GATE 2023 Ecology and Evolution Question Paper with Answer Key and Solutions PDF - Download Here

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 13, 2025

GATE 2023 Ecology and Evolution Question Paper PDF is available here for download. IIT Kanpur conducted GATE 2023 Ecology and Evolution exam on February 11, 2023 in the Afternoon Session from 02:30 PM to 05:30 PM. Students have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2023 Ecology and Evolution Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Core Discipline.

GATE 2023 Ecology and Evolution Question Paper with Solutions PDF

GATE 2023 Ecology and Evolution Question Paper with Solutions Download Check Solutions

GATE 2023 Ecology and Evolution Question Paper with solutions pdf


Question 1:

“You are delaying the completion of the task. Send ______ contributions at the earliest.”

  • (A) you are
  • (B) your
  • (C) you're
  • (D) yore

Question 2:

References : _____ :: Guidelines : Implement (By word meaning)

  • (A) Sight
  • (B) Site
  • (C) Cite
  • (D) Plagiarise

Question 3:

In the given figure, \(PQRS\) is a parallelogram with \(PS = 7 \,cm\), \(PT = 4 \,cm\) and \(PV = 5 \,cm\). What is the length of \(RS\) in cm? (The diagram is representative.)



  • (A) \(\tfrac{20}{7}\)
  • (B) \(\tfrac{28}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\tfrac{9}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\tfrac{35}{4}\)

Question 4:

In 2022, June Huh was awarded the Fields medal, which is the highest prize in Mathematics.

When he was younger, he was also a poet. He did not win any medals in the International Mathematics Olympiads. He dropped out of college.

Based only on the above information, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

  • (A) Every Fields medalist has won a medal in an International Mathematics Olympiad.
  • (B) Everyone who has dropped out of college has won the Fields medal.
  • (C) All Fields medalists are part-time poets.
  • (D) Some Fields medalists have dropped out of college.

Question 5:

A line of symmetry is defined as a line that divides a figure into two parts such that each part is a mirror image of the other.


The figure consists of 16 unit squares (4×4 grid). Three squares are already black. In addition to these, what is the minimum number of squares that must be coloured black so that both \(PQ\) (vertical axis) and \(MN\) (diagonal axis) are lines of symmetry?


  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 6:

Human beings are one among many creatures that inhabit an imagined world. In this imagined world, some creatures are cruel. If it is given that the statement “Some human beings are not cruel creatures” is FALSE, then which set of statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All human beings are cruel creatures.

(ii) Some human beings are cruel creatures.

(iii) Some creatures that are cruel are human beings.

(iv) No human beings are cruel creatures.

  • (A) only (i)
  • (B) only (iii) and (iv)
  • (C) only (i) and (ii)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 7:

To construct a wall, sand and cement are mixed in the ratio \(3:1\). The cost (per unit) of sand and cement are in the ratio \(1:2\). If the total cost of sand and cement is \(Rs. 1000\), what is the cost (in rupees) of the cement used?

  • (A) 400
  • (B) 600
  • (C) 800
  • (D) 200

Question 8:

The World Bank has declared that it does not plan to offer new financing to Sri Lanka until the country has an adequate macroeconomic policy framework in place. It has also noted that Sri Lanka needs to adopt reforms to tackle the root causes of its crisis. Based on the passage, which statement can be inferred with certainty?

  • (A) According to the World Bank, the root cause of Sri Lanka’s crisis is lack of foreign exchange.
  • (B) The World Bank has stated that it will advise Sri Lanka’s government on reforms.
  • (C) According to the World Bank, Sri Lanka does not yet have an adequate macroeconomic policy framework.
  • (D) The World Bank has stated that it will provide Sri Lanka with additional funds for essentials.

Question 9:

The coefficient of \(x^4\) in the polynomial \((x-1)^3(x-2)^3\) is equal to _____.

  • (A) 33
  • (B) -3
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 21

Question 10:

Which one of the following shapes can be used to tile (completely cover by repeating) a flat plane, extending to infinity in all directions, without leaving any empty spaces in between them? The copies of the shape used to tile are identical and are not allowed to overlap.

  • (A) circle
  • (B) regular octagon
  • (C) regular pentagon
  • (D) rhombus

Question 11:

Which one of the following is an example of mechanical potential energy?

  • (A) Activated neuron
  • (B) Polarized cell membrane
  • (C) Stretched tendon
  • (D) Relaxed muscle

Question 12:

A research team studies the probability of crop damage by wild boar in crop fields. For each field, they record \(\,1\) if damage was observed and \(\,0\) if not. Which distribution is most appropriate to analyse the probability of crop damage?

  • (A) Binomial distribution
  • (B) Poisson distribution
  • (C) Cauchy distribution
  • (D) Gamma distribution

Question 13:

To test whether body size differs between two populations of a field mouse species, a researcher measured 100 individuals in each population and calculated the statistic \[ t \;=\; \frac{\overline{X}_1 - \overline{X}_2}{S_p\,\sqrt{\tfrac{1}{n_1}+\tfrac{1}{n_2}}} \]
where \(\overline{X}_1\) and \(\overline{X}_2\) are the sample means, \(S_p\) is the pooled standard deviation, and \(n_1,n_2\) are the sample sizes.

  • (A) Chi–square test
  • (B) Kruskal–Wallis test
  • (C) Student’s t-test
  • (D) Mann–Whitney U test

Question 14:

Which ecological process best explains the observation that seedling establishment increases with distance from the parent tree in a forest?

  • (A) Competition between species
  • (B) Competition within species
  • (C) Facilitation between species
  • (D) Facilitation within species

Question 15:

In the early 20th century, which scientist made fundamental contributions to both evolution and statistics?

  • (A) R. A. Fisher
  • (B) Niko Tinbergen
  • (C) August Weismann
  • (D) Thomas Huxley

Question 16:

The figure shows body temperature vs. ambient temperature for two species (L and M). Which statement about temperature regulation is correct?


  • (A) L and M are both homeotherms.
  • (B) L and M are both poikilotherms.
  • (C) L is a homeotherm, whereas M is a poikilotherm.
  • (D) L is a poikilotherm, whereas M is a homeotherm.

Question 17:

You are a deep–sea organism and potential mates are several hundreds of kilometers away. Which kind of mating signal is most likely to help them locate you?

  • (A) Display gestures
  • (B) Electric pulses
  • (C) Body colouration
  • (D) Sounds

Question 18:

Which option shows the correct order of biological organization levels? (B – biomes; E – ecosystems; P – populations; I – individuals; C – communities)

  • (A) \(I < P < C < E < B\)
  • (B) \(I < C < P < E < B\)
  • (C) \(I < E < C < P < B\)
  • (D) \(I < P < E < C < B\)

Question 19:

Which one of the following options describes the difference between abiotic resources and abiotic conditions?

  • (A) Resource levels can fluctuate but conditions do not.
  • (B) Conditions can fluctuate but resource levels do not.
  • (C) Resources can be used up by organisms, whereas conditions cannot.
  • (D) Conditions can be used up by organisms, whereas resources cannot.

Question 20:

Which of the following ranges correctly represents the percentage of energy transferred from a lower to the next higher trophic level in most terrestrial systems?

  • (A) 0.01% to 1%
  • (B) 33% to 66%
  • (C) 2% to 20%
  • (D) 90% to 95%

Question 21:

Whales and dolphins are hypothesized to have evolved along the northern shore of the Tethys Sea, prior to the Indian plate’s collision with the Eurasian plate. To which of the following animals are these aquatic mammals most closely related?

  • (A) pigs
  • (B) elephants
  • (C) seals
  • (D) zebras

Question 22:

Which one of the following options represents the correct order of decreasing average net primary productivity (NPP; g\,m\(^{-2}\)\,yr\(^{-1}\)) in natural ecosystems?

  • (A) Swamp and marshes \(>\) Tropical forests \(>\) Temperate forests \(>\) Temperate grasslands \(>\) Tundra
  • (B) Swamps and marshes \(>\) Tropical forests \(>\) Temperate forests \(>\) Tundra \(>\) Temperate grasslands
  • (C) Tropical forests \(>\) Swamps and marshes \(>\) Temperate forests \(>\) Tundra \(>\) Temperate grasslands
  • (D) Tropical forests \(>\) Swamps and marshes \(>\) Temperate forests \(>\) Temperate grasslands \(>\) Tundra

Question 23:

The increase in mean global temperature since the Industrial Revolution falls in the range of:

  • (A) \(0^\circ C to 0.5^\circ C\)
  • (B) \(0.5^\circ C to 2^\circ C\)
  • (C) \(2^\circ C to 5^\circ C\)
  • (D) \(> 5^\circ C\)

Question 24:

Which one of the following endangered species has been the subject of a reintroduction plan in India?

  • (A) Rusty spotted cat
  • (B) Jungle cat
  • (C) Cheetah
  • (D) Jaguar

Question 25:

Compared with bony fish, many shark species show steeper population declines in response to heavy fishing pressure. Which one of the following options explains this?

  • (A) Sharks are dangerous to humans.
  • (B) Sharks evolved over 400 million years ago.
  • (C) Sharks are long lived and late maturing.
  • (D) Sharks are only found in open oceans.

Question 26:

Which one or more of the following options describe(s) how ferns differ from angiosperms and gymnosperms?

  • (A) Ferns lack a vascular system.
  • (B) Ferns have separate haploid and diploid generations.
  • (C) Ferns are pollinated by flies.
  • (D) Ferns are known only from the fossil record.

Question 27:

Depending on soil nutrient availability, which one or more of the following interaction(s) can occur between soil mycorrhizal fungi and plants?

  • (A) Parasitism
  • (B) Predation
  • (C) Mutualism
  • (D) Commensalism

Question 28:

Which one or more of the following is/are characteristic of r-selected animals?

  • (A) They have a long lifespan.
  • (B) They produce a large number of offspring in each reproductive event.
  • (C) They produce a few large bodied offspring in each reproductive event.
  • (D) They reproduce at a young age.

Question 29:

Which one or more of the following represent(s) benefits of Batesian mimicry to the mimic?

  • (A) Increased toxicity against potential predators
  • (B) Reduced cooperation
  • (C) Increased protection from predators without investment in toxicity
  • (D) Reduced competition

Question 30:

Which one or more of the following is/are developmental feature(s) of hatchlings of an altricial bird species?

  • (A) Eyes open
  • (B) Eyes closed
  • (C) Down feathers present
  • (D) Down feathers absent

Question 31:

You have a biased coin with the probability of getting a head being \(p=0.6\). The probability of getting at least \(1\) head in \(n=3\) tosses is \(\_\_\_\_\). (Rounded off to three decimal places)


Question 32:

A lake has \(20\) blue males, \(30\) red males, \(60\) blue females, and \(80\) red females. A researcher catches one individual at random. If the caught fish is blue, the probability that it is female is \(\_\_\_\_\). (Rounded off to two decimal places)


Question 33:

A researcher fitted a function to show how foraging rate \(F\) (items per 10 min) varies with group size \(G\) (number of individuals): \[ \log_e F \;=\; 3 - 0.2\,\log_e G. \]
According to this equation, the foraging rate \(F\) of a solitary forager is \(\_\_\_\_\) items per 10 minutes. (Rounded to the nearest integer)


Question 34:

Two species of birds, A and B, are found together in region X. Only species A is present in region Y. Both species produce species-specific alarm calls to a predator \(P\). A researcher plays back recorded calls of both species to species A in regions X and Y. The responses of species A are summarized below.




Call stimulus & Response in region X & Response in region Y


Alarm call of species A & Species A flies for cover & Species A flies for cover


Alarm call of species B & Species A flies for cover & Species A does not respond





Based on the results, the most appropriate inference is that

  • (A) species A’s response to species B’s alarm call is a learned behavior.
  • (B) species A’s response to species B’s alarm call is an innate behavior.
  • (C) predator \(P\) is absent in region Y.
  • (D) predator \(P\) exclusively preys on species B.

Question 35:

The table below lists different insects and taxonomic orders. Choose the option that matches each animal to its correct taxonomic order.


Animal                           Taxonomic order


P) Moths                         i) Hemiptera

Q) True bugs                 ii) Orthoptera

R) Crickets                     iii) Coleoptera

S) Beetles                      iv) Lepidoptera

                                       v) Diptera


 

  • (A) P–ii;\; Q–i;\; R–v;\; S–iv
  • (B) P–iii;\; Q–v;\; R–iv;\; S–i
  • (C) P–iv;\; Q–i;\; R–ii;\; S–iii
  • (D) P–v;\; Q–ii;\; R–i;\; S–v

Question 36:

Islands I, II, and III lie off a mainland coast (see figure). Which statement about species richness is consistent with the theory of island biogeography?


  • (A) Island II has the highest species richness because it has the lowest area.
  • (B) Island III has the highest species richness because it is large and farthest from the mainland.
  • (C) Island I has the highest species richness because it is large and closest to the mainland.
  • (D) Islands I and III have equally high species richness because they have roughly the same area.

Question 37:

In a polygynous hummingbird species, males defend and monopolize nectar–rich plants (resource). Females visit these plants for nectar and the defending male will have access to all visiting females for mating. Under which scenario is polygyny expected to be the highest?

  • (A) Resources are abundant and evenly distributed.
  • (B) Resources are abundant and clumped.
  • (C) Resources are scarce and evenly distributed.
  • (D) Resources are scarce and randomly distributed.

Question 38:

A researcher estimates the relationship between reproductive success \(N\) (number of offspring) and horn length \(H\) (cm) in a wild goat as \[ N \;=\; 40 \;-\; 2.2H \;+\; 0.04H^{2}. \]
Horn length typically varies from \(10\) cm to \(50\) cm. Which graph (P, Q, R, S) correctly represents this relationship?


  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 39:

Overfishing reduced food availability for sea lions in California, causing a decline in their population size. In 1972, under the US Endangered Species Act, fishing was banned from sea lion foraging areas. Subsequently, the population of sea lions increased in a logistic form as shown in the figure.





The per capita growth rate is highest in the interval and the population growth rate is highest in the interval .

  • (A) I, II
  • (B) I, III
  • (C) II, II
  • (D) III, II

Question 40:

A locus at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium in a diploid organism has \(n\) alleles. The maximum heterozygosity (i.e., proportion of heterozygotes) for this locus is

  • (A) \(n\)
  • (B) \(1/n\)
  • (C) \(1-\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\)
  • (D) \(1-n\)

Question 41:

Match the diseases to the pathogens that cause them.

Diseases                                     Pathogens

P) Avian malaria                     i) Virus

Q) COVID-19 in humans        ii) Plasmodium

R) Chytrid disease in frogs   iii) Mosquito

                                                 iv) Fungus


 

  • (A) P–i; Q–iii; R–iv
  • (B) P–iii; Q–i; R–ii
  • (C) P–ii; Q–i; R–iv
  • (D) P–iv; Q–i; R–ii

Question 42:

The production of anthocyanin pigments in pea flowers requires the presence of at least one dominant allele in each of two independently assorting genes, C and P.
The presence of anthocyanin results in purple flowers, whereas its absence gives white flowers.
A cross between two double heterozygous (CcPp) plants is performed.
What is the expected ratio of plants with purple flowers to plants with white flowers?

  • (A) 1 : 3
  • (B) 3 : 1
  • (C) 5 : 3
  • (D) 9 : 7

Question 43:

In the phylogenetic trees shown, the tips represent different species of geckos (A–E) and the areas they belong to.
Which tree is most consistent with the hypothesis that geckos colonized the Western Ghats from Northeast India through the Eastern Ghats?


  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 44:

The phylogenetic tree depicts relationships among five snake species (A–E) and their habitat specializations (Aquatic or Terrestrial). Given parsimony (least number of changes) and that ancestor Y was terrestrial, which option about ancestor X is correct?


  • (A) X was more likely to be aquatic than terrestrial.
  • (B) X was more likely to be terrestrial than aquatic.
  • (C) X was equally likely to be aquatic or terrestrial.
  • (D) X was neither aquatic nor terrestrial.

Question 45:

Speciation in Western Ghats snakes is predominantly allopatric. To quantify diversification most cost- and time-efficiently, how should a researcher sample?

  • (A) Across an elevational gradient
  • (B) Across barriers such as valleys and rivers
  • (C) Intensively in one or two random locations
  • (D) Intensively across the entire mountain range

Question 46:

All else equal, which population size \(N\) and migration rate \(m\) yield the most genetic differentiation between populations (largest \(F_{st}\))? Given \(F_{st}=\dfrac{1}{4Nm+1}\).

  • (A) \(N=500,\; m=1\)
  • (B) \(N=200,\; m=200\)
  • (C) \(N=40,\; m=10\)
  • (D) \(N=40,\; m=1\)

Question 47:

Which one or more of the following is/are prediction(s) or assumption(s) of the handicap principle for the evolution of sexual signals?

  • (A) Females prefer costly signals.
  • (B) Honest signals are costly to produce.
  • (C) Males displaying costly signals are not chosen by females.
  • (D) Costly signals are reliable indicators of signaller quality.

Question 48:

A research team tests how neighbours affect the seed set of a native plant \(S\): grown (i) alone, (ii) with a conspecific, (iii) with native Q, (iv) with native R, (v) with Lantana camara. The bar plot shows mean seed set with 95% CIs. Based on the figure, which option(s) are correct?


  • (A) Seed set is higher in the presence of both the native species than in the presence of a conspecific.
  • (B) Seed set is lower in the presence of Lantana camara than in the presence of both the native species.
  • (C) Seed set is lower in the presence of Lantana camara than in the presence of a conspecific.
  • (D) Seed set is always higher in the presence of other plants than when grown alone.

Question 49:

There are two palatable prey species, Q and R, for an insectivorous bird. The bird searches for and consumes only species Q. According to optimal foraging theory, which condition(s) can explain the bird choosing to forage only for Q?

  • (A) The handling time for Q \(>\) the handling time for R
  • (B) The handling time for Q \(<\) the handling time for R
  • (C) The relative abundance of Q \(>\) the relative abundance of R
  • (D) The relative abundance of Q \(<\) the relative abundance of R

Question 50:

SLOSS debate: With the same total area, which option(s) describe a conservation benefit} of protecting several small patches rather than one large patch?

  • (A) Lower rates of local extinction
  • (B) Lower rates of diversification
  • (C) Lower spread of disease across the populations
  • (D) Lower population sizes

Question 51:

Which one or more options is/are example(s) of niche partitioning between species?

  • (A) Temporal separation of activity
  • (B) Diet specialization
  • (C) Hybridization
  • (D) Vertical stratification of foraging heights

Question 52:

In an assemblage of coexisting wild cat species, the size of canine teeth was found to be strikingly different between species. Which one or more of the following statements explain(s) this observation?

  • (A) Differences in the size of canine teeth were driven by the size of prey captured by the different species.
  • (B) Differences in the size of canine teeth are an example of divergent evolution.
  • (C) Differences in the size of canine teeth are an example of convergent evolution.
  • (D) Differences in the size of canine teeth were driven by past competition.

Question 53:

The Biological Species Concept (BSC) defines species as groups of interbreeding natural populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups. Which one or more of the following options could pose challenges for defining species using the BSC?

  • (A) Fertile interspecies hybrids
  • (B) Extinct fossil species
  • (C) Barriers to gene flow
  • (D) Inbreeding depression

Question 54:

Two barnacles: Chthamalus stellatus (CS, naturally high intertidal) and Balanus glandula (BG, naturally low intertidal). Each species was grown (i) alone and (ii) together, and also transplanted: CS to low (T–CS) and BG to high (T–BG). Survival (%) was recorded. Which inference(s) are consistent with the results?


  • (A) Only abiotic conditions increase mortality of BG in the high intertidal zones.
  • (B) Only abiotic conditions increase mortality of CS in the low intertidal zones.
  • (C) Interspecific competition increases mortality of BG in the high intertidal zone.
  • (D) Interspecific competition increases mortality of CS in the low intertidal zone.

Question 55:

In the figure, ellipse X represents the combinations of salt concentrations and temperatures a marine invertebrate species can tolerate (its potential physiological range). Ellipse Y represents the combinations of salt concentrations and temperatures where the species is actually found. Which one or more of the following statements about X and Y is/are correct?


  • (A) X is the fundamental niche of the species, whereas Y is the realized niche.
  • (B) The difference between X and Y can result from biotic interactions.
  • (C) The difference between X and Y can result from dispersal limitation.
  • (D) The difference between X and Y results from the species’ tolerance to salt concentrations.

Question 56:

A butterfly species inhabits four patchy landscapes (P, Q, R, S). Grey shapes = occupied patches, white = unoccupied. Arrows = directions of dispersal. Which one or more of the options is/are correct?


  • (A) In landscape Q, patch w is a source population.
  • (B) Landscape R represents a metapopulation.
  • (C) Landscape P has the highest extinction rate.
  • (D) Landscape S has the highest level of inbreeding.

Question 57:

A new food-requesting behaviour has been observed in bonnet macaques in Bandipur National Park. The macaques extend their hand and make a cooing sound towards humans, resulting in food given to them. If this behaviour is to increase in frequency in the population by natural selection, which condition(s) are necessary?

  • (A) Food requesting behaviour must be transmitted from one generation to the next.
  • (B) All bonnet macaques in the area must show this behaviour.
  • (C) Macaques who receive food using this behaviour are able to have more offspring.
  • (D) Food requesting behaviour must only be taught by parents to offspring.

Question 58:

Two co-occurring plant species, A and B, flower at the same time and share the same pollinator species. If these plants are pollinator-limited, then which one or more of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the figure shown below?


  • (A) Line 1 represents competition.
  • (B) Line 2 represents mutualism.
  • (C) Line 3 represents parasitism.
  • (D) Line 1 represents facilitation.

Question 59:

Scorpions on Syrian sand dunes in Sept 2022 show the age distribution in panel P (age classes: 1–30 d, 31–60 d, 61–90 d; y-axis = number of individuals). Scorpions live to a maximum of 90 days. Assuming no immigration or emigration}, which one or more of the age-distribution panels Q, R, S, T is/are possible 30 days later?






  • (A) Q
  • (B) R
  • (C) S
  • (D) T

Question 60:

The Shannon–Weaver index \(H\) is \(H=-\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^{S} p_i\ln(p_i)\), where \(S\) is the number of species and \(p_i\) is the proportional abundance of species \(i\).
The table lists abundances of different species in a community. Compute the Shannon–Weaver index of reptile diversity in this community (round to two decimals).

Species                                Abundance

Indian gliding lizard             270

Malabar flying frog              325

Travancore tortoise            180

Malabar hornbill                  160

Forest cane turtle               120

Malabar pit viper                30

 


Question 61:

In haplodiploid organisms, males are haploid and females are diploid. In the pedigree, female A has a full-sister Y; Y has a daughter B. Compute the genetic relatedness between A and B (round to three decimals).



Question 62:

Mixed-species flocks contain exactly 5 species: 2 social (from 5 available) and 3 solitary (from 10 available). How many distinct species-composition types are possible? (Answer in integer)


Question 63:

In Zoo 1, \(3\) lions and \(4\) tigers eat \(390\) kg/week. In Zoo 2, \(4\) lions and \(5\) tigers eat \(500\) kg/week. All lions eat the same amount \(L\) kg/week and all tigers the same amount \(T\) kg/week. Find \(L\) (Answer in integer).



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