GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences- Philosophy Question Paper PDF- Download Here

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Sep 20, 2025

GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences Philosophy Question Paper PDF is available here for download. IIT Kanpur conducted GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences exam on February 5, 2023 in the Forenoon Session from 09:30 AM to 12:30 PM. Students have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences Philosophy Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Core Discipline.

GATE 2023 Humanities & Social Sciences Philosophy Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Question 1:

Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”

The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:

Rafi told Mary that he ______ of watching a film that weekend.

  • (A) thought
  • (B) is thinking
  • (C) am thinking
  • (D) was thinking
Correct Answer: (D) was thinking
View Solution



Goal: Convert the direct speech to reported (indirect) speech with correct tense, pronoun, and time expression.


Step 1: Identify the reporting verb and decide on backshift

Reporting clause: Rafi told Mary.

The reporting verb told is in the simple past. For ordinary statements (not universal truths), English backshifts the tense of what was said.

Present Continuous \(\Rightarrow\) Past Continuous.


Step 2: Map pronouns and deictic (time) words

Speaker in quotes = Rafi; therefore “I” \(\Rightarrow\) “he”.

“This weekend” is deictic (relative to the moment of speaking) \(\Rightarrow\) “that weekend” in reported speech.


Step 3: Apply tense conversion

Direct: am thinking (Present Continuous) \(\Rightarrow\) Past Continuous was thinking.


Step 4: Assemble the indirect sentence

Use the conjunction “that” (optional but standard in exams), remove quotation marks, keep the prepositional phrase “of watching a film”:
\[ \boxed{Rafi told Mary that he was thinking of watching a film that weekend.} \]

Step 5: Eliminate distractors

(A) thought = Simple Past (loses the “continuous/ongoing” meaning) \(\Rightarrow\) incorrect.

(B) is thinking keeps Present Continuous (no backshift) \(\Rightarrow\) incorrect with a past reporting verb.

(C) am thinking wrong pronoun and tense (“am” with “he” is ungrammatical) \(\Rightarrow\) incorrect.
Quick Tip: Reported speech checklist: (1) backshift tense if the reporting verb is past; (2) change pronouns from speaker’s point of view; (3) shift time/place words (this} \(\Rightarrow\) that}, now} \(\Rightarrow\) then}, here} \(\Rightarrow\) there}); (4) remove quotes and use “that”.


Question 2:

Permit : ______ :: Enforce : Relax (By word meaning)

  • (A) Allow
  • (B) Forbid
  • (C) License
  • (D) Reinforce
Correct Answer: (B) Forbid
View Solution



Understanding the analogy format

“A : B :: C : D” means “A is to B as C is to D” — the relationship between the first pair must match the relationship between the second.

Here, Enforce : Relax are antonyms (opposites): to enforce is to compel; to relax is to make less strict.


Step 1: Determine the needed relation for the first pair

We must choose a word so that Permit : ( ? ) forms an antonym pair, mirroring Enforce : Relax.


Step 2: Evaluate each option against “permit”

(A) Allow — near-synonym of permit (same meaning), not an antonym \(\Rightarrow\) reject.

(B) Forbid — direct antonym of permit (permit = allow; forbid = prohibit) \(\Rightarrow\) fits.

(C) License — also a synonym/closely related (to grant permission) \(\Rightarrow\) reject.

(D) Reinforce — means strengthen/support; not the opposite of permit, and pairs conceptually with enforce rather than relax \(\Rightarrow\) reject.


Step 3: State the completed analogy
\[ \boxed{Permit : Forbid :: Enforce : Relax} \] Quick Tip: In analogy questions, first identify the relation in the given pair (synonym, antonym, degree, cause–effect, part–whole, etc.). Then enforce the same} relation on the missing pair. Watch for distractors that are synonyms when you need antonyms (or vice versa).


Question 3:

Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the second roll?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{36}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{5}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\dfrac{1}{36}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify sample space per roll.

A fair die has 6 equally likely outcomes, so for any specified face \(k\in\{1,\dots,6\}\), \(P(roll=k)=\dfrac{1}{6}\).


Step 2: Compute each required single-roll probability.
\(P(first roll = 1)=\dfrac{1}{6}\), \(P(second roll = 4)=\dfrac{1}{6}\).


Step 3: Use independence of successive rolls.

The two rolls are independent, so the joint probability equals the product:
\[ P(first=1 \ AND\ second=4)=\frac{1}{6}\times\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{36}. \]
\[ \boxed{\dfrac{1}{36}} \] Quick Tip: For multiple independent events, multiply individual probabilities for “AND” questions. If it had been “OR”, use addition with inclusion–exclusion.


Question 4:

A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop using tobacco.

Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?

  • (A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an attempt to do so.
  • (B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not attempt to do so.
  • (C) Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.
  • (D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Key facts from the passage.

65% of tobacco users were advised to stop.
30% (3 out of 10) attempted to stop using tobacco.


Step 2: Eliminate impossible options.

(C) and (D) both talk about successful quitting, but the passage only mentions attempts, not success. So (C) and (D) cannot be inferred.
(A) claims that a majority of those advised attempted to stop. But overall only 30% of users attempted, which is less than half of the total users, and certainly less than the 65% who were advised. So it is impossible that a majority of the advised group attempted to stop.


Step 3: Verify option (B).
If 65% were advised and only 30% attempted overall, then even if all attempts came from the advised group, at most \(30%\) of total users attempted compared to \(65%\) advised. Thus, less than half of the advised group attempted, meaning a majority did not.
\[ \Rightarrow \boxed{B\ is the only logically certain inference.} \] Quick Tip: Always distinguish between “advised,” “attempted,” and “succeeded.” If the data gives only attempts, we cannot conclude anything about success. Use proportions carefully to test majority vs. minority.


Question 5:

How many triangles are present in the given figure?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 24
Correct Answer: (D) 24
View Solution



By systematically counting unit triangles, combinations of two unit triangles, and larger spanning triangles, we obtain: \[ 12 \ (small) + 6 \ (within-panel larger) + 4 \ (across-panel) + 2 \ (largest on each side) = 24. \]
Thus, the figure contains exactly \(\boxed{24}\) triangles. Quick Tip: Always count in layers: (i) smallest units, (ii) combinations, (iii) spanning shapes. This avoids double counting in figure puzzles.


Question 6:

How many triangles are present in the given figure?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 24
Correct Answer: (D) 24
View Solution



Step 1: Decompose into panels.

Two nearly-vertical segments split the slanted outer quadrilateral into three slanted panels. Two oblique lines traverse all panels. Intersections of \{top, bottom\ with the \{two obliques\ and the \{two verticals\ create repeatable triangular cells.


Step 2: Count unit triangles (smallest).

Each panel cut by the two obliques contains four unit triangles (two up, two down). Therefore \[ N_{unit}=3\times 4=12. \]


Step 3: Count size–2 triangles within a panel.

In each panel, pairs of adjacent unit triangles along an oblique combine to form two larger triangles (one up, one down). Hence \[ N_{size-2, within}=3\times 2=6. \]


Step 4: Count size–2 triangles across panel boundaries.

Across each of the two vertical boundaries, a unit triangle from the left panel can pair with its touching unit from the right panel (both orientations). Thus \[ N_{size-2, across}=2\times 2=4. \]


Step 5: Count the largest spanning triangles.

Using full panel height with both obliques we obtain four additional distinct large triangles (two on the left half, two on the right half): \[ N_{largest}=4. \]


Step 6: Sum without double counting (disjoint constructions).
\[ N_{\triangle}=12+6+4+4=\boxed{24}. \] Quick Tip: Avoid double counting by (i) fixing a scale (unit, 2-unit, spanning) and (ii) counting panel-wise. Alternatively, enumerate by apex: list all triangles from each allowed vertex, then move to the next.


Question 7:

Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. By the due date, none} of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the registration process. Which set(s) of statements can be inferred with certainty?

(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.

(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to complete the registration process within the due time.

(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the Department of Human Sciences.

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (i) and (iii)
  • (C) only (i)
  • (D) only (iii)
Correct Answer: (D) only (iii)
View Solution



Given rule: Eligible voters \(\Rightarrow\) completed registration.

New fact: No Human Sciences (HS) student completed registration by the due date.


Test (iii).

If eligibility requires completion, and HS has zero completers, then no HS student can be eligible. Hence any eligible voter must come from a non-HS department. Statement (iii) is certainly true.


Test (i).

(i) claims: “All ineligible students are certainly HS.” But it is possible that some non-HS students also failed to complete registration and are therefore ineligible. The premise does not say all non-HS students completed. Thus (i) is not certain (could be false).


Test (ii).

(ii) claims: “No non-HS student failed to complete.” This would mean every non-HS student completed. The premises do not guarantee this; some non-HS students might also have missed the deadline. Hence (ii) is not certain.

\[ \boxed{Only (iii) follows with certainty \Rightarrow Option (D).} \] Quick Tip: In inference questions, separate necessary} from sufficient} conditions. Here, “completed registration \(\Rightarrow\) eligible” does not} imply the converse, and saying “none from HS completed” rules out HS from the eligible set but tells you nothing definite about completion in other departments.


Question 8:

Which one of the following options represents the given graph?

  • (A) \(f(x)=x^2\,2^{-|x|}\)
  • (B) \(f(x)=x\,2^{-|x|}\)
  • (C) \(f(x)=|x|\,2^{-x}\)
  • (D) \(f(x)=x\,2^{-x}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(f(x)=x\,2^{-|x|}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Symmetry check.
The graph is odd, since it is symmetric with a sign change across the origin (\(f(-x)=-f(x)\)). This immediately eliminates (A) and (C), as both always yield non-negative values.


Step 2: Behavior for \(x>0\).
For option (B): \(f(x)=x\,2^{-x}\) for \(x>0\). As \(x\to\infty\), \(2^{-x}\to0\), so \(f(x)\to0^+\). There is a positive maximum near \(x=1/\ln2\approx1.44\), consistent with the positive hump in the graph.


Step 3: Behavior for \(x<0\).
For option (B): \(f(x)=x\,2^{x}\) for \(x<0\). As \(x\to-\infty\), \(2^{x}\to0\), hence \(f(x)\to0^-\). There is a negative minimum near \(x=-1/\ln2\approx-1.44\), consistent with the graph’s left-side dip.


Step 4: Eliminate (D).
Option (D), \(f(x)=x\,2^{-x}\), works fine for \(x>0\) but for \(x<0\), it diverges to \(-\infty\) instead of tending to \(0^-\), which does not match the graph.
\[ \boxed{Hence the correct function is (B) only.} \] Quick Tip: To identify the correct function from a graph: always check symmetry, asymptotic behavior at \(\pm \infty\), and positions of maxima/minima. These eliminate wrong options quickly.


Question 9:

Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?

Passage:
We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that machine unable to quench its initial command (to grow) and thus transform into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.

  • (A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.
  • (B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.
  • (C) Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often imagined as a machine.
  • (D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe or explain anything.
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the key idea of the passage.

The author emphasizes that cancer is understood in modern times through metaphors — particularly, cancer is likened to a machine. Modern cell biology encourages us to use figurative language and imagine the cell as a "molecular machine".


Step 2: Check each option.

- (A) Correctly follows. The passage explains why cancer seems modern, because the metaphors applied to it are modern.
- (B) Correctly follows. The passage explicitly says modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.
- (C) Correctly follows. The passage literally uses the metaphor of a cell as a molecular machine, showing cancer as an automaton.
- (D) Does not follow. The passage repeatedly states that modern cell biology does use metaphors (machine analogy). Saying it "never uses figurative language" is the exact opposite of the passage’s meaning.

\[ \boxed{The statement that does NOT follow is (D).} \] Quick Tip: When tackling comprehension questions, look for absolute words like “never” or “always.” They often signal the incorrect option when the passage gives examples to the contrary.


Question 10:

The digit in the unit’s place of the product \(3^{999}\times 7^{1000}\) is ______.

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 9
Correct Answer: (A) 7
View Solution



Step 1: Units digit cycle of \(3^n\).

The units digit of \(3^n\) repeats in a cycle of \(4\): \(3,9,7,1\).
Since \(999 \bmod 4 = 3\), we have \(3^{999}\) ending with the same digit as \(3^3=27\).
Thus, \(3^{999}\) ends with 7.

Step 2: Units digit cycle of \(7^n\).

The units digit of \(7^n\) repeats in a cycle of \(4\): \(7,9,3,1\).
Since \(1000 \bmod 4 = 0\), we have \(7^{1000}\) ending with the same digit as \(7^4=2401\).
Thus, \(7^{1000}\) ends with 1.

Step 3: Multiply units digits.
\[ 7 \times 1 = 7 \]
So, the final units digit of \(3^{999}\times 7^{1000}\) is 7.
\[ \boxed{7} \] Quick Tip: Always check repeating cycles of units digits (mod 10). Both \(3\) and \(7\) have cycles of length 4. Reducing exponents mod 4 gives the correct digit quickly.


Question 11:

A square with sides of length \(6\,cm\) is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown. The area of the shaded region is ______ \(cm^2\).

  • (A) \(6\pi\)
  • (B) \(18\)
  • (C) \(20\)
  • (D) \(9\pi\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(18\)
View Solution



Setup.

Let the square be \([0,6]\times[0,6]\). The two semi-circles have radius \(r=3\) with centers at \((0,3)\) (left side) and \((3,0)\) (bottom side). Their full circles are \[ C_1:\ x^2+(y-3)^2=9,\qquad C_2:\ (x-3)^2+y^2=9. \]
The shaded region consists of the parts of these semi-circles excluding their common lens (the lens is white in the figure).


Step 1: Area of the two semi-circles.

Each semi-circle area \(=\tfrac12\pi r^2=\tfrac12\pi(3^2)=\tfrac{9\pi}{2}\).
Sum of two semi-circles: \[ A_{semi-sum}=\frac{9\pi}{2}+\frac{9\pi}{2}=9\pi. \]


Step 2: Area of their overlap (circular lens).

Distance between centers: \[ d=\sqrt{(3-0)^2+(0-3)^2}=3\sqrt{2}. \]
For two equal circles of radius \(r\) and separation \(d\), the overlap area is \[ A_{\cap}=2r^2\cos^{-1}\!\left(\frac{d}{2r}\right)-\frac{d}{2}\sqrt{4r^2-d^2}. \]
Here \(r=3,\ d=3\sqrt{2}\Rightarrow \frac{d}{2r}=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\), so \(\cos^{-1}(\sqrt{2}/2)=\frac{\pi}{4}\). Thus \[ A_{\cap}=2(3^2)\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)-\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{2}\sqrt{36-18} = \frac{18\pi}{4}-\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{2}\cdot 3\sqrt{2} = \frac{9\pi}{2}-9. \]


Step 3: Shaded area (union minus the lens twice).

The shaded part is the two semi-circles with the overlap removed from both, i.e. \[ A_{shaded} = A_{semi-sum} - 2A_{\cap} = 9\pi - 2\!\left(\frac{9\pi}{2}-9\right) = 9\pi - 9\pi + 18 = \boxed{18\ cm^2}. \] Quick Tip: When two equal circles overlap, remember the lens formula \(A_{\cap}=2r^2\cos^{-1}\!\left(\tfrac{d}{2r}\right)-\tfrac{d}{2}\sqrt{4r^2-d^2}\). For “two semi-circles on perpendicular sides”, the centers are \(d=r\sqrt{2}\) apart and the lens simplifies to \(\frac{9\pi}{2}-9\) for \(r=3\).


Question 12:

Which word below best describes the idea of being both Spineless} and Cowardly}?

  • (A) Pusillanimous
  • (B) Unctuous
  • (C) Obsequious
  • (D) Reticent
Correct Answer: (A) \textbf{Pusillanimous}
View Solution



Step 1: Meaning of “spineless” and “cowardly”

- Spineless = lacking courage, weak-willed.

- Cowardly = showing lack of bravery.


Step 2: Check each option

(A) Pusillanimous — literally means “lacking courage,” “cowardly,” “timid.” This directly matches the given clue.

(B) Unctuous — overly flattering, insincere (nothing to do with cowardice).

(C) Obsequious — excessively submissive, sycophantic (close in tone but not exactly cowardly).

(D) Reticent — reserved, silent, not willing to speak (again not cowardly).


Thus, the only correct match is Pusillanimous.

\[ \boxed{Pusillanimous = Spineless + Cowardly} \] Quick Tip: The word pusillanimous} comes from Latin roots: “pusillus” (very small) + “animus” (spirit), literally “small-spirited.” Perfect synonym for cowardly.


Question 13:

Choose the right preposition to fill up the blank:
The whole family got together ___ Diwali

  • (A) of
  • (B) at
  • (C) in
  • (D) till
Correct Answer: (B) \textbf{at}
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the sentence

“The whole family got together ___ Diwali” means the reunion happened on the occasion of Diwali. We must use the preposition that fits events/festivals.


Step 2: Evaluate options

(A) of Diwali — incorrect usage, not idiomatic in English.

(B) at Diwali — correct idiom. We say “at Christmas,” “at Diwali,” “at Easter,” etc., to refer to festive occasions.

(C) in Diwali — unnatural; “in” is used for months/years (“in October,” “in 2022”), not for festivals.

(D) till Diwali — means “up to Diwali,” changes the meaning of the sentence completely.

\[ \boxed{The whole family got together at Diwali.} \] Quick Tip: Remember: “at” is the standard preposition used for festivals and specific occasions (at Diwali, at Christmas, at the party).


Question 14:

Select the correct option to fill in all the blanks to complete the passage:

The (i)______ factor amid this turbulence has been the (ii)______ of high-octane, action-oriented films such as RRR, K.G.F: Chapter 2 and Pushpa from film industries in the south of the country. Traditionally, films made in the south have done well in their own (iii)______. But increasingly, their dubbed versions have performed well in the Hindi heartland, with collections (iv)______ those of their Bollywood counterparts.

  • (A) (i) disheartening (ii) failure (iii) channels (iv) matching
  • (B) (i) redeeming (ii) outperformance (iii) geographies (iv) eclipsing
  • (C) (i) shocking (ii) underperformance (iii) cinemas (iv) below
  • (D) (i) humbling (ii) bombing (iii) theatres (iv) falling behind
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze blank (i).

The context says: “Amid this turbulence, there is a factor that stands out positively.” The word “redeeming” fits perfectly as it indicates something positive in an otherwise negative situation.

Step 2: Analyze blank (ii).

The sentence mentions films like RRR, KGF 2, and Pushpa, which were very successful. Hence, “outperformance” is the most suitable choice.

Step 3: Analyze blank (iii).

Traditionally, South Indian films have done well in their own “geographies” (regions). Words like “channels” or “theatres” do not convey regional success. Thus, “geographies” fits best.

Step 4: Analyze blank (iv).

The dubbed versions in Hindi are so successful that their collections are “eclipsing” (surpassing) those of Bollywood counterparts.

Step 5: Eliminate other options.

- (A): “disheartening failure” is opposite in meaning.
- (C): “underperformance” contradicts the idea of success.
- (D): “bombing” and “falling behind” are negative, unsuitable here.

Thus, all four blanks align only with option (B).
\[ \boxed{(B) redeeming, outperformance, geographies, eclipsing} \] Quick Tip: In passage completion, always check tone and context. Positive words align with success stories, while negative words contradict them. Elimination of mismatched tone helps reach the correct answer.


Question 15:

The following passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by 2, 3, 4, and 5) are jumbled up.

Choose the correct sequence of the sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

1. Most obviously, mobility is taken to be a geographical as well as a social phenomenon.

2. Much of the social mobility literature regarded society as a uniform surface and failed to register the geographical intersections of region, city and place, with the social categories of class, gender and ethnicity.

3. The existing sociology of migration is incidentally far too limited in its concerns to be very useful here.

4. Further, I am concerned with the flows of people within, but especially beyond, the territory of each society, and how these flows may relate to many different desires, for work, housing, leisure, religion, family relationships, criminal gain, asylum seeking and so on.

5. Moreover, not only people are mobile but so too are many ‘objects’.

6. I show that sociology’s recent development of a ‘sociology of objects’ needs to be taken further and that the diverse flows of objects across societal borders and their intersections with the multiple flows of people are hugely significant.

  • (A) 3, 2, 5, 4
  • (B) 2, 3, 4, 5
  • (C) 5, 4, 3, 2
  • (D) 4, 2, 5, 3
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Sentence 1 introduces the theme.
“Mobility” is both geographical and social. So the next sentence must expand on how traditional social mobility studies treated society — this is sentence 2.

Step 2: Logical follow-up.
After criticizing the older literature in (2), the author notes that even migration sociology is limited. This is sentence 3.

Step 3: Expanding concern.
Then comes sentence 4, which broadens the scope to flows of people beyond societies (work, asylum, etc.).

Step 4: Transition to objects.
Sentence 5 logically introduces the idea that not only people but also objects are mobile, which prepares the ground for sentence 6.

Step 5: Conclusion.
Sentence 6 then emphasizes the “sociology of objects” and their intersection with people’s flows, completing the passage.
\[ Final sequence: 1 \; \to \; 2 \; \to \; 3 \; \to \; 4 \; \to \; 5 \; \to \; 6 \]

Thus, the correct option is (B) 2, 3, 4, 5. Quick Tip: For jumbled paragraph questions, track the logical flow: - Introductory idea \(\to\) critique of past work \(\to\) elaboration \(\to\) expansion \(\to\) transition \(\to\) conclusion. Checking coherence across transitions ensures the correct sequence.


Question 16:

The population of a country increased by 5% from 2020 to 2021. Then, the population decreased by 5% from 2021 to 2022. By what percentage did the population change from 2020 to 2022?

  • (A) -0.25%
  • (B) 0%
  • (C) 2.5%
  • (D) 10.25%
Correct Answer: (A) -0.25%
View Solution



Step 1: Assume initial population in 2020.

Let the population in 2020 be \(P = 100\).


Step 2: Population in 2021 after 5% increase.
\[ P_{2021} = 100 \times (1 + 0.05) = 105 \]


Step 3: Population in 2022 after 5% decrease.
\[ P_{2022} = 105 \times (1 - 0.05) = 105 \times 0.95 = 99.75 \]


Step 4: Net percentage change from 2020 to 2022.
\[ %\ \Delta P = \frac{99.75 - 100}{100} \times 100 = -0.25% \]

\[ \boxed{-0.25%} \] Quick Tip: Remember that a 5% increase followed by a 5% decrease does not cancel out — it produces a slight net decrease because percentages apply to different bases.


Question 17:

The words Thin: Slim: Slender are related in some way. Identify the correct option(s) that reflect(s) the same relationship:

  • (A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous
  • (B) Short: Small: Petite
  • (C) Tall: Taller: Tallest
  • (D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish
Correct Answer: (A) and (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the given set.

Thin, Slim, and Slender are not degree words (like positive–comparative–superlative). Instead, they are near-synonyms with subtle differences in nuance, all pointing to leanness.


Step 2: Check each option.

(A) Fat: Plump: Voluptuous — all related to fullness/heaviness, close in meaning, with nuanced connotations. Correct analogy.

(B) Short: Small: Petite — all linked to small size/dimension, again nuanced synonyms. Correct analogy.

(C) Tall: Taller: Tallest — this is a degree sequence (positive, comparative, superlative), not a synonym group. Not analogous.

(D) Fair: Dark: Wheatish — these are contrasting/opposite skin tones, not synonyms. Not analogous.


\[ \boxed{Correct options: (A) and (B)} \] Quick Tip: When solving synonym-based analogy questions, look for words that belong to the same “semantic field” with subtle shades of meaning, not words showing comparison or opposites.


Question 18:

A pandemic like situation hit the country last year, resulting in loss of human life and economic depression. To improve the condition of its citizens, the government made a series of emergency medical interventions and increased spending to revive the economy. In both these efforts, district administration authorities were actively involved.

Which of the following action(s) are plausible?

  • (A) In future, the government can make district administration authorities responsible for protecting health of citizens and reviving the economy.
  • (B) The government may set up a task force to review the post pandemic situation and ascertain the effectiveness of the measures taken.
  • (C) The government may set up a committee to formulate a pandemic management program to minimize losses to life and economy in future.
  • (D) The government may take population control measures to minimize pandemic related losses in future.
Correct Answer: (B) and (C)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze option (A).
This option suggests assigning permanent responsibility for both healthcare and economy revival to district administrations. While they were actively involved during the crisis, giving them permanent responsibility for all such matters may not be realistic. Such roles are usually coordinated at state/national levels. Hence, (A) is not strongly plausible.


Step 2: Analyze option (B).
A task force to review the post-pandemic measures is both logical and practical. Governments commonly review their response to crises to learn lessons, improve systems, and understand effectiveness. Thus, (B) is highly plausible.


Step 3: Analyze option (C).
A committee to create a future pandemic management program is also very reasonable. Planning ahead by learning from past experiences minimizes losses in life and economy for future emergencies. Hence, (C) is also plausible.


Step 4: Analyze option (D).
Population control as a solution to pandemics is neither directly relevant nor scientifically valid, since pandemics are driven by disease transmission and preparedness, not population size alone. Therefore, (D) is implausible.
\[ \boxed{Thus, the plausible actions are (B) and (C).} \] Quick Tip: In decision-making questions, focus on actions that are logical, realistic, and directly related to the problem. Avoid extreme or unrelated measures like population control for pandemics.


Question 19:

Six students, Arif (Ar), Balwinder (Bw), Chintu (Ct), David (Dv), Emon (Em) and Fulmoni (Fu) appeared in GATE–XH (2022).
Bw scores less than Ct in XH–B1, but more than Ar in XH–C1.
Dv scores more than Bw in XH–C1, and more than Ct in XH–B1.
Em scores less than Dv, but more than Fu in XH–B1.
Fu scores more than Dv in XH–C1.
Ar scores less than Em, but more than Fu in XH–B1.
Who scores highest in XH–B1?

  • (A) Fulmoni
  • (B) Emon
  • (C) David
  • (D) Chintu
Correct Answer: (C) David
View Solution



Step 1: Collect XH–B1 inequalities.

From the statements for paper B1: \[ \begin{aligned} (i)\ &Bw < Ct
(ii)\ &Dv > Ct
(iii)\ &Em < Dv, Em > Fu
(iv)\ &Ar < Em, Ar > Fu \end{aligned} \]

Step 2: Chain what we can.

From (iv) and (iii): \(Fu < Ar < Em < Dv\).
From (ii): \(Ct < Dv\).
From (i) and (ii): \(Bw < Ct < Dv\).

Step 3: Decide the topper in B1.

Every candidate is strictly below Dv:
- \(Ct < Dv\) (given), hence \(Bw < Ct < Dv\).

- \(Em < Dv\) (given), and \(Ar < Em\), \(Fu < Ar\).
Therefore, \(\boxed{Dv is the highest in XH–B1}\). Quick Tip: In order-comparison puzzles, segregate constraints by category (here, by paper B1 vs C1), write only the relevant inequalities, then build a single chain. A strict “\(>\)” link from the topper to each} other candidate certifies the topper.


Question 20:

Select the correct relation between \(E\) and \(F\). \(E=\dfrac{x}{1+x}\) \; and \; \(F=\dfrac{-x}{\,1-x\,}\), \; with \(x>1\).

  • (A) \(E>F\)
  • (B) \(E
  • (C) \(E=F\)
  • (D) \(E<-F\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(EView Solution

Question 21:

A code language is formulated thus:

Vowels in the original word are replaced by the next vowel from the list of vowels, A-E-I-O-U (For example, E is replaced by I and U is replaced by A). Consonants in the original word are replaced by the previous consonant (For example, T is replaced by S and V is replaced by T).

Then how does the word, GOODMORNING appear in the coded language?

  • (A) HUUFNUSPOPH
  • (B) FIICLIQMEMF
  • (C) FUUCLUQMOMF
  • (D) HEEDATTACRH
Correct Answer: (C) FUUCLUQMOMF
View Solution



Let us break down the word GOODMORNING and apply the rules:


1. Vowels rule:

- O is replaced by U (the next vowel).

- O is replaced by U (the next vowel).

- O is replaced by U (the next vowel).

- I is replaced by O (the next vowel).

- I is replaced by O (the next vowel).


2. Consonants rule:

- G is replaced by F (the previous consonant).

- D is replaced by C (the previous consonant).

- M remains M (no previous consonant before M in the alphabet).

- R is replaced by Q (the previous consonant).

- N is replaced by M (the previous consonant).

- N is replaced by M (the previous consonant).

- G is replaced by F (the previous consonant).


Thus, the coded word for GOODMORNING is FUUCLUQMOMF.
Quick Tip: When decoding or encoding based on letter substitutions, break down each character and apply the transformation rules step by step. Keep track of vowels and consonants separately for accuracy.


Question 22:

The stranger is by nature no "owner of soil" -- soil not only in the physical, but also in the figurative sense of a life-substance, which is fixed, if not in a point in space, at least in an ideal point of the social environment. Although in more intimate relations, he may develop all kinds of charm and significance, as long as he is considered a stranger in the eyes of the other, he is not an "owner of soil." Restriction to intermediary trade, and often (as though sublimated from it) to pure finance, gives him the specific character of mobility. If mobility takes place within a closed group, it embodies that synthesis of nearness and distance which constitutes the formal position of the stranger. For, the fundamentally mobile person comes in contact, at one time or another, with every individual, but is not organically connected, through established ties of kinship, locality, and occupation, with any single one.

What assumptions can be made about the stranger from the passage above?

  • (A) The stranger can become an owner of soil through developing all kinds of charm in more intimate relations.
  • (B) The stranger cannot become an owner of soil either in the physical or psychological sense.
  • (C) The stranger can become an owner of soil through establishing ties of kinship and so on.
  • (D) The stranger might become an owner of soil in the physical sense but not in the psychological.
Correct Answer: (B) and (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the central idea of the passage

The stranger is described as fundamentally “not an owner of soil.” This metaphor of soil applies both in the physical sense (ownership of land or fixed place) and in the psychological/social sense (fixed, organic ties in a community). The stranger is defined by mobility and lack of rooted connection.

Step 2: Examine each option

(A) Incorrect. Although the stranger may develop charm and significance, the passage clearly says this does not make him an “owner of soil.” Personal charm does not remove the condition of strangeness.


(B) Correct. The stranger, by definition, “is not an owner of soil” in either sense — physical or psychological. This matches the core statement of the passage.


(C) Incorrect. Establishing ties of kinship, locality, or occupation would contradict the very definition of the stranger, who is never “organically connected” with such ties.


(D) Correct. The passage allows a subtle interpretation: physically, one could own soil (in the sense of land), but psychologically/socially, the stranger remains a stranger, not organically tied. Hence, this option also aligns with the text.


Step 3: Final Answer

Both (B) and (D) are consistent with the description in the passage.
\[ \boxed{Correct Assumptions: (B) and (D)} \] Quick Tip: In comprehension passages, carefully distinguish between literal (physical) and figurative (psychological/social) meanings. The “stranger” here is defined by lack of organic ties, regardless of charm or interaction.


Question 23:

L is the only son of A and S. S has one sibling, B, who is married to L’s aunt, K. B is the only son of D. How are L and D related? Select the possible option(s):

  • (A) Grandchild and Paternal Grandfather
  • (B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather
  • (C) Grandchild and Paternal Grandmother
  • (D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother
Correct Answer: (B) and (D) \;[Both are possible]
View Solution



Step 1: Decode the family links.

L is the only son of parents A and S \(\Rightarrow\) L is male; A and S are L’s parents (genders not yet known).

S has one sibling, B.

B is married to L’s aunt K. If K were S’s sister, B (S’s sibling) would be marrying his own sister — impossible. Hence K is A’s sister (paternal aunt of L). Therefore, B is S’s only sibling and A’s brother-in-law.


Step 2: Use “B is the only son of D”.

Since S and B are siblings and B is the only son of D, it follows that:
- B is male,
- S cannot be male (otherwise D would have at least two sons, contradicting “only son”).

Therefore, S is female \(\Rightarrow\) S is L’s mother. Consequently, D is a parent of S, i.e., D is L’s maternal grandparent.


Step 3: Determine which options fit.

From Step 2, the relationship between L and D is always “grandchild \(\leftrightarrow\) maternal grandparent”. The question does not specify D’s gender. Hence both of the following are possible and consistent with the data: \[ (B) Grandchild and Maternal Grandfather, (D) Grandchild and Maternal Grandmother. \]

Why not paternal?

If D were on the paternal side, D would be a parent of A. But D is explicitly the parent of B, who is S’s only sibling; thus D is on S’s side, not A’s. So (A) and (C) are impossible.
Quick Tip: When you see “only son/daughter,” use it to fix genders and sides of the family. Here “B is the only son of D” forces S to be female, putting D on the maternal side.


Question 24:

The following segments of a sentence are given in jumbled order. The first and last segments (1 and 5) are in their correct positions, while the middle three segments (represented by 2, 3, and 4) are jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the segments so that they form a coherent sentence:

1. Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me

2. and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center,

3. clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my
talisman, my open-sesame,

4. I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which
it really began,

5. some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clockridden, crime-stained birth.

  • (A) 2 – 3 – 4
  • (B) 3 – 2 – 4
  • (C) 4 – 2 – 3
  • (D) 4 – 3 – 2
Correct Answer: (A) 2 – 3 – 4
View Solution



The first segment of the sentence is:
1. Consumed multitudes are jostling and shoving inside me.

This implies that the subject is in a crowded or chaotic state.


The last segment of the sentence is:
5. some thirty-two years before anything as obvious, as present, as my clock-ridden, crime-stained birth.

This indicates a time reference, looking back at an event (birth) that occurred thirty-two years ago.
\

Now, we need to arrange segments 2, 3, and 4 to form a coherent thought.

Segment 2: and guided only by the memory of a large white bedsheet with a roughly circular hole some seven inches in diameter cut into the center.
\
Segment 3: clutching at the dream of that holey, mutilated square of linen, which is my talisman, my open-sesame.

Segment 4: I must commence the business of remaking my life from the point at which it really began.


Clearly, segment 2 introduces the guiding memory, and segment 3 further explains it as a "talisman" and "open-sesame," meaning it is a key to the story. Finally, segment 4 follows logically by talking about starting the process of remaking life from this point.


Thus, the correct order of the middle segments is: \[ \boxed{2 - 3 - 4} \] Quick Tip: When dealing with jumbled sentence questions, focus on connecting the subject and the action first, and then find logical transitions that fit the time or context (here, the reference to time in the last segment).


Question 25:

“I told you the truth,” I say yet again, “Memory’s truth, because memory has its own special kind. It selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, and vilifies also; but in the end it creates its own reality, its heterogeneous but usually coherent versions of events; and no sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own.”

What are the different ways in which ‘truth’ can be understood from the passage?

  • (A) Truth is what can be verified by hard empirical evidence.
  • (B) Truth is based on what can be perceived by the senses.
  • (C) Truth is the product of memory that is fallible, selective and slanted.
  • (D) Truth is contingent on the observer and can only be partial.
Correct Answer: (C) and (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Extract claims about “memory’s truth.”

The passage stresses that memory selects, eliminates, alters, exaggerates, minimizes, glorifies, vilifies and finally creates its own reality. This presents truth as constructed by memory and therefore fallible and slanted. \(\Rightarrow\) Matches (C).


Step 2: Observer–dependence.

“No sane human being ever trusts someone else’s version more than his own” implies truth varies with the observer and is thus contingent and partial. \(\Rightarrow\) Matches (D).


Step 3: Why (A) and (B) do not follow.

(A) \& (B) appeal to empiricism/sense verification, but the passage neither mentions empirical testing nor sensory verification as criteria of truth; it focuses on memory’s constructive, subjective nature. Hence they are not supported.

\[ \boxed{Therefore, (C) and (D) only.} \] Quick Tip: When a passage emphasizes selection, alteration, and “own versions,” look for options about constructed} and observer-dependent} truth, not empirical verification.


Question 26:

A firm needs both skilled labour and unskilled labour. Skilled wage = Rs. 40{,}000 per month; unskilled wage = Rs. 15{,}000 per month. The total wage bill for 100 labourers is Rs. 23{,}75{,}000 in a month. How many skilled labour are employed? (in Integer)}

Correct Answer: \(\boxed{35}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Define variables.

Let the number of skilled workers be \(x\). Then unskilled workers \(=100-x\).


Step 2: Set up wage equation.
\[ 40{,}000\,x + 15{,}000\,(100-x) \;=\; 23{,}75{,}000 \]


Step 3: Simplify and solve.
\[ 40{,}000x + 15{,}00{,}000 - 15{,}000x = 23{,}75{,}000 \Rightarrow 25{,}000x = 8{,}75{,}000 \] \[ x = \frac{8{,}75{,}000}{25{,}000} = 35 \]

\[ \boxed{Skilled labour employed = 35} \] Quick Tip: In mixture/wage problems, set one variable for one group, express the other as the complement (here \(100-x\)), and form a single linear cost equation to solve quickly.


Question 27:

Select the odd word and write the option number as answer:

  • (A) Lek
  • (B) Zloty
  • (C) Diner
  • (D) Drachma
  • (E) Real
Correct Answer: (C) Diner
View Solution



Identify the common category: Items (1), (2), (4), and (5) are all names of national currencies.


Lek — currency of Albania.

Zloty — currency of Poland.

Drachma — historical currency of Greece (pre-euro).

Real — currency of Brazil.


Contrast with option (3): Diner (spelled with an e) is not a currency; it is an English word meaning a person who dines or a type of casual restaurant. (A currency spelled Dinar would fit the pattern, but that is not what is written.)


Therefore, the only item not belonging to the currency category is (3) Diner.

\[ \boxed{Odd word: (3) Diner} \] Quick Tip: Watch for near-homophones or look-alike spellings in “odd one out” questions—Diner} vs.\ Dinar} changes the category completely.


Question 28:

In Sāṅkhya philosophy ‘mind’ (manas) is an evolute of _____.

  • (A) Prakṛti
  • (B) Puruṣa
  • (C) Three guṇas
  • (D) Puruṣa and Prakṛti
Correct Answer: (A) Prakṛti
View Solution



Step 1: Core of Sāṅkhya philosophy

Sāṅkhya is a dualistic school of Indian philosophy that posits two ultimate realities: Puruṣa (pure consciousness) and Prakṛti (primordial matter/nature).


Step 2: Evolutes of Prakṛti

According to Sāṅkhya, Prakṛti evolves into a hierarchy of tattvas (principles):
- First, Mahat (cosmic intelligence).

- From Mahat arises Ahaṅkāra (ego principle).

- From Ahaṅkāra arises Manas (mind), the five senses, five organs of action, and subtle elements.


Thus, manas is an evolute of Prakṛti, not of Puruṣa (which remains passive and uninvolved).
\[ \boxed{Correct Answer: (A) Prakṛti} \] Quick Tip: In Sāṅkhya: Puruṣa = witness (pure spirit), Prakṛti = active principle (produces mind, body, senses).


Question 29:

Which one of the following is the manifestation of the Absolute Spirit in Hegel’s Phenomenology of Spirit}?

  • (A) The devotion of a church congregation
  • (B) The knowledge of a natural scientist
  • (C) The self-transparency of a society of free individuals
  • (D) The mystical insight of an enlightened sage
Correct Answer: (C) The self-transparency of a society of free individuals
View Solution



Step 1: Hegel’s Absolute Spirit

In Hegel’s philosophy, Spirit (Geist) develops historically and dialectically, culminating in the Absolute Spirit. This Absolute Spirit manifests not merely in individuals, but in the collective, rational, and free life of humanity.


Step 2: Eliminate distractors

(A) Devotion of a church congregation — this belongs to the stage of Religion, not Absolute Spirit.

(B) Knowledge of a natural scientist — part of objective spirit (science, external world), not Absolute Spirit.

(D) Mystical insight of a sage — this reflects personal intuition, not the collective rational spirit Hegel envisions.


Step 3: Correct option

(C) The self-transparency of a society of free individuals — Hegel’s Absolute Spirit is realized in history when free individuals collectively recognize themselves in rational institutions, embodying universal freedom.
\[ \boxed{Correct Answer: (C)} \] Quick Tip: For Hegel, Absolute Spirit is not individual mysticism but the rational self-consciousness of society as a whole.


Question 30:

The Carvaka system accepts the following purusharthas:

  • (A) Artha and Kama
  • (B) Dharma, Kama and Moksha
  • (C) Moksha and Dharma
  • (D) Artha, Kama and Moksha
Correct Answer: (A) Artha and Kama
View Solution



Carvaka (Lokayata) is a materialist, hedonistic school in Indian philosophy. It rejects

Dharma (as transcendent duty grounded in scripture) and Moksha (liberation) as unverifiable metaphysical goals.

It upholds only worldly aims: Artha (material well-being) and Kama (pleasure).

Hence only option (A) matches the doctrine; (B), (C), (D) include aims Carvaka denies.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic: \textbf{Carvaka = A\&K only}: Artha + Kama; rejects Dharma and Moksha.


Question 31:

In Taittiriya Upanishad there is a discussion of five sheaths (pancha–kosa) in which the individual self is encased. Which one is the sheath (kosa) of knowledge and intelligence?

  • (A) Vijnanamaya–kosa
  • (B) Pranamaya–kosa
  • (C) Manomaya–kosa
  • (D) Anandamaya–kosa
Correct Answer: (A) Vijnanamaya–kosa
View Solution



The pancha–kosa hierarchy (from gross to subtle) in the Taittiriya Upanishad is:

Annamaya (food/physical) \(\rightarrow\) Pranamaya (vital breath) \(\rightarrow\) Manomaya (mind) \(\rightarrow\) Vijnanamaya (intellect/knowledge) \(\rightarrow\) Anandamaya (bliss).

Thus the sheath of knowledge, discrimination, and intellect is Vijnanamaya–kosa.

(B) is life-force; (C) is mind/thought; (D) is bliss — none of these denote the intellect layer.
Quick Tip: Think “\textbf{Vijnana = knowledge}.” So Vijnanamaya–kosa is the intelligence sheath.


Question 32:

According to Swami Vivekananda, ‘Universal Religion’ would consist in recognising that there are different ways of approaching the religious object. The watch-word} for universal religion is _______.

  • (A) Tolerance
  • (B) Acceptance
  • (C) Submission
  • (D) Adoration
Correct Answer: (B) Acceptance
View Solution



Step 1: Vivekananda’s vision of Universal Religion

Swami Vivekananda emphasized that true universal religion should not merely tolerate, but actively accept all religions as valid paths to the same truth.


Step 2: Distinction between tolerance and acceptance

- Tolerance means bearing with differences without interference, but still with a sense of “otherness.”

- Acceptance, on the other hand, implies full recognition of the validity of other faiths as equally true.


Step 3: Apply to the question

Hence, the watch-word of universal religion as per Vivekananda is not “tolerance,” but “acceptance.”
\[ \boxed{Correct Answer: (B) Acceptance} \] Quick Tip: Remember: Tolerance = passive, Acceptance = active recognition. Vivekananda always stressed the latter.


Question 33:

In his ‘The Concept of the Absolute and Its Alternative Forms’, K. C. Bhattacharyya says, “… consciousness is of three kinds – knowing, feeling and willing…” Which one of the following is the ‘absolute’ of ‘knowing’?

  • (A) Truth
  • (B) Beauty
  • (C) Goodness
  • (D) Bliss
Correct Answer: (A) Truth
View Solution



Step 1: K. C. Bhattacharyya’s framework

He explains that human consciousness manifests in three primary forms:
- Knowing → epistemic function

- Feeling → aesthetic-emotional function

- Willing → ethical-practical function


Step 2: Corresponding absolutes

- The absolute of knowing is Truth.

- The absolute of feeling is Beauty.

- The absolute of willing is Goodness.


Step 3: Apply to the question

Since the question asks about the “absolute” of “knowing,” the correct answer is Truth.
\[ \boxed{Correct Answer: (A) Truth} \] Quick Tip: Easy triad to remember: Knowing → Truth, Feeling → Beauty, Willing → Goodness.


Question 34:

Which one of the following is NOT considered a pramana by the Prabhakara Mimamsaka?

  • (A) Anupalabdhi (Non-apprehension)
  • (B) Anumana (Inference)
  • (C) Arthapatti (Postulation/Presumption)
  • (D) Upamana (Comparison/Analogy)
Correct Answer: (A) Anupalabdhi
View Solution



In Indian philosophy, a pramana is a means of valid knowledge. Different schools recognize different sets of pramanas.

The Prabhakara Mimamsakas accept five pramanas:

1. Pratyaksha (Perception)

2. Anumana (Inference)

3. Upamana (Comparison/Analogy)

4. Arthapatti (Postulation/Presumption)

5. Shabda (Verbal testimony)


They do not accept Anupalabdhi (non-apprehension) as a separate pramana. This is the main distinction between Prabhakaras and Kumarila’s Bhatta Mimamsa, which accepts six pramanas including Anupalabdhi.

\[ \boxed{Hence, the correct answer is (A) Anupalabdhi.} \] Quick Tip: Remember: Prabhakaras = 5 pramanas (no Anupalabdhi), Bhattas = 6 pramanas (including Anupalabdhi).


Question 35:

Marx introduces the concept of ‘commodity fetishism’ in Capital. Which one of the following is a correct description of the concept?

  • (A) The reflection of human spiritual capacities in the material product
  • (B) The reflection of human needs in the material product
  • (C) The reflection of the social character of human labour in the material product
  • (D) The reflection of the dignity of human labour in the material product
Correct Answer: (C) The reflection of the social character of human labour in the material product
View Solution



In Marxist theory, “commodity fetishism” refers to the process where social relations among people, especially labour relations, are disguised as value relations among commodities.

- Commodities appear to have intrinsic value, but in reality, their value comes from the socially necessary human labour involved in producing them.

- Thus, instead of recognizing human labour as the true source of value, society begins to treat commodities as though they inherently possess value.

- Hence, the fetishism lies in the reflection of the social character of human labour in the material product.

\[ \boxed{Correct answer: (C)} \] Quick Tip: Commodity fetishism = “Things appear to have value by themselves, but actually it is labour’s social character reflected in them.”


Question 36:

W. V. O. Quine famously writes in ‘Two Dogmas of Empiricism’:

  • (A) No statement is immune to revision
  • (B) Only analytic statements are immune to revision
  • (C) Only synthetic statements are immune to revision
  • (D) Only the statements of empirical sciences are immune to revision
Correct Answer: (A) No statement is immune to revision
View Solution



In his essay Two Dogmas of Empiricism, W.V.O. Quine critiques the traditional distinction between analytic and synthetic statements, which was held to be immune to revision. He famously argues that no statement, whether analytic or synthetic, is immune to revision because all knowledge is subject to empirical investigation and modification. Thus, no statement is immune to revision.

\[ \boxed{Option (A) is correct.} \] Quick Tip: Quine’s critique of the analytic-synthetic distinction suggests that all knowledge is interconnected and open to change based on new experiences and evidence.


Question 37:

Comparing the thoughts of Heraclitus and Parmenides, we can say that:

  • (A) Both assert that only the soul (psuche) truly exists
  • (B) Heraclitus asserts the unity underlying the plurality of things, whereas Parmenides denies the plurality of things altogether
  • (C) Heraclitus asserts the infinity of the cosmos, whereas Parmenides asserts its finitude
  • (D) Heraclitus asserts the incomprehensibility of the plurality of nature, while Parmenides asserts the fundamental comprehensibility of the plurality of nature
Correct Answer: (A) Both assert that only the soul (psuche) truly exists
View Solution



Both Heraclitus and Parmenides were pre-Socratic philosophers with conflicting views. However, both share the view that the true essence of reality is more metaphysical than physical. Heraclitus believed in the unity of opposites, while Parmenides believed that change is an illusion and that only the "one" (a singular essence) exists. In their philosophies, the soul (or psuche) plays a central role in understanding reality, as both thinkers considered the soul a significant element in grasping the true nature of the world.


Option (B) is also partially correct, as Heraclitus did emphasize the unity underlying diversity, but Parmenides did not necessarily deny plurality altogether. Therefore, Option (A) captures the essence of both philosophers' views better than Option (B).

\[ \boxed{Option (A) is correct.} \] Quick Tip: Both Heraclitus and Parmenides were concerned with metaphysical issues related to the unity of existence and the role of the soul in understanding reality.


Question 38:

According to Heidegger’s Being and Time, the ontological difference is:

  • (A) The distinction between Being (Sein) and beings (Seiende)
  • (B) The distinction between Being (Sein) and Being-there (Dasein)
  • (C) The distinction between beings (Seiende) and Being-there (Dasein)
  • (D) The difference between Being (Sein) and Non-Being (Nichtsein)
Correct Answer: (A) The distinction between Being (Sein) and beings (Seiende)
View Solution



In Being and Time, Heidegger introduces the concept of the ontological difference, which refers to the distinction between Being (Sein) and beings (Seiende). Heidegger argues that while we commonly discuss beings, we often overlook the fundamental nature of Being itself, which is what gives existence to all beings.

Option (A) is correct because it directly captures Heidegger's distinction between the abstract concept of Being and the many particular beings in the world.


Option (B) refers to the term Dasein (Being-there), which is a specific kind of being that is concerned with its own Being. However, this option misrepresents the ontological difference, as it confuses the distinction of Being with a specific type of being.

Option (C) also confuses the terms. It refers to the distinction between beings and Dasein, but Heidegger's ontological difference is not framed in this way.

Option (D) presents a false distinction between Being and Non-Being. Heidegger's focus is on Being (Sein) and beings (Seiende), not on the difference between Being and Non-Being.
\[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A).} \] Quick Tip: Heidegger's concept of the ontological difference helps in understanding his philosophy of Being by distinguishing between the essence of Being and the actual beings that exist.


Question 39:

In Plato’s Republic, the virtue of moderation is present:

  • (A) Only in the guardians
  • (B) In the auxiliaries and guardians
  • (C) Only in the money makers
  • (D) Throughout the republic
Correct Answer: (D) Throughout the republic
View Solution



In The Republic, Plato discusses justice and virtues within the context of a well-ordered society. Moderation, or self-control, is considered one of the key virtues and is not confined to a specific group but is present throughout the entire republic. Plato argues that moderation exists when each class—guardians, auxiliaries, and money makers—conforms to its appropriate role and desires no more than what is necessary for its function. Thus, moderation is present in all parts of the society.

Option (A) is incorrect because moderation is not limited to the guardians, though they do play a crucial role in upholding it.

Option (B) is partially correct, as the guardians and auxiliaries embody moderation in their duties, but moderation is not restricted to them alone.

Option (C) is incorrect because the money makers, according to Plato, are focused on wealth accumulation and not necessarily embodying moderation in the same way as other classes.

Option (D) is correct because Plato argues that moderation is a virtue that should be present in all parts of society to achieve harmony.
\[ \boxed{The correct answer is (D).} \] Quick Tip: Plato’s view of moderation emphasizes harmony in society, where each class functions according to its role without excess, ensuring balance and justice.


Question 40:

In Káśmīra Śaivism, Śiva is the only reality, the one without a second. Which among the following is/are the other name[s] for Káśmīra Śaivism?

  • (A) Pratyabhijñā
  • (B) Trika
  • (C) Spanda
  • (D) Vīra-śaivism
Correct Answer: (A) Pratyabhijñā, (B) Trika, (C) Spanda
View Solution



In Káśmīra Śaivism, Śiva is considered the only reality, and it is a form of non-dualism. There are various schools and philosophical movements within Káśmīra Śaivism that are referred to by different names. These names are associated with different philosophical traditions and textual interpretations within Śaivism.


- Pratyabhijñā: This is a well-known school of philosophy within Káśmīra Śaivism. It focuses on the recognition (pratyabhijñā) of one's own identity with the Supreme, i.e., Śiva.


- Trika: Trika is another term often used to refer to Káśmīra Śaivism, specifically pointing to the three-fold approach (Trika) involving Śiva, Śakti, and the individual soul (jīva). It is a prominent system of thought in Káśmīra Śaivism.


- Spanda: Spanda refers to the concept of divine vibration or the dynamic aspect of Śiva, and it plays an important role in the philosophical framework of Káśmīra Śaivism.


Thus, the correct answer is (A) Pratyabhijñā, (B) Trika, (C) Spanda.
Quick Tip: In Káśmīra Śaivism, the focus is on the realization of the non-dual nature of reality, where Śiva is recognized as both the essence and the dynamic force of the universe.


Question 41:

In ‘Democracy’, B. R. Ambedkar lays out certain fundamental assumptions about his conception of democracy. They include:

  • (A) Adult suffrage and frequent elections are no bar against the governing class reaching places of power and authority
  • (B) Servile classes volunteering to elect members of the governing class as their rulers is a sign of a thriving democracy
  • (C) Servile classes in some countries may need other safeguards beside adult suffrage to oust the governing class from the seat of authority
  • (D) Existence of the governing class is consistent with democracy and self-government
Correct Answer: (A) Adult suffrage and frequent elections are no bar against the governing class reaching places of power and authority, (C) Servile classes in some countries may need other safeguards beside adult suffrage to oust the governing class from the seat of authority
View Solution



In his work "Democracy", B. R. Ambedkar outlines various views on the functioning of democracy, emphasizing the importance of safeguards and vigilance in democratic societies. Ambedkar critiques the existing democratic structures and proposes a framework for a true democracy.


- (A) Adult suffrage and frequent elections are no bar against the governing class reaching places of power and authority: Ambedkar argues that even though adult suffrage and elections are fundamental components of democracy, they are not enough on their own. He recognizes that the existing governing class can still retain power, despite these mechanisms.


- (B) Servile classes volunteering to elect members of the governing class as their rulers is a sign of a thriving democracy: This statement does not align with Ambedkar's view. Ambedkar was critical of the idea that the servile classes would volunteer to elect their rulers, as he saw this as a sign of inequality rather than a thriving democracy.


- (C) Servile classes in some countries may need other safeguards beside adult suffrage to oust the governing class from the seat of authority: Ambedkar emphasizes the need for additional safeguards beyond suffrage, especially for marginalized or servile classes, to ensure true democracy.


Thus, the correct answer is (A) Adult suffrage and frequent elections are no bar against the governing class reaching places of power and authority, (C) Servile classes in some countries may need other safeguards beside adult suffrage to oust the governing class from the seat of authority.
Quick Tip: When studying democracy according to Ambedkar, focus on the importance of safeguards for marginalized communities, and how mere elections do not guarantee true power for the people.


Question 42:

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question:

My uniform experience has convinced me that there is no other God than Truth… That is why my devotion to Truth has drawn me into the field of politics; and I can say without the slightest hesitation, yet in all humility, that those who say that religion has nothing to do with politics do not know what religion means. Identification with everything that lives is impossible without self-purification; without self-purification the observance of the law of Ahimsa must remain an empty dream; God can never be realized by one who is not pure of heart.
--- M. K. Gandhi, An Autobiography or the Story of my Experiments with Truth, p. 615

Which among the following are NOT in conformity with the above passage?

  • (A) God is Truth
  • (B) Devotion to God, which is Truth, prompted Gandhi to enter politics
  • (C) Religion and politics should be separated
  • (D) Ahimsa and politics do not go hand in hand
Correct Answer: (C) and (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Key ideas from Gandhi’s passage

- Gandhi equates God with Truth.

- His devotion to Truth motivated him to enter politics.

- He rejects the idea that religion and politics are separate.

- He emphasizes that Ahimsa (non-violence) is essential in politics and life, tied to self-purification.


Step 2: Analyze options

(A) “God is Truth” → Conforms to Gandhi’s statement.

(B) “Devotion to Truth prompted Gandhi to enter politics” → Matches the text.

(C) “Religion and politics should be separated” → Contradicts Gandhi.

(D) “Ahimsa and politics do not go hand in hand” → Contradicts Gandhi.


Thus, NOT in conformity: (C) and (D).
\[ \boxed{Correct Answer: (C) and (D)} \] Quick Tip: For Gandhi, Truth = God, Religion = Politics, and Ahimsa = Core principle of both.


Question 43:

Soli likes either logic or biology. If Soli likes logic, then he is not a happy person. Neither Soli nor Rupinder likes biology. Which among the following can be concluded from the premises given here?

  • (A) Soli is not a happy person.
  • (B) Rupinder is not a happy person.
  • (C) Rupinder is a happy person.
  • (D) Soli likes logic.
Correct Answer: (A) and (D)
View Solution



Premises:

1. Soli likes either logic or biology.

2. If Soli likes logic, then he is not happy.

3. Neither Soli nor Rupinder likes biology. → So Soli cannot like biology.


Step 1: Apply premise (3)

Since Soli cannot like biology, the only option left is that Soli likes logic.

Step 2: Apply premise (2)

If Soli likes logic, then he is not happy. Therefore, Soli is not a happy person.

Step 3: Check options

(A) Soli is not a happy person → True.

(B) Rupinder is not a happy person → No information given.

(C) Rupinder is a happy person → No information given.

(D) Soli likes logic → True.


Thus, the correct conclusions are (A) and (D).
\[ \boxed{Correct Answer: (A) and (D)} \] Quick Tip: Always reduce logical problems step by step: eliminate impossible options, then apply conditional rules.


Question 44:

On the basis of Aristotle’s Nicomachean Ethics, we can say the following about virtue:

  • (A) We can know the virtue of something only if we understand the function (ergon) of that thing
  • (B) Virtue entails deliberation
  • (C) We become virtuous by simply knowing what virtue is
  • (D) Virtue has the nature of a mean between two extremes in most cases
Correct Answer: (A), (B), (D)
View Solution



Aristotle’s virtue ethics in the Nicomachean Ethics explains:

- (A) Correct: The function (ergon) argument – we understand virtue by knowing the proper function of a thing, e.g., the function of a human is rational activity, and virtue is what makes this function excellent.

- (B) Correct: Virtue involves practical wisdom (phronesis) and hence deliberation. Virtue is not merely a feeling but a rational disposition to choose well.

- (C) Incorrect: Virtue is acquired by habit and practice, not by mere theoretical knowledge.

- (D) Correct: Virtue is often described as the mean between two extremes (the doctrine of the mean) — e.g., courage lies between recklessness and cowardice.

\[ \boxed{Therefore, A, B, and D are correct. \] Quick Tip: Aristotle’s virtue = habit + reason; it is the mean between extremes, understood through the function of a being.


Question 45:

According to Hume’s An Inquiry Concerning Human Understanding, the following is/are the principle[s] governing the connection of ideas:

  • (A) Resemblance
  • (B) Contiguity in space and time
  • (C) Juxtaposition
  • (D) Cause and Effect
Correct Answer: (A), (B), (D)
View Solution



David Hume identifies three principles of association of ideas:

1. Resemblance — one idea naturally suggests another if they are similar.

2. Contiguity in space and time — ideas connected by proximity (e.g., a picture reminds us of the place).

3. Cause and Effect — the most important principle; when one idea is thought of, the mind immediately anticipates its usual effect.


- (A) Correct: Resemblance is a principle.

- (B) Correct: Contiguity in space and time is a principle.

- (C) Incorrect: Juxtaposition is not mentioned by Hume.

- (D) Correct: Cause and Effect is central to Hume’s philosophy.

\[ \boxed{Therefore, A, B, and D are correct.} \] Quick Tip: Hume’s 3 associations: \textbf{Resemblance, Contiguity, Cause-Effect}. Easy mnemonic: \textbf{RCC}.


Question 46:

In his Yogasūtra, Patañjali mentions five kinds of afflictions (kleśas). Which one of the following is NOT among the five afflictions?

  • (A) Mātsarya (competition/ rivalry)
  • (B) Avidyā (false knowledge)
  • (C) Rāga (attachment)
  • (D) Asmitā (egoism)
Correct Answer: (A) Mātsarya (competition/ rivalry)
View Solution



In the Yogasūtra, Patañjali lists five afflictions (kleśas) that obstruct spiritual progress.

These five are:

1) Avidyā — ignorance/false knowledge,

2) Asmitā — egoism,

3) Rāga — attachment/desire,

4) Dveṣa — aversion/hatred,

5) Abhiniveśa — clinging to life/fear of death.

Mātsarya (competition/rivalry) does not appear in this list; hence it is NOT one of the five kleśas.

\[ \boxed{Option (A) is correct. \] Quick Tip: Remember the five kleśas as: Avidyā, Asmitā, Rāga, Dveṣa, Abhiniveśa — “A A R D A”.


Question 47:

According to Jaina philosophy, all substances (dravya) but one have extension in space (astikāya). That one substance which has no extension in space (anastikāya) is _____.

  • (A) Time (kāla)
  • (B) Space (ākāśa)
  • (C) Rest (adharma)
  • (D) Motion (dharma)
Correct Answer: (A) Time (kāla})
View Solution



Jaina metaphysics classifies substances into those with spatial extension (astikāya) and the one without it (anastikāya).

Kāla (time) alone lacks spatial extension;

ākāśa (space), dharma (motion medium), and adharma (rest medium) are all astikāya.

Therefore, the unique anastikāya substance is time.

\[ \boxed{Option (A) is correct. \] Quick Tip: In Jainism: Space, motion-medium, rest-medium, matter, and soul are astikāya; time is anastikāya.


Question 48:

Husserl’s fifth Cartesian Meditation is founded upon the realization that the reduction to my transcendental sphere of ownness:

  • (A) Does not fundamentally cut me off from the other
  • (B) Fatefully cuts me off from the other
  • (C) Can never be completely achieved
  • (D) Is not necessary to understand the constitution of the objective world
Correct Answer: (A) Does not fundamentally cut me off from the other
View Solution



Husserl’s fifth Cartesian Meditation concerns the phenomenological reduction, where the subject (ego) reduces the world to its own transcendental subjectivity, seeking to understand the constitution of experience. However, this reduction does not fully isolate the subject from the other; instead, it reveals how the subject relates to the world and others.


Option (A) is correct because the reduction does not sever the subject from the other but rather places it in a position where it can understand its relation to the world.

Option (B) is incorrect because the reduction does not cut off the subject from the other in a fateful or absolute sense. It rather reveals the ways in which the other is constitutionally related to the subject.

Option (C) is incorrect because Husserl does not claim that the reduction can never be fully achieved, but that it is a methodological step in the search for the essential structures of experience.

Option (D) is incorrect because understanding the constitution of the objective world is exactly what the reduction attempts to achieve by focusing on the subject’s experience.
\[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A).} \] Quick Tip: In Husserl's philosophy, the reduction to the transcendental ego helps in understanding how the world is constituted for the subject, without cutting off the subject from the other.


Question 49:

According to the Nyāya system, the argument “A sparrow is a bird, since it has wings” would have an inferential defect (hetvābhāsa) called _______

  • (A) Svarūpāsiddhi (unestablished in respect of itself)
  • (B) Āśrayāsiddhi (unestablished in respect of abode)
  • (C) Sādhāraṇa-anaikāntika (common strayer)
  • (D) Asādhāraṇa-anaikāntika (uncommon strayer)
Correct Answer: (A) Svarūpāsiddhi (unestablished in respect of itself)
View Solution



In the Nyāya system, the defect Svarūpāsiddhi refers to a situation where the reason (hetu) used in an inference is not relevant or appropriate to the predicate. In the given example, the inference "A sparrow is a bird, since it has wings" is flawed because the characteristic of having wings is not unique to sparrows (many animals have wings) and thus does not establish the necessary property of being a bird. The reason (wings) does not inherently prove the conclusion (being a bird).


Option (A) is correct because the property of wings, in this context, does not necessarily establish the nature of the sparrow as a bird.

Option (B) refers to the fault where the reason is established in the wrong location or context, which does not apply here.

Option (C) refers to the fault of “common strayer,” where a reason is too general, but this still doesn't fully address the specific issue here, which is related to the nature of the property.

Option (D) is incorrect because “uncommon strayer” is not relevant to this particular type of defect in reasoning.
\[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A).} \] Quick Tip: In Nyāya reasoning, ensure that the reason (hetu) provided must be directly relevant to the predicate (sādhya), without being too general or irrelevant.


Question 50:

Consider the following sentence: ‘Dhavala is a white cow.’ For the Vaiśeṣika, the meaning (artha) of the sentence consists of the following padārthas:

  • (A) Action (karma), Substance (dravya) and Unique particular (viśeṣa) only
  • (B) Substance (dravya), Universal (sāmānya) and Quality (guṇa) only
  • (C) Substance (dravya), Universal (sāmānya), Inherence (samavāya) and Quality (guṇa) only
  • (D) Action (karma), Substance (dravya), Unique particular (viśeṣa) and Absence (abhāva) only
Correct Answer: (C) Substance (dravya), Universal (sāmānya), Inherence (samavāya) and Quality (guṇa) only
View Solution



In Vaiśeṣika philosophy, the term padārtha refers to the various categories or elements of reality. The sentence 'Dhavala is a white cow' can be broken down into different padārthas as follows:


1. Substance (dravya): The cow (Dhavala) is the substance in this context.


2. Universal (sāmānya): The term 'cow' refers to a universal category that applies to all cows, not just the particular cow named Dhavala.


3. Inherence (samavāya): The quality 'white' is inherent in the substance (the cow). In Vaiśeṣika, inherence refers to the relation between the substance and its qualities or attributes.


4. Quality (guṇa): The color 'white' is a quality that is being attributed to the cow.


Thus, the correct answer is (C) Substance (dravya), Universal (sāmānya), Inherence (samavāya) and Quality (guṇa) only.
Quick Tip: In Vaiśeṣika philosophy, understanding the different padārthas helps in comprehending the relationships between different elements in a sentence or reality.


Question 51:

According to the theory advocated by G. Frege in his ‘On Sense and Reference’, the expression ‘the largest prime number’ would have ________.

  • (A) Both a sense and a reference
  • (B) Only sense, and no reference
  • (C) Only reference, and no sense
  • (D) Neither sense, nor reference
Correct Answer: (B) Only sense, and no reference
View Solution



In Frege's theory of sense and reference, the sense of an expression refers to the way in which a referent is presented or described. The reference is the actual object or concept that the expression points to in the world.


The expression ‘the largest prime number’ is problematic because there is, in fact, no largest prime number—it is an open-ended concept in mathematics. According to Frege's theory, this expression has a sense because it conveys a certain meaning or idea (the concept of the largest prime number), but it lacks a reference because there is no actual entity or number that it refers to (since prime numbers go on indefinitely).


Thus, the correct answer is (B) Only sense, and no reference.
Quick Tip: When analyzing expressions like 'the largest prime number', remember that Frege's theory helps distinguish between the sense (meaning) and the reference (actual object) of a term.


Question 52:

In the Phaedo}, Plato’s Socrates develops a novel way of understanding the beauty of things. He tells us:

  • (A) The beauty of things is caused by nothing other than a combination of the colour, the shape and the size of a thing
  • (B) The beauty of things is simply the effect of that thing on the eyes of the observer
  • (C) If things are beautiful then it is due to the presence (parousia}) of the beautiful in itself
  • (D) The beauty of things is simply an illusion; only the beautiful exists in itself by itself (auto kath’ auto})
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution



Step 1: Plato’s Theory of Forms in the Phaedo}

Socrates argues that beauty in the material world is not self-sufficient. Instead, particular things are beautiful because they participate in, or reflect, the eternal Form of Beauty. This Form exists beyond sensory perception.


Step 2: Examine the options

(A) Suggests beauty is based only on colour, shape, or size → this is more materialistic, not Platonic.

(B) Suggests beauty is only subjective, dependent on the observer → again, not Plato’s view.

(C) Correct. Plato holds that things are beautiful because of the presence (parousia) of Beauty itself.

(D) Suggests beauty is illusion → too skeptical, more aligned with later critiques, not Plato’s own teaching.

\[ \boxed{Correct Answer: (C)} \] Quick Tip: Plato’s doctrine of Forms: Particulars (like beautiful objects) are shadows or reflections of eternal Forms (like Beauty itself).


Question 53:

Descartes postulates the evil genius in his Meditations} to deny the certainty of which statements?

  • (A) IV, III and V
  • (B) I, II and III
  • (C) V and VI
  • (D) II and VIII
Correct Answer: (D) II and VIII
View Solution



Step 1: Evil genius hypothesis

Descartes imagined an “evil genius” who could deceive him even in matters of logic and mathematics. This radical doubt extended not only to sensory experience but also to apparently indubitable truths like arithmetic.


Step 2: Apply to the statements

- (II) “The sum of the angles of a triangle is 180 degrees” → A mathematical truth. Under the evil genius hypothesis, even such truths could be doubted.

- (VIII) “2+2=4” → The simplest arithmetic truth, yet Descartes shows that the evil genius could make us doubt even this.

- Other statements (I, III, IV, V, VI, VII) relate to empirical observation or personal states, not Descartes’ focus in the evil genius argument.


Step 3: Conclusion

Therefore, Descartes’ evil genius mainly denies certainty of mathematical/logical truths, i.e., (II) and (VIII).
\[ \boxed{Correct Answer: (D) II and VIII} \] Quick Tip: Descartes used the “evil genius” to doubt everything, even math, until he found one indubitable truth: “Cogito, ergo sum” (I think, therefore I am).


Question 54:

Which of the following statement[s] is/are NOT true in relation to Kant’s concept of the will?

  • (A) Every will, even the divine will is subject to imperatives
  • (B) Only the human will is subject to imperatives
  • (C) The human will is subject to the hypothetical imperative, whereas the divine will is subject to the categorical imperative
  • (D) The human will is subject to the categorical imperative which comes from God
Correct Answer: (A), (C), (D)
View Solution



According to Kant’s moral philosophy:

- Imperatives apply only to finite rational beings like humans, because they have inclinations and need guidance by moral law.

- The divine will is already perfectly rational and good; hence, it is not subject to imperatives. This makes (A) false.

- Humans are subject both to hypothetical imperatives (if you want X, do Y) and the categorical imperative (act only according to maxims that can be universal law). However, (C) is false because the divine will is not subject to any imperative at all.

- The categorical imperative does not “come from God,” but from reason itself. So (D) is also false.

- (B) is correct: only the human will is subject to imperatives.

\[ \boxed{Therefore, A, C, and D are NOT true.} \] Quick Tip: Kant: \textbf{Humans need imperatives, God does not.} Categorical imperative arises from pure reason, not divine command.


Question 55:

We see a bronze statue of Poseidon in the National Archaeological Museum of Athens. Which of the following would be [a] cause[s] of the statue for Aristotle if we read his Physics?

  • (A) Bronze
  • (B) The sculptor who produced it
  • (C) The plan to have a bronze statue of Poseidon installed in a temple
  • (D) The space in the temple in which the statue is installed
Correct Answer: (A), (B), (C)
View Solution



Aristotle distinguishes four causes:

1. Material cause: what it is made of (here, bronze). → (A)

2. Efficient cause: the agent that brings it into being (the sculptor). → (B)

3. Formal cause: the form or design, the concept (the plan to have Poseidon’s statue). → (C)

4. Final cause: the purpose for which it is made (worship or aesthetic purpose).


Option (D), the space in the temple, is not a cause in Aristotle’s scheme. Hence, the correct causes are (A), (B), (C).

\[ \boxed{Therefore, A, B, and C are Aristotle’s causes.} \] Quick Tip: Aristotle’s 4 causes = Material (what it’s made of), Efficient (who made it), Formal (design/essence), Final (purpose).


Question 56:

In the Buddhist theory of elements (dharmas), dharmas are the ultimate momentary elements of existence. The number of elements varies in different schools of Buddhism. Of the following alternatives, which pair(s) does/do NOT} give us the respective number of dharmas accepted in Sautrāntika and Sarvāstivāda (Vaibhāṣika) schools?

  • (A) 75 and 43
  • (B) 43 and 75
  • (C) 43 and 0
  • (D) 0 and 43
Correct Answer: (A), (C), and (D)
View Solution



The standard Abhidharma counts are: Sautrāntika = 43 dharmas and Sarvāstivāda (Vaibhāṣika) = 75 dharmas.

Therefore, only option (B) matches the correct ordered pair \((43, 75)\).

All the other options misreport the pair and hence are the ones that do not give the respective numbers.

\[ \boxed{Hence, (A), (C), and (D) are correct.} \] Quick Tip: Remember: Sautrāntika (leaner list) \(\rightarrow\) 43; Sarvāstivāda/ Vaibhāṣika (fuller list) \(\rightarrow\) 75.


Question 57:

According to the Advaita of Śaṅkara, the individual self (jīva) is:

  • (A) Not ontologically different from Brahman
  • (B) Empirically different from Brahman due to the limiting adjuncts of body, mind, senses etc.
  • (C) Ontologically real and one with Brahman
  • (D) A part of Brahman
Correct Answer: (A), (B), and (C)
View Solution



In Advaita Vedānta, the true nature of the jīva is identical with Brahman (A).

The perceived difference between jīva and Brahman is only empirical (vyāvahārika) and arises due to limiting adjuncts (upādhi) such as body, mind, and senses—hence (B).

Since the essence of the jīva is Brahman alone (which is the only ontological reality), it is acceptable to say the jīva is ontologically real and one with Brahman when viewed in its true nature—thus (C).

Option (D) is incorrect because Brahman is partless (niravayava); nothing can be a “part” of Brahman.

\[ \boxed{Therefore, (A), (B), and (C) are correct; (D) is not. \] Quick Tip: Advaita key contrast: Absolute (pāramārthika) identity} of jīva and Brahman vs. empirical (vyāvahārika) difference} created by upādhis. Brahman is non-dual and partless.


Question 58:

In the Buddhist theory of elements (dharmas), dharmas are the ultimate momentary elements of existence. The number of elements varies in different schools of Buddhism. Of the following alternatives, which pair(s) does/do NOT} give us the respective number of dharmas accepted in Sautrāntika and Sarvāstivāda (Vaibhāṣika) schools?

  • (A) 75 and 43
  • (B) 43 and 75
  • (C) 43 and 0
  • (D) 0 and 43
Correct Answer: (A), (C), and (D)
View Solution



The standard Abhidharma counts are: Sautrāntika = 43 dharmas and Sarvāstivāda (Vaibhāṣika) = 75 dharmas.

Therefore, only option (B) matches the correct ordered pair \((43, 75)\).

All the other options misreport the pair and hence are the ones that do not give the respective numbers.

\[ \boxed{Hence, (A), (C), and (D) are correct.} \] Quick Tip: Remember: Sautrāntika (leaner list) \(\rightarrow\) 43; Sarvāstivāda/ Vaibhāṣika (fuller list) \(\rightarrow\) 75.


Question 59:

According to the Advaita of Śaṅkara, the individual self (jīva) is:

  • (A) Not ontologically different from Brahman
  • (B) Empirically different from Brahman due to the limiting adjuncts of body, mind, senses etc.
  • (C) Ontologically real and one with Brahman
  • (D) A part of Brahman
Correct Answer: (A), (B), and (C)
View Solution



In Advaita Vedānta, the true nature of the jīva is identical with Brahman (A).

The perceived difference between jīva and Brahman is only empirical (vyāvahārika) and arises due to limiting adjuncts (upādhi) such as body, mind, and senses—hence (B).

Since the essence of the jīva is Brahman alone (which is the only ontological reality), it is acceptable to say the jīva is ontologically real and one with Brahman when viewed in its true nature—thus (C).

Option (D) is incorrect because Brahman is partless (niravayava); nothing can be a “part” of Brahman.

\[ \boxed{Therefore, (A), (B), and (C) are correct; (D) is not. \] Quick Tip: Advaita key contrast: Absolute (pāramārthika) identity} of jīva and Brahman vs. empirical (vyāvahārika) difference} created by upādhis. Brahman is non-dual and partless.


Question 60:

Mohammad Iqbal’s views on the nature of ‘intuition’ would state:

  • (A) Intuition is immediate knowledge of the Reality (God)
  • (B) Intuitive experience is not only subjective but also objective
  • (C) Intuition is a property of the heart
  • (D) Intuition is the property of the mind and the intellect
Correct Answer: (A), (B), (C)
View Solution



Iqbal identifies intuition (often linked to the Qur’ānic–Sufi idea of the qalb, or “heart”) as an immediate, direct mode of knowing Ultimate Reality (God), not mediated by discursive reasoning \Rightarrow this supports (A)
.
He insists that genuine spiritual insight is not mere private feeling; it has an objective purchase on reality when disciplined and tested in life and history \Rightarrow this supports (B)
.
Iqbal consistently locates this faculty in the “heart” as a dynamic center of selfhood that synthesizes love, will, and knowledge, over and above the calculative intellect \Rightarrow this supports (C)
.
Option (D) is rejected because Iqbal treats the intellect/mind as necessary but insufficient for grasping the Absolute; intuition is not a mere property of discursive intellect
.
\[ \boxed{Hence, (A), (B), and (C) are correct; (D) is not.} \] Quick Tip: For Iqbal, heart} \(\neq\) mere emotion; it is a cognitive–volitional center that yields immediate yet testable knowledge of Reality, complementing but surpassing discursive reason


Question 61:

Sandra Harding’s Standpoint Epistemology involves:

  • (A) Adopting a feminist empiricist point of view that critiques the masculine underpinnings of western sciences
  • (B) Recognizing that science is value free
  • (C) Negating the value of objectivity in scientific research
  • (D) Grounding distinctive feminist science in strongly objective accounts of the world
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution



Harding argues for strong objectivity: starting inquiry from marginalized standpoints and making the social–historical location of knowers a subject of investigation in order to produce more objective science \Rightarrow (D)
.
(A) describes feminist empiricism, which Harding critiques as insufficient because it underestimates how social location shapes inquiry
.
(B) is false since Harding denies value–free science and insists on reflexivity about values
.
(C) is false because she does not reject objectivity; she reconstructs it as “strong objectivity”
.
\[ \boxed{Therefore, only (D) is correct.} \] Quick Tip: Remember Harding’s slogan: from the standpoint of the marginalized to achieve strong objectivity}—not less objectivity, but more, via reflexive method and standpoint selection


Question 62:

In J. S. Mill’s articulation of utilitarianism which of the following statements about justice are valid?

  • (A) Standards of justice stand higher in the scale of social utility
  • (B) The just and the expedient are divided by an imaginary distinction
  • (C) Social duty can become so important as to overrule any one of general maxims of justice
  • (D) Utilitarianism prioritises expediency over justice
Correct Answer: (A), (C)
View Solution



Why (A) is correct: In Utilitarianism, Mill treats justice as the most vital part of utility, protecting security and rights; hence its standards “stand higher” on the scale of social utility.

Why (C) is correct: Mill allows that exceptional social duties (e.g., self-preservation, saving many lives) may override a particular maxim of justice in rare emergencies—still justified by the higher utility at stake.
[2mm]
Why (B) is incorrect: Mill does not say the just/expedient divide is imaginary; he explains justice as a distinct and stronger obligation within utility, not a mere illusion.

Why (D) is incorrect: Mill does not rank expediency above justice; rather, justice has the highest utility weight, so utilitarianism does not simply prioritise expediency.
Quick Tip: In utilitarianism, justice plays a key role in balancing social utility, and Mill maintains that it holds a stronger position in moral decisions than mere expediency.


Question 63:

According to Russell’s “On Denoting”, the proposition “The prime number between 7 and 11 is NOT} larger than 12” would be true, if \ \ \ \ \ \ \ .

  • (A) The proposition “The prime number between 7 and 11 is larger than 12” is false
  • (B) The expression “the prime number between 7 and 11” has a primary} occurrence in the proposition
  • (C) The expression “the prime number between 7 and 11” has a secondary} occurrence in the proposition
  • (D) There were only one prime number between 7 and 11
Correct Answer: (C), (D)
View Solution



Under Russell’s analysis, “The F is not G” has two readings:

• Secondary occurrence (wide–scope negation): \(\neg\exists!x\,[F(x)\land G(x)]\).
If the definite description denotes nothing, the whole statement is true. For “the prime between 7 and 11”, in fact no such prime exists; hence with secondary occurrence the proposition is true. (C)

• Primary occurrence (narrow–scope negation): \(\exists!x\,[F(x)\land \neg G(x)]\).
This requires that there be exactly one such prime and that it is not larger than 12. If (counterfactually) there were exactly one prime between 7 and 11, it would certainly be \(\le 10\), hence “not larger than 12” would hold; the proposition would then be true. (D)
[2mm]
Why (A) is not sufficient: The falsity of the converse does not by itself determine the truth of the given sentence under Russell’s analysis.

Why (B) is wrong: With primary occurrence but no such prime (the actual case), the proposition is false, not true.
Quick Tip: Russell's theory of denoting distinguishes between primary and secondary occurrences of terms to explain the truth conditions of sentences involving non-denoting expressions.


Question 64:

(i) \(p \supset (q \cdot r)\) (ii) \(\sim(p \supset s)\)

Taking (i) and (ii) as premises, which of the following can be deduced?

  • (A) \(q\)
  • (B) \(r\)
  • (C) \(s\)
  • (D) \(\sim p\)
Correct Answer: (A) and (B)
View Solution



From (ii) \(\ \sim(p \supset s)\), apply Material Implication: \(p \supset s \equiv \sim p \lor s\). Hence \[ \sim(p \supset s)=\sim(\sim p \lor s)\stackrel{De Morgan}{=} \sim\sim p \ \cdot\ \sim s = p \ \cdot\ \sim s. \]
So we have \(p\) and \(\sim s\).

Using (i) and Modus Ponens with \(p\): \[ p, p \supset (q \cdot r) \ \Rightarrow\ q \cdot r. \]
By Simplification: \[ q \cdot r \ \Rightarrow\ q and r. \]
Thus (A) \(q\) and (B) \(r\) are deducible; (C) \(s\) and (D) \(\sim p\) are not. Quick Tip: Always convert implications using Material Implication (\(p \supset q \equiv \sim p \lor q\)). It often simplifies proofs when combined with De Morgan’s Theorem.


Question 65:

\(\sim q\) can be deduced from \(\sim(p \supset (q \lor r))\) by using rules of propositional logic in the following sequence(s):

  • (A) Material Implication \(>\) De Morgan’s Theorem \(>\) Commutation \(>\) Simplification \(>\) De Morgan’s Theorem \(>\) Simplification
  • (B) Conjunction \(>\) Addition \(>\) Modus Ponens \(>\) De Morgan’s Theorem
  • (C) Transposition \(>\) Material Implication \(>\) Double Negation \(>\) De Morgan’s Theorem \(>\) Simplification \(>\) De Morgan’s Theorem \(>\) Simplification
  • (D) Modus Tollens \(>\) Conjunction \(>\) Hypothetical Syllogism \(>\) Simplification
Correct Answer: (A) and (C)
View Solution



Route (A) – as listed: \[ \begin{aligned} 1.\ &\sim(p \supset (q \lor r))
2.\ &\sim(\sim p \lor (q \lor r)) (Material Implication)
3.\ &\sim\sim p \ \cdot\ \sim(q \lor r) (De Morgan)
4.\ &\sim(q \lor r)\ \cdot\ \sim\sim p (Commutation)
5.\ &\sim(q \lor r) (Simplification)
6.\ &\sim q \ \cdot\ \sim r (De Morgan)
7.\ &\sim q (Simplification). \end{aligned} \]

Route (C) – an alternative valid chain: \[ \begin{aligned} 1.\ &\sim(p \supset (q \lor r))
2.\ &\sim(\sim(q \lor r) \supset \sim p) (Transposition on the embedded implication)
3.\ &\sim(\sim\sim(q \lor r) \lor \sim p) (Material Implication)
4.\ &\sim((q \lor r) \lor \sim p) (Double Negation)
5.\ &\sim(q \lor r)\ \cdot\ \sim\sim p (De Morgan)
6.\ &\sim(q \lor r) (Simplification)
7.\ &\sim q \ \cdot\ \sim r (De Morgan)
8.\ &\sim q (Simplification). \end{aligned} \]
Therefore both sequences in (A) and (C) correctly derive \(\boxed{\sim q}\). Quick Tip: Look for ways to apply De Morgan’s Theorem after transforming implications — it helps break down disjunctions into conjunctive negations, making simplification straightforward.


Question 66:

Read the passage below from Wittgenstein’s Philosophical Investigations carefully and answer the question.


Passage:
“I can think of no better expression to characterize these similarities than ‘family resemblances’; for the various resemblances between members of a family – build, features, colour of eyes, gait, temperament, and so on and so forth – overlap and crisscross in the same way. – And I shall say: ‘games’ form a family.

And likewise the kinds of number, for example, form a family. Why do we call something a ‘number’? Well, perhaps because it has a direct affinity with several things that have hitherto been called ‘number’; and this can be said to give it an indirect affinity with other things that we also call ‘numbers.’ And we extend our concept of number, as in spinning a thread we twist fibre on fibre. And the strength of the thread resides not in the fact that some one fibre runs through its whole length but in the overlapping of many fibres.

But if someone wanted to say, ‘So there is something common to all these constructions – namely, the disjunction of all their common properties’ – I’d reply: Now you are only playing with a word. One might as well say, ‘There is a Something that runs through the whole thread – namely, the continuous overlapping of these fibres.’”

-- Wittgenstein, Philosophical Investigations, No. 67


% Question continuation
Which of the following statement[s] does Wittgenstein imply in the above passage?

  • (A) The one fibre supposed to run through the length of the thread corresponds to what is supposed to be common to all numbers
  • (B) The overlapping of the fibres corresponds to the family resemblance Wittgenstein is trying to explicate
  • (C) It is absurd to insist that there is one thing common to all the members of the family
  • (D) To describe a family resemblance is another way to describe the common property shared by all the family members
Correct Answer: (A), (B), (C)
View Solution



Wittgenstein, in the Philosophical Investigations, introduces the concept of family resemblance:

- (A) The image of a single fibre running through the thread refers to the mistaken notion that there is a single common property across all uses of a term like “number.” Wittgenstein critiques this notion.

- (B) Correct: He stresses that the overlapping fibres correspond to similarities between members of a family (e.g., games, numbers). This is the essence of family resemblance.

- (C) Correct: Wittgenstein insists it is absurd to look for one essence common to all members; instead, meanings are related through overlapping similarities.

- (D) Incorrect: Family resemblance does not mean a single common property shared by all, but rather a network of overlapping similarities.

\[ \boxed{Therefore, A, B, and C are implied by Wittgenstein. \] Quick Tip: Wittgenstein’s “family resemblance” = no single essence, but overlapping similarities (like fibres in a thread).


Question 67:

In Kant’s Critique of Pure Reason, the equation 7 + 5 = 12 is synthetic a priori and not simply analytic for the following reason(s).

  • (A) A simple analysis of the concept of 5, the concept of 7 and the concept of addition does not give us the sum 12
  • (B) With 7 as the starting point, we require an intuition such as 5 fingers or 5 marks on a page to reach upto 12
  • (C) If 7 + 5 = 12 were an analytic proposition it would not need any intuition to know it
  • (D) We arrive at the knowledge of 7 + 5 = 12 by imitating others adding 7 and 5
Correct Answer: (A), (B), and (C)
View Solution



In Kant's view, analytic propositions are those that are true by definition and do not require experience. For example, in the case of \(7 + 5 = 12\), the knowledge of it is not derived solely from the meanings of the terms involved. It requires the application of intuition or an empirical representation, such as counting objects or marks on paper, to grasp the sum (hence, \(7 + 5 = 12\) is synthetic). Thus, the equation is not analytic.

\[ \boxed{(A), (B), and (C) are correct; they explain the need for external intuition or analysis.} \] Quick Tip: Remember: Analytic statements are those true by definition alone, while synthetic statements like \(7 + 5 = 12\) require external intuition or experience for their truth.


Question 68:

According to Sartre’s Being and Nothingness, which of the following statement[s] is/are true?

  • (A) Bad faith is human beings’ denial of their own freedom
  • (B) To assert the existence of nothingness is to deny the existence of human freedom
  • (C) To assert the existence of nothingness is to assert the existence of human freedom
  • (D) Being and nothingness self-evidently exclude each other
Correct Answer: (A) and (C)
View Solution



In Sartre’s philosophy, "bad faith" refers to the human tendency to deny one’s own freedom by adopting a false sense of determinism or excuses. This denial undermines the assertion of one's own agency and freedom (A).

Furthermore, in Sartrean existentialism, nothingness is intimately connected with human freedom. The concept of nothingness is what allows for the possibility of freedom because it enables the transcendence of facts or given circumstances. By asserting the existence of nothingness, one affirms the ability to act freely (C).

Options (B) and (D) are incorrect. In Sartre's view, asserting nothingness does not deny freedom (contrary to option B), and being and nothingness are not contradictory in his framework; rather, nothingness enables being to transcend its factual limitations (D is incorrect).

\[ \boxed{Therefore, (A) and (C) are correct.} \] Quick Tip: In Sartre’s philosophy, bad faith is a self-deceptive act of denying freedom, and nothingness is what enables human freedom by allowing transcendence beyond facticity.



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GATE Questions

  • 1.

    P and Q play chess frequently against each other. Of these matches, P has won 80% of the matches, drawn 15% of the matches, and lost 5% of the matches.
    If they play 3 more matches, what is the probability of P winning exactly 2 of these 3 matches?

      • \( \frac{48}{125} \)
      • \( \frac{16}{125} \)
      • \( \frac{16}{25} \)
      • \( \frac{25}{48} \)

    • 2.
      The ceiling function of a real number \( x \), denoted by \( ce(x) \), is defined as the smallest integer that is greater than or equal to \( x \). Similarly, the floor function, denoted by \( fl(x) \), is defined as the largest integer that is smaller than or equal to \( x \). Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for all possible values of \( x \)?

        • \( ce(x) \geq x \)
        • \( fl(x) \leq x \)
        • \( ce(x) \geq fl(x) \)
        • \( fl(x)<ce(x) \)

      • 3.

        Cylindrical workpieces of diameter 60 mm and length 400 mm are machined on a lathe at a cutting speed of 25 m/min and a feed of 0.2 mm/rev. The Taylor’s tool life parameters \(C\) and \(n\) for this setup are 75 and 0.25, respectively. The tool changing time is 3 minutes. With a labor and overhead cost of ₹5 per minute, the tool changing cost per piece is ₹_________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).


          • 4.
            Two cars, P and Q, start from a point X in India at 10 AM. Car P travels North with a speed of 25 km/h and car Q travels East with a speed of 30 km/h. Car P travels continuously but car Q stops for some time after traveling for one hour. If both cars are at the same distance from X at 11:30 AM, for how long (in minutes) did car Q stop?

              • 10
              • 12
              • 15
              • 18

            • 5.

              Consider two identical tanks with a bottom hole of diameter \( d \). One tank is filled with water and the other tank is filled with engine oil. The height of the fluid column \( h \) is the same in both cases. The fluid exit velocity in the two tanks are \( V_1 \) and \( V_2 \). Neglecting all losses, which one of the following options is correct?


               

                • \( V_2>V_1 \)
                • \( V_2 = V_1 \)
                • \( V_2<V_1 \)
                • Insufficient data to definitively conclude the relationship between \( V_1 \) and \( V_2 \)

              • 6.

                The given figure is reflected about the horizontal dashed line and then rotated clockwise by 90° about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the figure.
                Which one of the following options correctly shows the resultant figure?
                Note: The figures shown are representative


                 

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