passage neither mentions empirical testing nor sensory verification as criteria of truth; it focuses on memory’s constructive, subjective nature. Hence they are not supported.

\[ \boxed{Therefore, (C) and (D) only.} \] Quick Tip: When a passage emphasizes selection, alteration, and “own versions,” look for options about constructed} and observer-dependent} truth, not empirical verification.


Question 25:

A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour. Skilled wage = Rs. 40{,}000 per month; unskilled wage = Rs. 15{,}000 per month. The total wage bill for 100 labourers is Rs. 23{,}75{,}000 in a month. How many skilled labour are employed? (in Integer)}

Correct Answer: \(\boxed{35}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Define variables.

Let the number of skilled workers be \(x\). Then unskilled workers \(=100-x\).


Step 2: Set up wage equation.
\[ 40{,}000\,x + 15{,}000\,(100-x) \;=\; 23{,}75{,}000 \]


Step 3: Simplify and solve.
\[ 40{,}000x + 15{,}00{,}000 - 15{,}000x = 23{,}75{,}000 \Rightarrow 25{,}000x = 8{,}75{,}000 \] \[ x = \frac{8{,}75{,}000}{25{,}000} = 35 \]

\[ \boxed{Skilled labour employed = 35} \] Quick Tip: In mixture/wage problems, set one variable for one group, express the other as the complement (here \(100-x\)), and form a single linear cost equation to solve quickly.


Question 26:

Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

  • (A) Lek
  • (B) Zloty
  • (C) Diner
  • (D) Drachma
  • (E) Real
Correct Answer: (C) Diner
View Solution



Identify the common category: Items (1), (2), (4), and (5) are all names of national currencies.


Lek — currency of Albania.

Zloty — currency of Poland.

Drachma — historical currency of Greece (pre-euro).

Real — currency of Brazil.


Contrast with option (3): Diner (spelled with an e) is not a currency; it is an English word meaning a person who dines or a type of casual restaurant. (A currency spelled Dinar would fit the pattern, but that is not what is written.)


Therefore, the only item not belonging to the currency category is (3) Diner.

\[ \boxed{Odd word: (3) Diner} \] Quick Tip: Watch for near-homophones or look-alike spellings in “odd one out” questions—Diner} vs.\ Dinar} changes the category completely.


Question 27:

Blind spot in the retina contains ____________.

  • (A) only rod cells
  • (B) only cone cells
  • (C) both rod and cone cells
  • (D) neither rod nor cone cells
Correct Answer: (D) neither rod nor cone cells
View Solution



The blind spot (optic disc) is the point where the optic nerve exits the eye and blood vessels enter/leave.

Step 1: Structure at the optic disc \(\Rightarrow\) there are no photoreceptors present.

Step 2: Consequence \(\Rightarrow\) since rods and cones are absent, light falling here is not transduced, creating a physiological scotoma (blind spot).

Therefore options (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect, and \fbox{(D) neither rod nor cone cells is correct.
Quick Tip: Blind spot \(=\) optic disc \(=\) no photoreceptors (neither rods nor cones). That’s why you can’t “see” where the optic nerve leaves the eye.


Question 28:

Taking painkillers eliminates pain, increasing the likelihood that the person will take painkillers again. This is an example of ____________.

  • (A) negative punishment
  • (B) positive reinforcement
  • (C) negative reinforcement
  • (D) positive punishment
Correct Answer: (C) negative reinforcement
View Solution



Definition: Negative reinforcement increases a behavior by removing an aversive stimulus.

Apply to the case: Taking a painkiller (behavior) \(\Rightarrow\) removes pain (aversive) \(\Rightarrow\) person is more likely to repeat the behavior. Hence, negative reinforcement.

Why others are wrong:

(B) Positive reinforcement adds a pleasant stimulus to increase behavior (not removal).

(A) Negative punishment removes a pleasant stimulus to decrease behavior.

(D) Positive punishment adds an unpleasant stimulus to decrease behavior.

Thus, the correct choice is \fbox{(C).
Quick Tip: Reinforcement \textbf{increases} behavior (positive = add good; negative = remove bad). Punishment \textbf{decreases} behavior (positive = add bad; negative = remove good).


Question 29:

When learning something new impairs the ability to retrieve information learnt earlier, it is known as _________.

  • (A) retroactive interference
  • (B) proactive interference
  • (C) tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
  • (D) recency effect
Correct Answer: (A) retroactive interference
View Solution




Step 1: Recall the definition of retroactive interference.

Retroactive interference occurs when newly learned information interferes with the recall of previously learned information.


Step 2: Apply to the given situation.

Here, learning something new impairs the ability to retrieve older information. This matches exactly with retroactive interference.


Step 3: Eliminate other options.

- Proactive interference is the reverse: older information interferes with new learning.

- Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is a retrieval failure, not interference.

- Recency effect refers to remembering the most recent items better.


Thus, the correct answer is retroactive interference.
Quick Tip: Remember: \textbf{Retroactive = New interferes with Old}, while \textbf{Proactive = Old interferes with New}.


Question 30:

Iconic memory is a type of _________.

  • (A) short term memory
  • (B) sensory memory
  • (C) semantic memory
  • (D) working memory
Correct Answer: (B) sensory memory
View Solution




Step 1: Recall what iconic memory is.

Iconic memory refers to the brief visual storage of sensory information (lasting only a few hundred milliseconds).


Step 2: Classify under memory types.

Since iconic memory deals with raw visual sensory input held for a very short duration, it falls under sensory memory.


Step 3: Eliminate other options.

- Short-term memory stores information for seconds to minutes, longer than iconic memory.

- Semantic memory refers to general knowledge, not sensory storage.

- Working memory is for temporary manipulation of information, not immediate sensory impressions.


Thus, iconic memory is a type of sensory memory.
Quick Tip: Iconic memory (visual) and echoic memory (auditory) are two key types of sensory memory that briefly hold raw sensory data.


Question 31:

Which one of the following components of language has to do with the practical or social aspects of communication with others?

  • (A) Phonemes
  • (B) Morphemes
  • (C) Pragmatics
  • (D) Syntax
Correct Answer: (C) Pragmatics
View Solution



Step 1: Recall definitions.

Phonemes \(=\) smallest units of sound; Morphemes \(=\) smallest meaning-bearing units; Syntax \(=\) rules for arranging words into sentences; Pragmatics \(=\) use of language in context—social norms like politeness, turn-taking, implicature, deixis.

Step 2: Match to prompt.

The question asks about the practical/social side of communication \(\Rightarrow\) how meaning changes with speaker, listener, setting, and intentions \(\Rightarrow\) \fbox{Pragmatics.
Quick Tip: Form vs. use: phonemes/morphemes/syntax are about language form}; \textbf{pragmatics} is about language use} in social context.


Question 32:

The Yerkes–Dodson law states that _____________.

  • (A) performance is affected by the level of arousal
  • (B) frustration leads to aggression
  • (C) self-concept helps us organize and remember information
  • (D) changes in behaviour are a result of experiences that have happened frequently or recently
Correct Answer: (A) performance is affected by the level of arousal
View Solution



Step 1: Statement of the law.

The Yerkes–Dodson law proposes an inverted-U relation between arousal and performance: too little arousal \(\Rightarrow\) low alertness; moderate arousal \(\Rightarrow\) optimal performance; too much arousal \(\Rightarrow\) performance declines.

Step 2: Eliminate distractors.

(B) is the frustration–aggression hypothesis, not Y–D.

(C) concerns self-schema/memory, not arousal.

(D) is the law of recency/frequency in learning, not Y–D.

Hence, \fbox{(A) is correct.
Quick Tip: Remember the \textbf{inverted-U}: performance peaks at moderate} arousal (lower for complex tasks, higher for simple tasks).


Question 33:

Transduction of mechanical energy into nerve impulses in the auditory system takes place in response to bending of the _________.

  • (A) pinna
  • (B) hair cells
  • (C) incus
  • (D) malleus
Correct Answer: (B) hair cells
View Solution




Step 1: Recall how auditory transduction occurs.

The process of converting sound waves (mechanical energy) into electrical signals (nerve impulses) occurs in the cochlea of the inner ear.


Step 2: Role of hair cells.

Inside the cochlea, hair cells bend in response to vibrations of the basilar membrane. This bending opens ion channels in the hair cells, leading to depolarization and generation of nerve impulses.


Step 3: Eliminate incorrect options.

- The pinna (A) collects sound waves but does not transduce signals.

- The incus (C) and malleus (D) are ossicles that transmit vibrations, but not responsible for neural transduction.


Hence, the correct answer is hair cells.
Quick Tip: Remember: \textbf{Hair cells} in the cochlea are the sensory receptors that perform mechanical-to-neural transduction in hearing.


Question 34:

Which one of the following theories states that emotion occurs as a result of physical arousal and labeling of the arousal based on cues from the surrounding environment?

  • (A) Ekman-Friesen theory
  • (B) Schachter-Singer theory
  • (C) James-Lange theory
  • (D) Cannon-Bard theory
Correct Answer: (B) Schachter-Singer theory
View Solution




Step 1: Recall Schachter-Singer theory (two-factor theory).

This theory proposes that emotions are produced by two components: (i) physiological arousal, and (ii) cognitive labeling of that arousal based on environmental context.


Step 2: Differentiate from other theories.

- The James-Lange theory suggests emotions arise from perception of physiological changes alone (e.g., "I feel afraid because I tremble").

- The Cannon-Bard theory states arousal and emotional experience occur simultaneously and independently.

- The Ekman-Friesen theory relates to universal facial expressions of emotions, not arousal labeling.


Step 3: Match with the question.

The question clearly matches Schachter-Singer theory since it emphasizes arousal plus labeling based on environmental cues.
Quick Tip: The \textbf{Schachter-Singer (two-factor) theory} = Physical arousal + Cognitive labeling = Emotion.


Question 35:

Which one of the following is TRUE for the Pain-Gate control theory?

  • (A) Gate is a physical structure
  • (B) Activity of gate cannot be closed by non-pain signals
  • (C) Substance P released into spinal cord does not activate other neurons that send messages through spinal gates
  • (D) Pain signals must pass through a gate located in the spinal cord
Correct Answer: (D) Pain signals must pass through a gate located in the spinal cord
View Solution



Step 1: Core idea. Gate-control theory (Melzack \& Wall) proposes a gating mechanism in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord that modulates nociceptive input before it ascends \(\Rightarrow\) pain transmission is “gated” at the spinal level.

Step 2: Check options.

(A) False — the “gate” is a functional mechanism (interneuronal modulation), not a discrete physical gate.

(B) False — large-diameter touch/pressure fibers and descending pathways can close the gate (e.g., rubbing an injured area reduces pain).

(C) False — Substance P facilitates transmission to second-order neurons; it does not negate activation.

(D) True — nociceptive signals are modulated at a spinal “gate” before ascending.


Final Answer: (D) Quick Tip: Remember the heuristic: Rub it and it hurts less} \(\Rightarrow\) non-pain (A-beta) input can close the spinal gate.


Question 36:

Being treated with warmth and consideration by others only when one behaves as expected, is called as \hspace{3cm}.

  • (A) openness to experience
  • (B) conditional positive regard
  • (C) unconditional positive regard
  • (D) zone of proximal development
Correct Answer: (B) conditional positive regard
View Solution



Step 1: Rogers’ terms. Unconditional positive regard = acceptance irrespective of behavior; conditional positive regard = acceptance only when conditions/expectations are met.

Step 2: Match the phrase. “Warmth and consideration only when one behaves as expected” \(\Rightarrow\) acceptance depends on meeting conditions \(\Rightarrow\) conditional positive regard.

(A) is a Big-Five trait; (D) is Vygotsky’s learning zone — both irrelevant.


Final Answer: (B) Quick Tip: Think: strings attached} \(\Rightarrow\) \textbf{conditional} positive regard; no strings} \(\Rightarrow\) \textbf{unconditional}.


Question 37:

Which of the following is/are NOT the factor(s) of the Big Five Personality model?

  • (A) Conscientiousness
  • (B) Optimism
  • (C) Humility
  • (D) Extraversion
Correct Answer: (B) Optimism, (C) Humility
View Solution



Step 1: Recall the Big Five traits

Big Five \(=\) Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism (often remembered as OCEAN).


Step 2: Check each option

(A) Conscientiousness \(\Rightarrow\) is a Big Five trait (not the answer).

(B) Optimism \(\Rightarrow\) not one of the Big Five; it’s usually treated as an affective disposition.

(C) Humility \(\Rightarrow\) not in Big Five; appears in HEXACO as “Honesty–Humility”.

(D) Extraversion \(\Rightarrow\) is a Big Five trait.


Final Answer: Options (B) and (C) are not Big Five factors. Quick Tip: Remember OCEAN: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism. Traits like Optimism or Humility belong to other models or narrower constructs.


Question 38:

Which of the following is/are TRUE for creative individuals?

  • (A) They are not very good at mental imagery
  • (B) They are not afraid to be different
  • (C) They do not value their independence
  • (D) They are unconventional in their work
Correct Answer: (B) They are not afraid to be different; (D) They are unconventional in their work.
View Solution



Step 1: Core attributes of creative people

Research commonly associates creativity with independence, openness to new experiences, tolerance for ambiguity, nonconformity, and strong mental imagery.


Step 2: Evaluate statements

(A) “Not very good at mental imagery” \(\Rightarrow\) typically false; creative individuals often excel at imagery and visualization.

(B) “Not afraid to be different” \(\Rightarrow\) true; willingness to deviate from norms supports originality.

(C) “Do not value their independence” \(\Rightarrow\) false; independence is usually valued and facilitates novel thinking.

(D) “Unconventional in their work” \(\Rightarrow\) true; nonconformity is a hallmark of creative practice.


Final Answer: (B) and (D) are correct. Quick Tip: Creativity pairs novelty with independence and nonconformity. When in doubt, prefer options that reflect openness, risk-taking, and strong visualization abilities.


Question 39:

Which of the following is/are included under behavioural genetics studies in humans?

  • (A) Selective breeding studies
  • (B) Family studies
  • (C) Twin studies
  • (D) Adoption studies
Correct Answer: (B), (C), and (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Concept. Behavioural genetics in humans infers genetic and environmental influences using naturally occurring relationships, not experimental breeding. The classic human designs are family, twin, and adoption studies.


Step 2: Evaluate options.

(A) Selective breeding studies — Not used in humans (unethical/implausible). \Rightarrow Not included.

(B) Family studies — Compare trait similarity among biological relatives across degrees of relatedness. \Rightarrow Included.

(C) Twin studies — Compare MZ vs DZ twins to partition heritability and shared environment. \Rightarrow Included.

(D) Adoption studies — Contrast resemblance to biological vs adoptive parents to separate genes from rearing environment. \Rightarrow Included.


Conclusion: Only (B), (C), and (D) are human behavioural genetics methods. Quick Tip: For human behavioural genetics, remember the trio: family, twin, adoption}. Anything requiring experimental mating (selective breeding) is out for humans.


Question 40:

Which of the following statements regarding locus of control is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) It can be internal and/or external
  • (B) It is associated with self-esteem
  • (C) Internal locus of control is positively correlated with success
  • (D) Regret has no association with locus of control
Correct Answer: (A), (B), and (C)
View Solution



Step 1: Concept. Rotter’s locus of control describes whether outcomes are attributed to one’s own actions (internal) or to external forces like luck/chance (external).


Step 2: Evaluate options.

(A) True. By definition there are internal and external loci; people vary along this continuum (domain-specific mixes are possible).

(B) True. Internals typically show higher perceived control and are moderately associated with higher self-esteem.

(C) True. Internal LoC correlates positively with academic/job success, proactive coping, and persistence.

(D) False. Feelings of regret and attributional style are related: those with a stronger internal LoC often experience regret tied to personal responsibility, showing an association. Hence the statement “no association” is incorrect.


Conclusion: (A), (B), and (C) are correct; (D) is not. Quick Tip: Link it fast: Internal \(\Rightarrow\) “my actions,” often higher self-esteem and achievement; External \(\Rightarrow\) “luck/others,” often less personal control. Regret involves attributions, so it relates to locus of control.


Question 41:

Which of the following is/are TRUE for nonparametric statistics?

  • (A) It is often called distribution free statistics
  • (B) It is used to analyze interval data
  • (C) It is used to analyze ordinal data
  • (D) It compares groups in terms of means
Correct Answer: (A) It is often called distribution free statistics \; \textbf{and} \; (C) It is used to analyze ordinal data
View Solution



Step 1: Nature of nonparametric tests. They make few (or no) assumptions about the population distribution, so they are distribution‐free. \(\Rightarrow\) (A) is true.

Step 2: Level of measurement. Nonparametric procedures commonly work on ranks or categorical counts and are appropriate for ordinal/nominal data; hence (C) is true.

Step 3: Why the others are false. (B) Interval/ratio data with normality are typically handled by parametric tests. (D) Nonparametric comparisons usually use medians or rank sums (e.g., Mann–Whitney, Kruskal–Wallis), not means.

Thus, the correct statements are \fbox{(A) and (C).
Quick Tip: Think “distribution‐free and ranks” for nonparametrics: good for ordinal/nominal data and robust to nonnormality.


Question 42:

According to the review of research on stress and immune system, which of the following statement(s) has/have substantial evidence?

  • (A) There is a negative relationship between stress and functional immune measures
  • (B) There is no measurable impact of stress on functional immune measures
  • (C) Loneliness impacts the relationship between stress and functional immune measures
  • (D) There is a positive relationship between long term stressors and functional immune measures
Correct Answer: (A) There is a negative relationship between stress and functional immune measures \; \textbf{and} \; (C) Loneliness impacts the relationship between stress and functional immune measures
View Solution



Step 1: Core finding. Meta-analytic and review evidence shows that greater stress (especially chronic/long-term) is associated with reduced immune functioning (e.g., poorer NK-cell activity, antibody response). \(\Rightarrow\) (A) is true.

Step 2: Social factors. Loneliness / social isolation moderates and often exacerbates stress-related immune deficits, indicating a meaningful impact of social connection on immunity. \(\Rightarrow\) (C) is true.

Step 3: Eliminate distractors. (B) contradicts the well-documented effects of stress on immunity; (D) reverses the direction—long-term stressors typically impair, not improve, functional immune measures.

Therefore, the statements with substantial evidence are \fbox{(A) and (C).
Quick Tip: Stress generally \textbf{suppresses} immunity; strong social ties can buffer this effect, while loneliness can worsen it.


Question 43:

Which of the following influence(s) gender dysphoria?

  • (A) Prenatal factors
  • (B) Early childhood experiences
  • (C) Socialization
  • (D) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
Correct Answer: (A), (B), (C)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding gender dysphoria.

Gender dysphoria refers to the psychological distress that occurs when an individual’s gender identity does not align with the sex assigned at birth. Multiple factors contribute to its development.


Step 2: Prenatal factors (A).

Hormonal and genetic influences during fetal development may contribute to gender identity formation, thereby influencing gender dysphoria.


Step 3: Early childhood experiences (B).

Experiences in early years, including reinforcement, family interactions, and psychological environment, may shape gender-related identity and contribute to dysphoria.


Step 4: Socialization (C).

Cultural, peer, and social expectations strongly affect gender role development. Discrepancies in socialization experiences can contribute to gender dysphoria.


Step 5: ADHD (D).

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is unrelated to gender identity and has no causal link with gender dysphoria.


Thus, the influencing factors are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: Gender dysphoria is multifactorial—biological, psychological, and social influences interact, but ADHD is unrelated.


Question 44:

If the variance of a set of scores is 100, the standard deviation is _______ (in integer).

Correct Answer: 10
View Solution




Step 1: Recall the relationship.

Standard deviation (SD) is the square root of variance.


Step 2: Apply formula.
\[ Variance = 100 \] \[ SD = \sqrt{100} = 10 \]


Final Answer: The standard deviation is 10.
Quick Tip: Always remember: Variance = (Standard Deviation)\(^2\). To find SD, just take the square root of variance.


Question 45:

Match the structures of the brain in the first column with their respective functions in the second column.

  • (A) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)
  • (B) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)
  • (C) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
  • (D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Recall key functions.

Cerebellum \(\Rightarrow\) coordination/fine motor control \(\Rightarrow\) (iii).

Thalamus \(\Rightarrow\) sensory relay to cortex \(\Rightarrow\) (iv).

Tectum (superior/inferior colliculi) \(\Rightarrow\) orienting reflexes to sights/sounds \(\Rightarrow\) (i).

Medulla \(\Rightarrow\) autonomic control of heart rate, circulation, respiration \(\Rightarrow\) (ii).


Step 2: Map and choose.

Thus \(P\!\to\!(iii),~Q\!\to\!(iv),~R\!\to\!(i),~S\!\to\!(ii)\), which matches option (D).


Final Answer: (D) Quick Tip: Remember: \textbf{Cerebellum} = coordination, \textbf{Thalamus} = sensory relay, \textbf{Tectum} = orienting, \textbf{Medulla} = vital autonomic functions.


Question 46:

Which one of the following is established by the replication of research studies?

  • (A) Validity of the results
  • (B) Reliability of the results
  • (C) Interaction effect
  • (D) Mediation effect
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution



Step 1: What replication tests.

Replication checks whether similar procedures yield consistent results across samples/settings \(\Rightarrow\) reliability (consistency/reproducibility).

Step 2: Why others are incorrect.

Validity concerns accuracy/truth of the inference (internal/external), which requires design and control, not just repeating the study. Interaction and mediation are specific statistical effects, not what replication establishes.


Final Answer: (B) Quick Tip: Think replication = repeatability} \(\Rightarrow\) reliability. Validity is about are we measuring the right thing?}


Question 47:

Match the theory/law in the first column with the corresponding explanation in the second column.

  • (A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)
  • (B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
  • (C) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)
  • (D) P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i)
Correct Answer: (C) \; P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)
View Solution



Step 1: Recall each law/theory

- Weber's law: \(\Delta I / I = k\) \Rightarrow change detection is relative to baseline intensity \(\Rightarrow\) (i).

- Steven's Power law: \(S = k I^{n}\) \Rightarrow sensory magnitude grows as a power of physical intensity \(\Rightarrow\) (ii).

- Signal detection theory: Detection depends on sensitivity and decision criterion (response bias); detectability of weak signals varies with bias \(\Rightarrow\) (iv).

- Fechner's law: \(S = k \log I\) \Rightarrow sensation varies logarithmically with stimulus \(\Rightarrow\) (iii).


Final Answer: Option (C). Quick Tip: Link the formulas to the words: Weber \(\Rightarrow\) ratio; Stevens \(\Rightarrow\) power; Fechner \(\Rightarrow\) log; SDT \(\Rightarrow\) criterion/bias.


Question 48:

Match the sleep disorders with their characteristic symptoms.

  • (A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)
  • (B) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)
  • (C) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv)
  • (D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
Correct Answer: (B) \; P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)
View Solution



Step 1: Map each disorder to its hallmark sign

- Enuresis \(\Rightarrow\) bedwetting \Rightarrow (ii).

- Hypersomnia \(\Rightarrow\) excessive daytime sleepiness \Rightarrow (i).

- Circadian rhythm disorder \(\Rightarrow\) misaligned sleep–wake timing \Rightarrow (iv).

- Sleep apnea \(\Rightarrow\) repeated breathing pauses during sleep \Rightarrow (iii).


Final Answer: Option (B). Quick Tip: Remember quick anchors: Enuresis–urine}, Hypersomnia–sleepy day}, Circadian–clock}, Apnea–no breath}.


Question 49:

________ explains aging as a process of mutual withdrawal of individual and society, whereas _______ assumes positive correlation between activity and successful aging.

  • (A) Decay theory, Engagement theory
  • (B) Balance theory, Engagement theory
  • (C) Disengagement theory, Activity theory
  • (D) Withdrawal theory, Activity theory
Correct Answer: (C) Disengagement theory, Activity theory
View Solution



Step 1: Map key phrases to theories.

- “Mutual withdrawal of individual and society” is the hallmark of Disengagement theory (Cumming \& Henry, 1961). It posits that reduced social interaction is a natural, adaptive part of aging for both the person and society.

- “Positive correlation between activity and successful aging” captures Activity theory (Havighurst), which argues that maintaining roles and social/physical activities leads to higher life satisfaction and better adjustment in old age.


Step 2: Eliminate distractors.

(A) and (B): “Decay/Balance/Engagement theory” are not the standard gerontological pairs explaining these statements.

(D) “Withdrawal theory” is not the canonical name; the accepted term is Disengagement theory. Though “withdrawal” sounds similar, the established label used in aging literature is disengagement.

\[ \boxed{Disengagement theory, Activity theory} \] Quick Tip: Remember the contrast: \textbf{Disengagement} = natural reduction in roles/contacts; \textbf{Activity} = stay engaged to age successfully. (A third, Continuity theory}, stresses maintaining patterns over time.)


Question 50:

Match the biases/effects in the first column with the descriptions in the second column of the table given below.

  • (A) P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(iv)
  • (B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)
  • (C) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
  • (D) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)
Correct Answer: (B) \; P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)
View Solution



Step 1: Recall definitions.

P) Barnum Effect — believing very vague, general personality statements apply uniquely to oneself (e.g., horoscopes). \(\Rightarrow\) (iv).

Q) Reference Group Effect — rating oneself relative to one's social/cultural group norms. \(\Rightarrow\) (iii).

R) Self-Serving Bias — crediting oneself for success while externalizing failures. \(\Rightarrow\) (i).

S) Self-Effacing (Modesty) Bias — taking blame for failures and downplaying success. \(\Rightarrow\) (ii).


Step 2: Match to the option.

The mapping \(P\!\to\!(iv),\; Q\!\to\!(iii),\; R\!\to\!(i),\; S\!\to\!(ii)\) corresponds to option (B). Quick Tip: Memory hook: Barnum = broad}; Reference = group norms}; Self-serving = success credit}; Self-effacing = success shrink}.


Question 51:

Match the theories in the first column with the central themes in the second column of the table given below.

  • (A) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)
  • (B) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(ii)
  • (C) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)
  • (D) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(iv)
Correct Answer: (A) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)
View Solution



Drive theory \(\Rightarrow\) (iv): Drives arise from biological needs (e.g., hunger) that push action.

Arousal theory \(\Rightarrow\) (i): Performance relates to the level of activation/arousal (optimum arousal).

Expectancy theory \(\Rightarrow\) (ii): Behaviour depends on expected desirable outcomes (expectancy, instrumentality, valence).

Goal setting theory \(\Rightarrow\) (iii): Specific, challenging goals enhance motivation and performance.

Therefore the mapping is \fbox{P-iv, Q-i, R-ii, S-iii.
Quick Tip: Link each theory to its key word: Drive\(\to\)needs; Arousal\(\to\)activation; Expectancy\(\to\)outcomes; Goal setting\(\to\)specific \& challenging goals.


Question 52:

Which one of the following would resolve the basic dilemma of the social psychologist?

  • (A) Conducting carefully designed experiments with high internal validity
  • (B) By replicating experiments and conducting some new experiments that have internal validity and others that have external validity
  • (C) Conducting research exclusively in the field
  • (D) Conducting applied rather than basic research
Correct Answer: (B) By replicating experiments and conducting some new experiments that have internal validity and others that have external validity
View Solution



The basic dilemma in social psychology is the tradeoff between internal validity (strong causal inference, often in lab) and external validity (generalizability, often in field).

(A) focuses only on internal validity; (C) only on external validity; (D) changes the purpose, not the validity tradeoff.

Best resolution: combine approaches—replicate studies and conduct a program of research including both high-internal-validity lab experiments and high-external-validity field studies. Hence, \fbox{(B).
Quick Tip: Balance the validity tradeoff by triangulation: replicate and mix lab (internal validity) with field (external validity) studies.


Question 53:

Match the research methods in the first column with their purposes in the second column of the table given below.

  • (A) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)
  • (B) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)
  • (C) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)
  • (D) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)
Correct Answer: (D) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)
View Solution




Step 1: Narrative method (P).

Narrative methods focus on collecting data in the form of cohesive stories. Hence, P-(ii).


Step 2: Ethnography (Q).

Ethnography is the study of cultural groups and practices, so it involves describing cultural characteristics in detail. Hence, Q-(iv).


Step 3: Case Study (R).

Case studies describe a person, event, or experience in detail. Hence, R-(i).


Step 4: Content analysis (S).

Content analysis focuses on analyzing texts, extracting categories, and identifying patterns or themes. Hence, S-(iii).


Thus, the correct matching is P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii).
Quick Tip: Narrative = stories, Ethnography = culture, Case study = detailed person/event, Content analysis = themes.


Question 54:

Which one of the following statements is TRUE according to Brehm’s reactance theory?

  • (A) A mild sign prohibiting spitting would be more effective in preventing spitting than a strong sign
  • (B) A strong sign would be more effective in preventing spitting than a mild one
  • (C) Absence of any sign would be most effective in preventing spitting
  • (D) Signs are irrelevant to spitting behaviour
Correct Answer: (A) A mild sign prohibiting spitting would be more effective in preventing spitting than a strong sign
View Solution




Step 1: Recall Brehm’s reactance theory.

This theory suggests that when people perceive their freedom of choice as being threatened, they may experience psychological reactance, motivating them to resist the restriction.


Step 2: Apply to spitting signs.

- A strong prohibitory sign (e.g., "Strictly No Spitting") threatens autonomy more strongly, increasing resistance and making people more likely to spit.

- A mild prohibitory sign (e.g., "Please avoid spitting") reduces the feeling of restriction, and hence reduces reactance, making compliance more likely.


Step 3: Eliminate other options.

(B) is false because stronger restrictions trigger more resistance.

(C) is false since no guidance may not discourage spitting.

(D) is false because signs influence behavior through perception of freedom.


Therefore, (A) is correct.
Quick Tip: Reactance theory: Strong restrictions trigger resistance. Mild restrictions are more effective in ensuring compliance.


Question 55:

According to the overjustification effect, which one of the following consequences would be TRUE for students who freely choose to study psychology, if marks are given for attendance?

  • (A) Increased interest of students in the subject
  • (B) Decreased interest of students in the subject
  • (C) No effect on the interest of students in the subject
  • (D) Increased interest in other social science subjects
Correct Answer: (B) Decreased interest of students in the subject
View Solution



Step 1: State the principle. The overjustification effect states that adding salient external rewards to an activity that is already intrinsically motivated can shift the perceived locus of causality from “I do it because I like it” to “I do it for the reward,” thereby reducing intrinsic interest.

Step 2: Apply to the scenario. Students freely choose psychology \(\Rightarrow\) they already have intrinsic interest. Introducing marks for attendance (an extrinsic reward) will, over time, undermine that intrinsic interest.

Step 3: Evaluate options. (A) contradicts the effect; (C) ignores the predicted decrease; (D) is unrelated. Hence (B) is correct.


Final Answer: (B) Quick Tip: If intrinsic motivation is high and you add strong external rewards, expect interest to drop once rewards loom large or are withdrawn.


Question 56:

Large rewards and severe punishments are examples of \hspace{2cm} justification for behaviour and result in \hspace{2cm} changes in attitude.

  • (A) internal; big
  • (B) external; big
  • (C) internal; small
  • (D) external; small
Correct Answer: (D) external; small
View Solution



Step 1: Define justifications. External justification refers to doing a behavior because of outside pressures/rewards (e.g., big prize; harsh penalty). Internal justification means aligning attitudes to justify one’s behavior when external pressure is insufficient.

Step 2: Dissonance prediction. When rewards/punishments are large, people can attribute their behavior to external causes, so they experience little dissonance and need only a small change in attitude. Conversely, small rewards/punishments produce insufficient external justification, prompting larger internal attitude change.

Step 3: Choose the option. Therefore: external justification; small attitude change \(\Rightarrow\) (D).


Final Answer: (D) Quick Tip: Remember the rule of thumb from dissonance theory: \textbf{big reward/penalty \(\Rightarrow\) \textbf{external justification} \(\Rightarrow\) \textbf{small} attitude change; \textbf{small reward/penalty} \(\Rightarrow\) \textbf{internal justification} \(\Rightarrow\) \textbf{big} attitude change.


Question 57:

Which of the following therapies is/are based on classical conditioning?

  • (A) Systematic desensitization
  • (B) Aversion therapy
  • (C) Cognitive behaviour therapy
  • (D) Rational emotive behaviour therapy
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: What uses classical conditioning?

- Systematic desensitization pairs the conditioned stimulus (feared cue) with relaxation (\Rightarrow\ counterconditioning).

- Aversion therapy pairs an unwanted response/cue with an aversive unconditioned stimulus to reduce its attraction.

Step 2: What does not?

- CBT (C) and REBT (D) are primarily cognitive/behavioural and rational–disputational approaches, not classical-conditioning procedures.

Final Answer: (A) and (B). Quick Tip: Associate “classical conditioning” with pairing/association methods: desensitization and aversion are the classic pairings.


Question 58:

Which of the following characterize(s) Wernicke’s aphasia?

  • (A) Inability to comprehend spoken words
  • (B) Inability to understand the meaning of words
  • (C) Inability to speak grammatically correct language
  • (D) Inability to write and understand the symbols that represent speech sounds
Correct Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Core deficit

- Wernicke’s aphasia (posterior superior temporal lesion) \(\Rightarrow\) impaired comprehension.
Thus (A) “cannot comprehend spoken words” is true; (B) “cannot understand meanings” is true.

Step 2: Speech output features

- Speech is fluent but empty with phonemic/semantic paraphasias and paragrammatism (syntactic/grammatical errors despite fluency).
Hence many patients fail to produce grammatically appropriate speech \(\Rightarrow\) (C) taken as true in exam contexts.

Step 3: Reading and writing

- Reading comprehension and writing typically mirror the spoken-language deficit (alexia/agraphia-like problems).
Difficulty “to write and understand symbols representing speech sounds” \(\Rightarrow\) (D) true.

Final Answer: All four statements apply: (A), (B), (C), (D). Quick Tip: Broca’s = nonfluent, effortful, relatively good comprehension; Wernicke’s = fluent but meaningless, poor comprehension, with parallel reading/writing deficits.


Question 59:

Which of the following is/are the component(s) of Theory of Mind?

  • (A) Understanding that people can have false beliefs
  • (B) Distinguishing faces and smells
  • (C) Recognizing that others have mental states
  • (D) Having a vast vocabulary to express one’s thoughts
Correct Answer: (A) and (C)
View Solution



Step 1: Recall what Theory of Mind (ToM) means.

ToM is the capacity to attribute mental states (beliefs, desires, intentions, knowledge) to oneself and others and to understand that others’ mental states can differ from one’s own and from reality.


Step 2: Evaluate options.

(A) True. Recognizing that people can hold false beliefs (e.g., Sally–Anne task) is a classic ToM benchmark. \(\Rightarrow\) Component of ToM.

(B) False. Face/smell discrimination is perceptual processing, not mental-state reasoning. \(\Rightarrow\) Not ToM.

(C) True. Identifying that others possess mental states is foundational to ToM. \(\Rightarrow\) Component of ToM.

(D) False. Vocabulary can support communication, but a large lexicon is not itself a ToM component.


Conclusion: Only (A) and (C) are components of ToM. Quick Tip: Think “mind about minds”: if the option talks about beliefs, desires, intentions} \(\Rightarrow\) likely ToM; if it’s raw perception or language size, it’s not.


Question 60:

Which of the following would NOT be effective in minimizing groupthink?

  • (A) The leader being impartial to all ideas no matter what they are
  • (B) The leader reminding the team that everyone will be held responsible for the decision of the group
  • (C) The leader taking all decisions on behalf of the group
  • (D) The leader arriving at a consensus quickly
Correct Answer: (C) and (D)
View Solution



Step 1: What reduces groupthink?

Classic remedies include a leader staying impartial, encouraging dissent (devil’s advocate), inviting outside opinions, using subgroups, and delaying premature consensus.


Step 2: Evaluate options.

(A) Effective (thus NOT an answer). Leader impartiality reduces conformity pressure.

(B) Effective (thus NOT an answer). Accountability reduces mindless concurrence.

(C) Not effective. A leader unilaterally deciding bypasses deliberation rather than improving the group’s decision process; it does not “minimize” groupthink within the team’s dynamics. \(\Rightarrow\) Select.

(D) Not effective. Pushing for quick consensus fosters the very symptoms of groupthink (suppressed dissent, illusion of unanimity). \(\Rightarrow\) Select.


Conclusion: (C) and (D) would not be effective in minimizing groupthink. Quick Tip: To combat groupthink: leader stays neutral, slow down decisions, assign a devil’s advocate, and invite outside critiques \(\Rightarrow\) better debate, less conformity.


Question 61:

Which of the following describe(s) the standard error of the mean?

  • (A) It is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean
  • (B) It reflects the accuracy with which sample means estimate the population mean
  • (C) It is the difference between mean and standard deviation of a distribution
  • (D) It is the standard deviation of a stratified sample
Correct Answer: (A) and (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Definition. The standard error of the mean (SEM) is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the sample mean: \(SE_{\bar X}=\dfrac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}\) (or \(s/\sqrt{n}\) when \(\sigma\) is unknown). \(\Rightarrow\) (A) is true.

Step 2: Interpretation. A smaller SEM means sample means cluster more tightly around the population mean, i.e., higher precision/accuracy of the estimate. \(\Rightarrow\) (B) is true.

Step 3: Eliminate distractors. (C) is a meaningless “difference” and not a definition; (D) confuses SEM with a sample’s own SD. Both are false.

Thus, the correct choices are \fbox{(A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Remember: \(SE_{\bar X}= SD/\sqrt{n}\). As \(n\) increases, SEM decreases \Rightarrow estimates become more precise.


Question 62:

Which of the following describe(s) organizational commitment?

  • (A) A strong desire to remain a member of the organization
  • (B) Willingness to exert high level of effort on behalf of the organization
  • (C) A definite belief in and acceptance of values and goals of the organization
  • (D) High turnover intention of the employees of the organization
Correct Answer: (A), (B) and (C)
View Solution



Step 1: Core facets (Porter et al.). Organizational commitment comprises:

\(\bullet\) Affective attachment/desire to remain — loyalty and identification with the organization \(\Rightarrow\) (A).

\(\bullet\) Willingness to exert effort beyond minimum role requirements \(\Rightarrow\) (B).

\(\bullet\) Belief in/acceptance of organizational goals and values \(\Rightarrow\) (C).

Step 2: Distractor. (D) “High turnover intention” is the opposite of commitment (it signals intent to leave), so it is not a component.

Hence, the correct set is \fbox{(A), (B), (C).
Quick Tip: Think ABC of commitment: \textbf{A}ttachment (stay), \textbf{B}elief in goals/values, and extra \textbf{C}ontribution (effort).


Question 63:

Prejudice is supported by the human tendency to categorize into in-groups and out-groups. Prejudice is supported by which of the following processes?

  • (A) The way we think about others
  • (B) The way we assign meaning to others behaviour
  • (C) By following intellectual pursuits
  • (D) By working towards a common goal
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution




Step 1: Prejudice and cognitive processes.

Prejudice arises when people form biased attitudes toward members of out-groups. It is strongly influenced by the way we think (stereotypes) and interpret others’ behavior.


Step 2: The way we think about others (A).

This refers to cognitive schemas and stereotypes. Categorization leads to “us versus them” thinking, reinforcing prejudice. Hence, (A) is correct.


Step 3: The way we assign meaning to others’ behaviour (B).

Attributional biases (e.g., blaming out-groups for negative actions) reinforce prejudice. Hence, (B) is also correct.


Step 4: Eliminating incorrect options.

- (C) Following intellectual pursuits is unrelated to prejudice.

- (D) Working towards a common goal reduces prejudice (contact hypothesis), not support it.


Thus, prejudice is supported by (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Prejudice is maintained by stereotypes and attribution biases, but reduced by cooperative intergroup goals.


Question 64:

Which of the following is/are feature(s) of clinical phobia?

  • (A) The fear must be persistent
  • (B) The fear must be a source of significant distress
  • (C) The fear is rational
  • (D) The fear is usually perceived as unwarranted
Correct Answer: (A), (B), (D)
View Solution




Step 1: Defining clinical phobia.

A clinical phobia is an anxiety disorder where the fear response is exaggerated, persistent, and out of proportion to the actual threat.


Step 2: Persistent fear (A).

Phobias involve chronic and long-lasting fear responses. Hence, (A) is correct.


Step 3: Significant distress (B).

For a fear to be diagnosed as phobia, it must interfere with normal functioning and cause marked distress. Hence, (B) is correct.


Step 4: Rational vs irrational (C and D).

- (C) is incorrect because phobic fears are not rational.

- (D) is correct because individuals recognize their fear is excessive or unwarranted, but still cannot control it.


Therefore, the features of clinical phobia are (A), (B), and (D).
Quick Tip: Clinical phobia = persistent, distressing, irrational fear that the individual knows is excessive but cannot control.


Question 65:

The value of \(F\) calculated from the ANOVA table below (rounded off to one decimal place) is \hspace{2cm.

Correct Answer: 3.6
View Solution



Step 1: Confirm mean squares.

Within MS \(= \dfrac{SS_within}{df_within}=\dfrac{100}{20}=5\) (matches the table).

Between MS \(= 18\) (given).


Step 2: Compute the \(F\) statistic.
\(F = \dfrac{MS_between}{MS_within}=\dfrac{18}{5}=3.6\).


Final Answer: 3.6 Quick Tip: In one-way ANOVA, \(F = MS_{between}/MS_{within}\). Always verify MS values using \(MS=SS/df\) before computing \(F\).



Also Check:

GATE Previous Year Question Papers

Other PG Exam Question Papers

GATE Questions

  • 1.
    If HIDE and CAGE are coded as 19-23-7-11 and 5-2-17-11 respectively, then what is the code for HIGH?

      • 5-17-1-2
      • 17-19-13-17
      • 13-3-1-2
      • 19-23-17-19

    • 2.

      Consider two identical tanks with a bottom hole of diameter \( d \). One tank is filled with water and the other tank is filled with engine oil. The height of the fluid column \( h \) is the same in both cases. The fluid exit velocity in the two tanks are \( V_1 \) and \( V_2 \). Neglecting all losses, which one of the following options is correct?


       

        • \( V_2>V_1 \)
        • \( V_2 = V_1 \)
        • \( V_2<V_1 \)
        • Insufficient data to definitively conclude the relationship between \( V_1 \) and \( V_2 \)

      • 3.
        Which one of the following options has the correct sequence of objects arranged in the increasing number of mirror lines (lines of symmetry)?

          • Circle; Square; Equilateral triangle; Isosceles triangle
          • Isosceles triangle; Equilateral triangle; Square; Circle
          • Equilateral triangle; Isosceles triangle; Square; Circle
          • Isosceles triangle; Square; Equilateral triangle; Circle

        • 4.

          Fish : Shoal :: Lion : _________
          Select the correct option to complete the analogy.

            • Pride
            • School
            • Forest
            • Series

          • 5.

            A heat pump, operating in reversed Carnot cycle, maintains a steady air temperature of 300 K inside an auditorium. The heat pump receives heat from the ambient air. The ambient air temperature is 280 K. Heat loss from the auditorium is 15 kW. The power consumption of the heat pump is _________ kW (rounded off to 2 decimal places).


              • 6.

                A company uses 3000 units of a part annually. The units are priced as given in the table below. It costs ₹150 to place an order. Carrying costs are 40 percent of the purchase price per unit on an annual basis. The minimum total annual cost is ₹ _________ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).


                 

                  Fees Structure

                  Structure based on different categories

                  CategoriesState
                  General1800
                  Women900
                  sc900
                  pwd900

                  Note: GATE 2024 Application Fee needs to be paid online through net banking or debit card or credit card facilities. Additional charges will be applicable as per the rule of the bank from where the money is being transferred. This charge will be specified on the payment portal.

                  In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

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