JEE Main 2014 April 12 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. CBSE conducted the computer-based test (CBT) Paper 1 on April 12, 2014. The JEE Main 2014 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2014 April 12 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2014 April 12 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

The sum of the roots of the equation, \(x^2 + |2x - 3| - 4 = 0\), is:

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(-2\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(-\sqrt{2}\)

Question 2:

Let \(z\ne-i\) be any complex number such that \(\frac{z-i}{z+i}\) is a purely imaginary number. Then \(z+\frac{1}{z}\) is :

  • (1) 0
  • (2) any non-zero real number other than 1
  • (3) any non-zero real number
  • (4) a purely imaginary number

Question 3:

8-digit numbers are formed using the digits \(1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 4\). The number of such numbers in which the odd digits do not occupy odd places, is:

  • (1) 160
  • (2) 120
  • (3) 60
  • (4) 48

Question 4:

Let \(G\) be the geometric mean of two positive numbers \(a\) and \(b\), and \(M\) be the arithmetic mean of \(\frac{1}{a}\) and \(\frac{1}{b}\). If \(\frac{1}{M} : G\) is \(4 : 5\), then \(a : b\) can be:

  • (1) \(1 : 4\)
  • (2) \(1 : 2\)
  • (3) \(2 : 3\)
  • (4) \(3 : 4\)

Question 5:

The least positive integer n such that \(1-\frac{2}{3}-\frac{2}{3^{2}}-.......-\frac{2}{3^{n-1}} < \frac{1}{100},\) is :

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 7

Question 6:

If \( 1 + x^4 + x^5 = \sum\limits^{5}_{i =0} a_i\) \((1 + x)^i\) , for all \(x\) in \(R\), then \(a_2\) is:

  • (1) -4
  • (2) 6
  • (3) -8
  • (4) 10

Question 7:

If \(\left(2 + \frac{x}{3}\right)^{55}\) is expanded in the ascending powers of \(x\) and the coefficients of powers of \(x\) in two consecutive terms of the expansion are equal, then these terms are:

  • (1) \(7^{th}\) and \(8^{th}\)
  • (2) \(8^{th}\) and \(9^{th}\)
  • (3) \(28^{th}\) and \(29^{th}\)
  • (4) \(27^{th}\) and \(28^{th}\)

Question 8:

If a line intercepted between the coordinate axes is trisected at a point \(A(4, 3)\), which is nearer to \(x\)-axis, then its equation is :

  • (1) \(4x ?3y = 7\)
  • (2) \(3x + 2y = 18\)
  • (3) \(3x + 8y = 36\)
  • (4) \(x + 3y = 13\)

Question 9:

If the three distinct lines \(x + 2ay + a = 0\), \(x + 3by + b = 0\) and \(x + 4ay + a = 0\) are concurrent, then the point \((a, b)\) lies on a:

  • (1) circle
  • (2) hyperbola
  • (3) straight line
  • (4) parabola

Question 10:

For the two circles \(x^2 + y^2 = 16\) and \(x^2 + y^2 - 2y = 0\), there is/are

  • (1) one pair of common tangents
  • (2) two pair of common tangents
  • (3) three pair of common tangents
  • (4) no common tangent

Question 11:

Two tangents are drawn from a point \((- 2, -1)\) to the curve, \(y^{2}=4x.\) If \(\alpha\) is the angle between them, then \(|\tan \alpha|\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(3\)

Question 12:

The minimum area of a triangle formed by any tangent to the ellipse \(\frac{x^{2}}{16}+\frac{y^{2}}{81}=1\) and the co-ordinate axes is :

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 26
  • (4) 36

Question 13:

Let \(p, q, r\) denote arbitrary statements. Then the logically equivalent of the statement \(p \Rightarrow (q \vee r)\) is:

  • (1) \((p \vee q) \Rightarrow r\)
  • (2) \((p \Rightarrow q) \vee (p \Rightarrow r)\)
  • (3) \((p \Rightarrow {\sim} q) \wedge (p \Rightarrow r)\)
  • (4) \((p \Rightarrow q) \wedge (p \Rightarrow {\sim} r)\)

Question 14:

Let \(\bar{X}\) and M.D. be the mean and the mean deviation about \(\bar{X}\) of \(n\) observations \(x_i, i = 1, 2, n\). If each of the observations is increased by 5, then the new mean and the mean deviation about the new mean, respectively, are:

  • (1) \(\bar{X}\), M.D.
  • (2) \(\bar{X} + 5\), M.D.
  • (3) \(\bar{X}\), M.D. \(+ 5\)
  • (4) \(\bar{X} + 5\), M.D. \(+ 5\)

Question 15:

A relation on the set \(A = \{x : |x| \lt 3, x \in Z\}\), where \(Z\) is the set of integers is defined by \(R = \{(x, y) : y = |x|, x \ne -1\}\). Then the number of elements in the power set of \(R\) is:

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 64

Question 16:

If \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & x \\ 3 & -1 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\) and \(B = \begin{bmatrix} y \\ x \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}\) be such that \(AB = \begin{bmatrix} 6 \\ 8 \end{bmatrix}\), then:

  • (1) \(y = 2x\)
  • (2) \(y = -2x\)
  • (3) \(y = x\)
  • (4) \(y = -x\)

Question 17:

If \(\begin{vmatrix} a^2 & b^2 & c^2 \\ (a+\lambda)^2 & (b+\lambda)^2 & (c+\lambda)^2 \\ (a-\lambda)^2 & (b-\lambda)^2 & (c-\lambda)^2 \end{vmatrix} = k\lambda \begin{vmatrix} a^2 & b^2 & c^2 \\ a & b & c \\ 1 & 1 & 1 \end{vmatrix}, \lambda \ne 0\), then \(k\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(4\lambda abc\)
  • (2) \(-4\lambda abc\)
  • (3) \(4\lambda^2\)
  • (4) \(-4\lambda^2\)

Question 18:

If \(f(\theta) = \begin{vmatrix} 1 & \cos\theta & 1 \\ -\sin\theta & 1 & -\cos\theta \\ -1 & \sin\theta & 1 \end{vmatrix}\) and \(A\) and \(B\) are respectively the maximum and the minimum values of \(f(\theta)\), then \((A, B)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \((3, -1)\)
  • (2) \((4, 2 - \sqrt{2})\)
  • (3) \((2 + \sqrt{2}, 2 - \sqrt{2})\)
  • (4) \((2 + \sqrt{2}, -1)\)

Question 19:

Statement I: The equation \((\sin^{-1}x)^3+(\cos^{-1}x)^3-a\pi^3=0\) has a solution for all \(a\ge\frac{1}{32}\).
Statement II: For any \(x\in\mathbb{R}\), \(\sin^{-1}x+\cos^{-1}x=\frac{\pi}{2}\) and \(0\le\left(\sin^{-1}x-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)^2\le\frac{9\pi^2}{16}\).

  • (1) Both statements I and II are true.
  • (2) Both statements I and II are false.
  • (3) Statement I is true and statement II is false.
  • (4) Statement I is false and statement II is true.

Question 20:

If \(f(x)=x^2-x+5,\ x>\frac{1}{2}\), and \(g(x)\) is its inverse function, then \(g'(7)\) equals:

  • (1) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{13}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{1}{13}\)

Question 21:

Let \(f,g:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) be two functions defined by \(f(x)=\begin{cases}x\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right), & x\ne0\\ 0, & x=0\end{cases}\) and \(g(x)=xf(x)\).
Statement I: \(f\) is a continuous function at \(x=0\).
Statement II: \(g\) is a differentiable function at \(x=0\).

  • (1) Both statement I and II are false.
  • (2) Both statement I and II are true.
  • (3) Statement I is true, statement II is false.
  • (4) Statement I is false, statement II is true.

Question 22:

Let \(f\) and \(g\) be two differentiable functions on \(R\) such that \(f'(x)>0\) and \(g'(x)<0\) for all \(x\in R\). Then for all \(x\):

  • (1) \(f(g(x))>f(g(x-1))\)
  • (2) \(f(g(x))>f(g(x+1))\)
  • (3) \(g(f(x))>g(f(x-1))\)
  • (4) \(g(f(x))<g(f(x+1))\)

Question 23:

The integral \(\int\frac{\sin^2x\cos^2x}{(\sin^3x+\cos^3x)^2}\,dx\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{(1+\cot^3x)}+c\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{1}{3(1+\tan^3x)}+c\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sin^3x}{(1+\cos^3x)}+c\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{\cos^3x}{3(1+\sin^3x)}+c\)

Question 24:

If [ ] denotes the greatest integer function, then the integral \(\int_0^{\pi}[\cos x]\,dx\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (2) \(0\)
  • (3) \(-1\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 25:

If for a continuous function \(f(x)\), \(\int_{-\pi}^{t}(f(x)+x)\,dx=\pi^2-t^2\), for all \(t\ge-\pi\), then \(f\left(-\frac{\pi}{3}\right)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\pi\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)

Question 26:

The general solution of the differential equation, \(\sin2x\left(\frac{dy}{dx}-\sqrt{\tan x}\right)-y=0\), is:

  • (1) \(y\sqrt{\tan x}=x+c\)
  • (2) \(y\sqrt{\cot x}=\tan x+c\)
  • (3) \(y\sqrt{\tan x}=\cot x+c\)
  • (4) \(y\sqrt{\cot x}=x+c\)

Question 27:

If \(\hat{x},\hat{y}\) and \(\hat{z}\) are three unit vectors in three-dimensional space, then the minimum value of \(|\hat{x}+\hat{y}|^2+|\hat{y}+\hat{z}|^2+|\hat{z}+\hat{x}|^2\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(3\)
  • (3) \(3\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(6\)

Question 28:

A symmetrical form of the line of intersection of the planes \(x=ay+b\) and \(z=cy+d\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{x-b}{a}=\frac{y-1}{1}=\frac{z-d}{c}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{x-b-a}{a}=\frac{y-1}{1}=\frac{z-d-c}{c}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{x-a}{b}=\frac{y-0}{1}=\frac{z-c}{d}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{x-b-a}{b}=\frac{y-1}{0}=\frac{z-d-c}{d}\)

Question 29:

If the distance between planes, \(4x-2y-4z+1=0\) and \(4x-2y-4z+d=0\) is 7, then \(d\) is:

  • (1) \(41\) or \(-42\)
  • (2) \(42\) or \(-43\)
  • (3) \(-41\) or \(43\)
  • (4) \(-42\) or \(44\)

Question 30:

A number \(x\) is chosen at random from the set \(\{1, 2, 3, 4, ....., 100\}\). Define the event: \(A =\) the chosen number \(x\) satisfies \(\frac{\left(x-10\right)\left(x-50\right)}{\left(x-30\right)}\ge0\) Then \(P(A)\) is :

  • (1) 0.71
  • (2) 0.7
  • (3) 0.51
  • (4) 0.2

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

From the following combinations of physical constants (expressed through their usual symbols) the only combination, that would have the same value in different systems of units, is :

  • (1) \(\frac{ch}{2\pi\epsilon^{2}_{0}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{e^{2}}{2\pi\epsilon_{0}Gm_{e}^{2}}\) (\(m_e\) = mass of electron)
  • (3) \(\frac{\mu_{0}\,\epsilon_{0}}{c^{2}} \frac{G}{he^{2}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2\pi\sqrt{\mu_{0}\epsilon_{0}}}{ce^{2}} \frac{h}{G}\)

Question 32:

A person climbs up a stalled escalator in \(60\, s\) . If standing on the same but escalator running with constant velocity he takes \(40\, s\). How much time is taken by the person to walk up the moving escalator ?

  • (1) 37 s
  • (2) 27 s
  • (3) 24 s
  • (4) 45 s

Question 33:

A bullet of mass 4 g is fired horizontally with a speed of 300 m/s into 0.8 kg block of wood at rest on a table. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the table is 0.3, how far will the block slide approximately?

  • (1) \(0.19\ \mathrm{m}\)
  • (2) \(0.379\ \mathrm{m}\)
  • (3) \(0.569\ \mathrm{m}\)
  • (4) \(0.758\ \mathrm{m}\)

Question 34:

A spring of unstretched length \(\ell\) has a mass m with one end fixed to a rigid support. Assuming spring to be made of a uniform wire, the kinetic energy possessed by it if it's free end is pulled with uniform velocity \(\upsilon\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}m \upsilon^{2}\)
  • (2) \(m \upsilon^{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{3}m \upsilon^{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{6}m \upsilon^{2}\)

Question 35:

Three masses \(m\), \(2m\) and \(3m\) are moving in \(x-y\) plane with speed \(3u\), \(2u\) and \(u\) respectively as shown in figure. The three masses collide at the same point at P and stick together. The velocity of resulting mass will be:

  • (1) \(\frac{u}{12}(\hat{i}+\sqrt{3}\hat{j})\)
  • (2) \(\frac{u}{12}(\hat{i}-\sqrt{3}\hat{j})\)
  • (3) \(\frac{u}{12}(-\hat{i}+\sqrt{3}\hat{j})\)
  • (4) \(\frac{u}{12}(-\hat{i}-\sqrt{3}\hat{j})\)

Question 36:

A particle is moving in a circular path of radius \(a\), with a constant velocity \(v\) as shown in the figure. The centre of circle is marked by '\(C\)'. The angular momentum from the origin \(O\) can be written as:

  • (1) \(va(1+\cos 2\theta)\)
  • (2) \(va(1+\cos\theta)\)
  • (3) \(va\cos 2\theta\)
  • (4) \(va\)

Question 37:

Two hypothetical planets of masses \(m_1\) and \(m_2\) are at rest when they are infinite distance apart. Because of the gravitational force they move towards each other along the line joining their centres. What is their speed when their separation is '\(d\)'? (Speed of \(m_1\) is \(v_1\) and that of \(m_2\) is \(v_2\))

  • (1) \(v_1 = v_2\)
  • (2) \(v_1 = m_2\sqrt{\dfrac{2G}{d(m_1+m_2)}}\)
    \(v_2 = m_1\sqrt{\dfrac{2G}{d(m_1+m_2)}}\)
  • (3) \(v_1 = m_1\sqrt{\dfrac{2G}{d(m_1+m_2)}}\)
    \(v_2 = m_2\sqrt{\dfrac{2G}{d(m_1+m_2)}}\)
  • (4) \(v_1 = m_2\sqrt{\dfrac{2G}{m_1}}\)
    \(v_2 = m_2\sqrt{\dfrac{2G}{m_2}}\)

Question 38:

Steel ruptures when a shear of \( 3.5 \times 10^8 \,Nm^{-2}\) is applied. The force needed to punch a \(1\, cm\) diameter hole in a steel sheet \(0.3\, cm\) thick is nearly :

  • (1) \(1.4 \times 10^4\, N\)
  • (2) \(2.7 \times 10^4\, N\)
  • (3) \(3.3 \times 10^4\, N\)
  • (4) \(1.1 \times 10^4\, N\)

Question 39:

A cylindrical vessel of cross-section \(A\) contains water to a height \(h\). There is a hole in the bottom of radius '\(a\)'. The time in which it will be emptied is:

  • (1) \(\dfrac{2A}{\pi a^2}\sqrt{\dfrac{h}{g}}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{\sqrt2 A}{\pi a^2}\sqrt{\dfrac{h}{g}}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{2\sqrt2 A}{\pi a^2}\sqrt{\dfrac{h}{g}}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{A}{\sqrt2\pi a^2}\sqrt{\dfrac{h}{g}}\)

Question 40:

Two soap bubbles coalesce to form a single bubble. If \(V\) is the subsequent change in volume of contained air and \(S\) the change in total surface area, \(T\) is the surface tension and \(P\) atmospheric pressure, which of the following relation is correct ?

  • (1) 4PV + 3ST = 0
  • (2) 3PV + 4ST = 0
  • (3) 2PV + 3ST = 0
  • (4) 3PV + 2ST = 0

Question 41:

Hot water cools from \(60^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(50^\circ\mathrm{C}\) in the first 10 minutes and to \(42^\circ\mathrm{C}\) in the next 10 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is:

  • (1) \(25^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (2) \(10^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (3) \(15^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (4) \(20^\circ\mathrm{C}\)

Question 42:

A Carnot engine absorbs \(1000\ \mathrm{J}\) of heat energy from a reservoir at \(127^\circ\mathrm{C}\) and rejects \(600\ \mathrm{J}\) of heat energy during each cycle. The efficiency of engine and temperature of sink will be:

  • (1) \(20\%\) and \(-43^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (2) \(40\%\) and \(-33^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (3) \(50\%\) and \(-20^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (4) \(70\%\) and \(-10^\circ\mathrm{C}\)

Question 43:

At room temperature a diatomic gas is found to have an r.m.s. speed of \(1930\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\). The gas is:

  • (1) \(\mathrm{H_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Cl_2}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{O_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{F_2}\)

Question 44:

Which of the following expressions corresponds to simple harmonic motion along a straight line, where \(x\) is the displacement and \(a, b, c\) are positive constants?

  • (1) \(a + bx - cx^2\)
  • (2) \(bx^2\)
  • (3) \(a - bx + cx^2\)
  • (4) \(-bx\)

Question 45:

A source of sound A emitting waves of frequency \(1800\ \mathrm{Hz}\) is falling towards ground with a terminal speed \(v\). The observer B on the ground directly beneath the source receives waves of frequency \(2150\ \mathrm{Hz}\). The source A receives waves, reflected from ground of frequency nearly: (Speed of sound \(= 343\ \mathrm{m/s}\))

  • (1) \(2150\ \mathrm{Hz}\)
  • (2) \(2500\ \mathrm{Hz}\)
  • (3) \(1800\ \mathrm{Hz}\)
  • (4) \(2400\ \mathrm{Hz}\)

Question 46:

A spherically symmetric charge distribution is characterised by a charge density having the following variation : \(\rho\left(r\right)=\rho_{0}\left(1-\frac{r}{R}\right)\) for \(r < R\) \(\rho \left(r\right)=0 \,\) for \(r\ge R\) Where \(r\) is the distance from the centre of the charge distribution and \(\rho_{0}\) is a constant. The electric field at an internal point \((r < R)\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{\rho_{0}}{4\epsilon_{0}}\left(\frac{r}{3}-\frac{r^{2}}{4R}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\rho_{0}}{\epsilon_{0}}\left(\frac{r}{3}-\frac{r^{2}}{4R}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\rho_{0}}{3\epsilon_{0}}\left(\frac{r}{3}-\frac{r^{2}}{4R}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\rho_{0}}{12\epsilon_{0}}\left(\frac{r}{3}-\frac{r^{2}}{4R}\right)\)

Question 47:

The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is filled with a 'dielectric' whose 'dielectric constant' varies with distance as per the relation : \(K\left(x\right)=K_{0}+\lambda x\left(\lambda=a\,\text{constant}\right)\) The capacitance \(C\), of this capacitor, would be related to its 'vacuum' capacitance \(C_o\) as per the relation :

  • (1) \(C=\frac{\lambda d}{\ell n\left(1+K_{o}\lambda d\right)}C_{o}\)
  • (2) \(C=\frac{\lambda }{d. \ell n\left(1+K_{o}\lambda d\right)}C_{o}\)
  • (3) \(C=\frac{\lambda d}{\ell n\left(1+\lambda d/K_{o}\right)}C_{o}\)
  • (4) \(C=\frac{\lambda d}{d. \ell n\left(1+K_{o}/\lambda d\right)}C_{o}\)

Question 48:

The circuit shown here has two batteries of \(8.0\, V\) and \(16.0\, V\) and three resistors \(3 \Omega , 9 \Omega\) and \(9 \Omega\) and a capacitor \(5.0 \mu F\). How much is the current \(I\) in the circuit in steady state ?

  • (1) 1.6 A
  • (2) 0.67 A
  • (3) 2.5 A
  • (4) 0.25 A

Question 49:

In the experiment of calibration of voltmeter, a standard cell of e.m.f. \(1.1\) volt is balanced against \(440\ \mathrm{cm}\) of potential wire. The potential difference across the ends of resistance is found to balance against \(220\ \mathrm{cm}\) of the wire. The corresponding reading of voltmeter is \(0.5\) volt. The error in the reading of volmeter will be:

  • (1) \(-0.15\) volt
  • (2) \(0.15\) volt
  • (3) \(0.5\) volt
  • (4) \(-0.05\) volt

Question 50:

A positive charge '\(q\)' of mass '\(m\)' is moving along the \(+x\) axis. We wish to apply a uniform magnetic field \(B\) for time \(\Delta t\) so that the charge reverses its direction crossing the \(y\) axis at a distance \(d\). Then:

  • (1) \(B = \dfrac{mv}{qd}\) and \(\Delta t = \dfrac{\pi d}{v}\)
  • (2) \(B = \dfrac{mv}{2qd}\) and \(\Delta t = \dfrac{\pi d}{2v}\)
  • (3) \(B = \dfrac{2mv}{qd}\) and \(\Delta t = \dfrac{\pi d}{2v}\)
  • (4) \(B = \dfrac{2mv}{qd}\) and \(\Delta t = \dfrac{\pi d}{v}\)

Question 51:

Consider two thin identical conducting wires covered with very thin insulating material. One of the wires is bent into a loop and produces magnetic field \(B_1\), at its centre when a current \(I\) passes through it. The ratio \(B_1 : B_2\) is:

  • (1) \(1:1\)
  • (2) \(1:3\)
  • (3) \(1:9\)
  • (4) \(9:1\)

Question 52:

A sinusoidal voltage \(V(t) = 100\sin(500t)\) is applied across a pure inductance of \(L = 0.02\mathrm{H}\). The current through the coil is:

  • (1) \(10\cos(500t)\)
  • (2) \(-10\cos(500t)\)
  • (3) \(10\sin(500t)\)
  • (4) \(-10\sin(500t)\)

Question 53:

A lamp emits monochromatic green light uniformly in all directions. The lamp is \(3\%\) efficient in converting electrical power to electromagnetic waves and consumes \(100 \,W\) of power. The amplitude of the electric field associated with the electromagnetic radiation at a distance of \(5 \,m\) from the lamp will be nearly :

  • (1) \(1.34 \,V/m\)
  • (2) \(2.68 \,V/m\)
  • (3) \(4.02\, V/m\)
  • (4) \(5.36\, V/m\)

Question 54:

The refractive index of the material of a concave lens is \(\mu\). It is immersed in a medium of refractive index \(\mu_1\). A parallel beam of light is incident on the lens. The path of the emergent rays when \(\mu_1 \gt \mu\) is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 55:

Interference pattern is observed at 'P' due to superposition of two rays coming out from a source 'S' as shown in the figure. The value of 'l' for which maxima is obtained at 'P' is: (R is perfect reflecting surface)

  • (1) \(l=\dfrac{2n\lambda}{\sqrt3-1}\)
  • (2) \(l=\dfrac{(2n-1)\lambda}{2(\sqrt3-1)}\)
  • (3) \(l=\dfrac{(2n-1)\lambda\sqrt3}{4(2-\sqrt3)}\)
  • (4) \(l=\dfrac{(2n-1)\lambda}{\sqrt3-1}\)

Question 56:

In an experiment of single slit diffraction pattern, first minimum for red light coincides with first maximum of some other wavelength. If wavelength of red light is \(6600\,\mathrm{\AA}\), then wavelength of first maximum will be:

  • (1) \(3300\,\mathrm{\AA}\)
  • (2) \(4400\,\mathrm{\AA}\)
  • (3) \(5500\,\mathrm{\AA}\)
  • (4) \(6600\,\mathrm{\AA}\)

Question 57:

A beam of light has two wavelengths of \(4972\,\mathrm{\AA}\) and \(6216\,\mathrm{\AA}\) with a total intensity of \(3.6\times10^{-3}\,\mathrm{Wm^{-2}}\) equally distributed among the two wavelengths. The beam falls normally on an area of \(1\,\mathrm{cm^2}\) of a clean metallic surface of work function \(2.3\,\mathrm{eV}\). Assume that there is no loss of light by reflection and that each capable photon ejects one electron. The number of photoelectrons liberated in 2 s is approximately:

  • (1) \(6\times10^{11}\)
  • (2) \(9\times10^{11}\)
  • (3) \(11\times10^{11}\)
  • (4) \(15\times10^{11}\)

Question 58:

For LED's to emit light in visible region of electromagnetic light, it should have energy band gap in the range of:

  • (1) \(0.1\,\mathrm{eV}\) to \(0.4\,\mathrm{eV}\)
  • (2) \(0.5\,\mathrm{eV}\) to \(0.8\,\mathrm{eV}\)
  • (3) \(0.9\,\mathrm{eV}\) to \(1.6\,\mathrm{eV}\)
  • (4) \(1.7\,\mathrm{eV}\) to \(3.0\,\mathrm{eV}\)

Question 59:

A piece of bone of an animal from a ruin is found to have \({}^{14}\mathrm{C}\) activity of 12 disintegrations per minute per gm of its carbon content. The \({}^{14}\mathrm{C}\) activity of a living animal is 16 disintegrations per minute per gm. How long ago nearly did the animal die? (Given half life of \({}^{14}\mathrm{C}\) is \(t_{1/2}=5760\) years)

  • (1) 1672 years
  • (2) 2391 years
  • (3) 3291 years
  • (4) 4453 years

Question 60:

For sky wave propagation, the radio waves must have a frequency range in between :

  • (1) 1 MHz to 2 MHz
  • (2) 5 MHz to 25 MHz
  • (3) 35 MHz to 40 MHz
  • (4) 45 MHz to 50 MHz

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

The amount of \(BaSO _{4}\) formed upon mixing \(100 \,mL\) of \(20.8 \% BaCl _{2}\) solution with \(50 \,mL\) of \(9.8 \% H _{2} SO _{4}\) solution will be : \(( Ba =137, Cl =35.5, S =32, H =1\) and \(O =16)\)

  • (1) 23.3 g
  • (2) 11.65 g
  • (3) 30.6 g
  • (4) 33.2 g

Question 62:

If \(m\) and \(e\) are the mass and charge of the revolving electron in the orbit of radius \(r\) for hydrogen atom, the total energy of the revolving electron will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{e^{2}}{r}\)
  • (2) \(- \frac{e^{2}}{r}\)
  • (3) \( \frac{me^{2}}{r}\)
  • (4) \( -\frac{1}{2} \frac{e^{2}}{r}\)

Question 63:

The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass \(6.63\) g moving with a velocity of \(100\,\mathrm{ms^{-1}}\) is:

  • (1) \(10^{-33}\,\mathrm{m}\)
  • (2) \(10^{-35}\,\mathrm{m}\)
  • (3) \(10^{-31}\,\mathrm{m}\)
  • (4) \(10^{-25}\,\mathrm{m}\)

Question 64:

Excited hydrogen atom emits light in the ultraviolet region at \(2.47 \times 10^{15}\, Hz\). With this frequency, the energy of a single photon is : \((h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34}\, Js)\)

  • (1) \(8.041 \times 10^{-40}\) J
  • (2) \(2.680 \times 10^{-19}\) J
  • (3) \(1.640 \times 10^{-18}\) J
  • (4) \(6.111 \times 10^{-17}\) J

Question 65:

Similarity in chemical properties of the atoms of elements in a group of the Periodic table is most closely related to :

  • (1) atomic numbers
  • (2) atomic masses
  • (3) number of principal energy levels
  • (4) number of valence electrons

Question 66:

Which of the following arrangements represents the increasing order (smallest to largest) of ionic radii of the given species \(O^{2-}, S^{2-}, N^{3-}, P^{3-} ?\)

  • (1) \(O^{2-} < N^{3-} < S^{2-} < P^{3-}\)
  • (2) \(O^{2-} < P^{3-} < N^{3-} < S^{2-}\)
  • (3) \(N^{3-} < O^{2-} < P^{3-} < S^{2-}\)
  • (4) \(N^{3-} < S^{2-} < O^{2-} < P^{3-}\)

Question 67:

Which of the following molecules has two sigma (\(\sigma\)) and two pi (\(\pi\)) bonds?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{C_2H_4}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{N_2F_2}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{C_2H_2Cl_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{HCN}\)

Question 68:

The (\(\mathrm{S^\circ}\)) of the following substances are: \(\mathrm{CH_4}\)(g) \(186.2\,\mathrm{JK^{-1}mol^{-1}}\), \(\mathrm{O_2}\)(g) \(205.2\,\mathrm{JK^{-1}mol^{-1}}\), \(\mathrm{CO_2}\)(g) \(213.6\,\mathrm{JK^{-1}mol^{-1}}\), \(\mathrm{H_2O}\)(g) \(69.9\,\mathrm{JK^{-1}mol^{-1}}\). The entropy change (\(\Delta S^\circ\)) for the reaction \(\mathrm{CH_4(g)+2O_2(g)\to CO_2(g)+2H_2O(l)}\) is:

  • (1) \(-312.5\,\mathrm{J\,K^{-1}mol^{-1}}\)
  • (2) \(-242.8\,\mathrm{JK^{-1}mol^{-1}}\)
  • (3) \(-108.1\,\mathrm{JK^{-1}mol^{-1}}\)
  • (4) \(-37.6\,\mathrm{J\,K^{-1}mol^{-1}}\)

Question 69:

The standard enthalpy of formation (\(\Delta_f H^\circ_{298}\)) for methane, \(\mathrm{CH_4}\) is \(-74.9\,\mathrm{kJ\,mol^{-1}}\). In order to calculate the average energy given out in the formation of a C - H bond from this it is necessary to know which one of the following?

  • (1) The dissociation energy of the hydrogen molecule, \(\mathrm{H_2}\).
  • (2) The first four ionisation energies of carbon.
  • (3) The dissociation energy of \(\mathrm{H_2}\) and enthalpy and sublimation of carbon (graphite).
  • (4) The first four ionisation energies of carbon and electron affinity of hydrogen.

Question 70:

What happens when an inert gas is added to an equilibrium keeping volume unchanged ?

  • (1) More product will form
  • (2) Less product will form
  • (3) More reactant will form
  • (4) Equilibrium will remain unchanged

Question 71:

The conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is :

  • (1) \(N^{-3}\)
  • (2) \(N^{-}_{3}\)
  • (3) \(N^{-}_{2}\)
  • (4) \(HN^{-}_{3}\)

Question 72:

Hydrogen peroxide acts both as an oxidising and as a reducing agent depending upon the nature of the reacting species. In which of the following cases \(H_2O_2\) acts as a reducing agent in acid medium ?

  • (1) \(MnO^{-}_{4}\)
  • (2) \(Cr_{2}O^{2-}_{7}\)
  • (3) \(SO^{2-}_{3}\)
  • (4) \(KI\)

Question 73:

Which one of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism?

  • (1) Lactic acid
  • (2) Tartaric acid
  • (3) Maleic acid
  • (4) a-amino acids

Question 74:

on mercuration-demercuration produces the major product:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 75:

In the presence of peroxide, \(HCl\) and \(HI\) do not give anti-Markownikoff' s addition to alkenes because :

  • (1) One of the steps is endothermic in HCl and HI
  • (2) Both HCl and HI are strong acids
  • (3) HCl is oxidizing and the HI is reducing
  • (4) All the steps are exothermic in HCl and HI

Question 76:

Global warming is due to increase of:

  • (1) methane and nitrous oxide in atmosphere
  • (2) methane and \(\mathrm{CO_2}\) in atmosphere
  • (3) methane and \(\mathrm{O_3}\) in atmosphere
  • (4) methane and CO in atmosphere

Question 77:

In a monoclinic unit cell, the relation of sides and angles are respectively :

  • (1) \(a = b \ne c\) and \(\alpha = \beta = \gamma= 90^{\circ}\)
  • (2) \(a \ne b \ne c\) and \(\alpha = \beta = \gamma= 90^{\circ} \ne \alpha\)
  • (3) \(a \ne b \ne c\) and \(\beta = \gamma= 90^{\circ} \ne \alpha\)
  • (4) \(a \ne b \ne c\) and \(\alpha \ne \beta \ne\gamma\ne 90^{\circ}\)

Question 78:

How many electrons would be required to deposit \(6.35 \,g\) of copper at the cathode during the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of copper sulphate ? (Atomic mass of copper \(= 63.5\, u, N_A =\) Avogadro's constant) :

  • (1) \(\frac{N_{A}}{20}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{N_{A}}{10}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{N_{A}}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{N_{A}}{2}\)

Question 79:

The rate coefficient \((k)\) for a particular reactions is \(1.3 \times 10^{-4}\, M^{-1}\, s^{-1}\) at \(100^{\circ}C\), and \(1.3 \times 10^{-3}\,M^{-1}s^{-1}\) at \(150^{\circ}C\) What is the energy of activation \((E_{a})\) (in \(kJ\)) for this reaction ? (\(R =\) molar gas constant \(= 8.314 \,JK^{-1}\,mol^{-1})\)

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 60
  • (3) 99
  • (4) 132

Question 80:

Which of the following xenon-oxo compounds may not be obtained by hydrolysis of xenon fluorides?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{XeO_2F_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{XeOF_4}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{XeO_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{XeO_4}\)

Question 81:

Which one of the following exhibits the large number of oxidation states?

  • (1) Ti(22)
  • (2) V(23)
  • (3) Cr(24)
  • (4) Mn(25)

Question 82:

Copper becomes green when exposed to moist air for a long period. This is due to:

  • (1) the formation of a layer of cupric oxide on the surface of copper.
  • (2) the formation of a layer of basic carbonate of copper on the surface of copper.
  • (3) the formation of a layer of cupric hydroxide on the surface of copper.
  • (4) the formation of basic copper sulphate layer on the surface of the metal.

Question 83:

Among the following species the one which causes the highest CFSE, \(\Delta_0\) as a ligand is:

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CN^-}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{NH_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{F^-}\)
  • (4) CO

Question 84:

Which one of the following complexes will most likely absorb visible light? (At nos. Sc = 21, Ti = 22, V = 23, Zn = 30)

  • (1) \([\mathrm{Sc(H_2O)_6}]^{3+}\)
  • (2) \([\mathrm{Ti(NH_3)_6}]^{4+}\)
  • (3) \([\mathrm{V(NH_3)_6}]^{3+}\)
  • (4) \([\mathrm{Zn(NH_3)_6}]^{2+}\)

Question 85:

Conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to chloro benzene is an example of which of the following reactions ?

  • (1) Claisen
  • (2) Friedel-craft
  • (3) Sandmeyer
  • (4) Wurtz

Question 86:

The major product obtained in the photo catalysed bromination of 2-methylbutane is:

  • (1) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
  • (2) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
  • (3) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
  • (4) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Question 87:

In the Victor-Meyer's test, the colour given by \(1^{\circ}\), \(2^{\circ}\)and \(3^{\circ}\) alcohols are respectively :

  • (1) Red, colourless, blue
  • (2) Red, blue, colourless
  • (3) Colourless, red, blue
  • (4) Red, blue, violet

Question 88:

Phthalic acid reacts with resorcinol in the presence of concentrated \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\) to give:

  • (1) Phenolphthalein
  • (2) Alizarin
  • (3) Coumarin
  • (4) Fluorescein

Question 89:

Aminoglycosides are usually used as :

  • (1) antibiotic
  • (2) analgesic
  • (3) hypnotic
  • (4) antifertility

Question 90:

Which of the following will not show mutarotation?

  • (1) Maltose
  • (2) Lactose
  • (3) Glucose
  • (4) Sucrose

JEE Main 2014 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2014 April 12 Difficulty Level

In terms of difficulty level, B.E/B.Tech was of moderate to difficult level.

JEE Main 2014 Question Paper Analysis

  • The question paper comprised a total of 90 questions divided among 3 sections i.e, Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Each section consists of 30 questions
  • Physics Paper was moderate to difficult level
  • Chemistry Paper was easy
  • Maths Paper was Lengthy but not tough

For every correct answer, candidates got 4 and for each wrong attempt -1 marks were deducted.