GATE 2023 BT Question Paper and Answer Key PDFs are out now. GATE 2022 BT was held in February 12, 2022 by IIT Kharagpur. The duration of the exam was 180 minutes. The question paper of GATE 2022 BT was a set of 65 questions that were distributed between two parts i.e. General Aptitude and Biotechnology. 10 questions were related to General Aptitude, while the remaining 55 questions were related to core Biotechnology including Engineering Mathematics. Nearly 70% of the total weightage was carried by core Biotechnology sections.
GATE 2022 BT Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs – February 12 (Forenoon Session)
Candidates targeting GATE can download the PDFs for GATE 2022 BT Question Paper and Answer Key to know the important topics asked, and check their preparation level by solving the past question papers.
| GATE 2022 BT Question Papers | GATE 2022 BT Answer Key | GATE 2022 BT Solution |
|---|---|---|
| Download PDF | Download PDF | Download PDF |
GATE 2022 BT Question Solutions
| S.No | Question | Correct Option | Solution |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | You should _________ when to say _________. (A) no / no (B) no / know (C) know / know (D) know / no | D | You need to know when to say no. The first blank requires "know" (awareness), the second needs "no" (refusal). |
| 2 | Given the statements: P is the sister of Q. Q is the husband of R. R is the mother of S. T is the husband of P. Based on the above information, T is ______ of S. (A) the grandfather (B) an uncle (C) the father (D) a brother | A | P is S’s aunt, making T, as P’s husband, the grandfather. |
| 3 | Healthy eating is a critical component of healthy aging. When should one start eating healthy? (A) Healthy eating is important for those with good health conditions (B) Eating healthy can be started at any age, earlier the better (C) Eating healthy and better overall health are more correlated at a young age (D) Healthy eating is more important for adults than kids | B | The passage emphasizes the earlier one starts eating healthy, the better for their overall health. |
| 4 | In binomial nomenclature, the name of a bacterial strain is written with the first letter of ___________ word(s) being capitalized. (A) first (B) second (C) neither (D) first and second | A | The first word represents the genus (capitalized), while the second word represents the species (not capitalized). |
| 5 | The type of nucleic acid present in phage is: (A) Double stranded DNA (B) Single stranded circular DNA (C) Single stranded DNA (D) Single stranded RNA | A | λ-phage contains double-stranded DNA that integrates into the bacterial genome during its lysogenic cycle. |
| 6 | Which of the following statements about reversible enzyme inhibitors are CORRECT? (A) P and Q only (B) P and R only (C) Q and R only (D) P, Q and R | D | All three statements describe reversible enzyme inhibitors accurately: P (uncompetitive), Q (non-competitive), and R (competitive). |
| 7 | In animal cells, the endogenously produced miRNAs silence gene expression by: (A) base pairing with the 3'-untranslated region of specific mRNAs (B) blocking mRNA synthesis (C) binding to the operator site (D) base pairing with the 3' region of specific rRNAs | A | miRNAs bind to the 3' UTR of target mRNAs, leading to mRNA degradation or inhibition of translation. |
| 8 | Terpenoids are made of ___________ units. (A) amino acid (B) carbohydrate (C) isoprene (D) triacylglycerol | C | Terpenoids are made up of isoprene units (C₅H₈), which form their structural basis. |
| 9 | Which of the following is NOT used for generating an optimal alignment of two nucleotide sequences? (A) Gap penalties (B) Match scores (C) Mismatch scores (D) Nucleotide composition | D | Nucleotide composition does not directly contribute to the scoring of alignment. |
| 10 | The recognition sequences of four Type-II restriction enzymes (RE) are given. Identify the RE that generates sticky ends: (A) RE1 - 5' G↓GATCC 3' (B) RE2 - 5' CTG↓CAG 3' (C) RE3 - 5' CCC↓GGG 3' (D) RE4 - 5' AG↓CT 3' | D | RE4 generates sticky ends by creating a single-stranded overhang after cleavage. |
| 11 | Among individuals in a human population, minor variations exist in nucleotide sequences of chromosomes. Which technique is used to identify such variations? (A) Polymerase dependent fragment insertion (B) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (C) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (D) Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction | C | RFLP detects variations in DNA sequences by digesting DNA with restriction enzymes and separating the resulting fragments by size. |
| 12 | Assuming independent assortment and no recombination, the number of different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes in gametes of an organism with a diploid number of 12 is _________________. | 64 | The number of combinations is calculated using 2n where n is the haploid number (6 in this case). |
| 13 | The degree of reduction of lactic acid (C3H6O3) is ________________. | 2 | Degree of Reduction = Maximum Hydrogens - Actual Hydrogens; Maximum is 8, Actual is 6. |
| 14 | Consider a nonlinear algebraic equation, xlnx+x−1=0. Using the Newton-Raphson method, the value of x after one iteration (rounded off to one decimal place) is __________. | 0.5 | The calculation after one iteration using Newton-Raphson yields approximately 0.5. |
| 15 | The probability density function of a random variable X is 2xe−2x. The probability P(X≤2) (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________. | 0.47 | Calculating the cumulative probability up to 2 gives 0.47. |
| 16 | Which of the following conditions will contribute to the stability of a gene pool in a natural population? (P) Large population (Q) No net mutation (R) Non-random mating (S) No selection (A) P only (B) P and Q only (C) P and R only (D) P, Q and S only | B | Large populations and no net mutation contribute to stability, while non-random mating can disrupt it. |
| 17 | Which of the following statements are CORRECT for a controller? (A) P and Q only (B) P and R only (C) P and S only (D) Q and S only | C | In a proportional controller, a control action is proportional to the error, and there is no “offset” with a proportional-integral controller. |
| 18 | Which of the following are CORRECT about protein structure? (P) Secondary structure is formed by a repeating pattern of interactions among the polypeptide backbone atoms (Q) Tertiary structure is the three-dimensional arrangement of the polypeptide backbone atoms only (R) Quaternary structure refers to an assembly of multiple polypeptide subunits | B | Secondary structure involves interactions among the backbone, while tertiary and quaternary structures refer to their overall arrangements. |
| 19 | The enzymes involved in ubiquitination of cell-cycle proteins are: (A) E1 and E2 only (B) E1 and E3 only (C) E1 and E4 only (D) E1, E2 and E3 | D | Ubiquitination involves E1, E2, and E3 enzymes for tagging proteins for degradation. |
| 20 | The maximum parsimony method is used to construct a phylogenetic tree. Which one of the following statements about the method is CORRECT? (A) It predicts the tree that minimizes the steps required to generate the observed variations (B) It predicts the tree that maximizes the steps required to generate the observed variations (C) It predicts the tree with the least number of branch points (D) It employs probability calculations to identify the tree | A | The maximum parsimony method aims to minimize the number of evolutionary changes to explain observed variations. |
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GATE 2022 Detailed Paper Analysis
GATE 2022 Question Paper comprises three kinds of questions i.e. MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions), MSQs (Multiple Select Questions), and NATs (Numerical Answer Type) questions. Nearly 40% of the total weightage carried by MCQs. MSQs carried the least weightage in the exam. Have a look at the below-mentioned table in order to get a thorough details of the questions-
| Question Types | Question Frequency | Carried Marks |
|---|---|---|
| No. Of 1 Mark MCQs | 21 | 21 |
| No. Of 2 Marks MCQs | 16 | 32 |
| No. Of 1 Mark MSQs | - | - |
| No. Of 2 Marks MSQs | 8 | 16 |
| No. Of 1 Mark NATs | 9 | 9 |
| No. Of 2 Marks NATs | 11 | 22 |
| Total | 65 | 100 |
All the questions were basically related to 5-6 sections. Go through the below-mentioned table, showing the details of section wise listed questions-
| Key Sections | Weightage (Questions) |
|---|---|
| General Aptitude | 10 |
| Engineering Mathematics | 10-15 |
| Plant and Animal Biotechnology | 15-20 |
| Bioprocess Engineering | 10-15 |
| Biotechnology | 20-25 |
Also Check:
GATE 2022 BT: Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme
- GATE 2022 BT asked both MCQs and NATs. It was held online via CBT mode
- As per the specified marking scheme by IIT Delhi, from the final score, ⅓ and ⅔ marks would be reduced for each wrong MCQ carried 1 and 2 marks
- Wrong attempted NATs were not supposed to bring any kind of deduction in the final achieved marks
GATE Previous Year Question Papers
| GATE 2022 Question Papers | GATE 2021 Question Papers | GATE 2020 Question Papers |
| GATE 2019 Question Papers | GATE 2018 Question Papers | GATE 2017 Question Papers |
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