JEE Main 2024 April 5 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on April 5, 2024, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 April 5 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2024 April 5 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let the circle \(C_{1}: x^{2}+y^{2}-2(x+y)+1=0\) and \(C_{2}\) be a circle having centre at \((-1, 0)\) and radius 2. If the line of the common chord of \(C_{1}\) and \(C_{2}\) intersects the y-axis at the point P, then the square of the distance of P from the centre of \(C_{1}\) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 4

Question 2:

Let \(f, g: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\) be defined as: \(f(x) = |x - 1|\) and \(g(x) = \begin{cases} e^x, & x \geq 0 \\ x + 1, & x \leq 0 \end{cases}\) Then the function \(f(g(x))\) is

  • (1) neither one-one nor onto.
  • (2) one-one but not onto.
  • (3) both one-one and onto.
  • (4) onto but not one-one.

Question 3:

Let ABCD and AEFG be squares of side 4 and 2 units, respectively. The point E is on the line segment AB and the point F is on the diagonal AC. Then the radius r of the circle passing through the point F and touching the line segments BC and CD satisfies :

  • (1) r = 1
  • (2) \(\ r^{2} - 8r + 8 = 0\)
  • (3) \(\ 2r^{2} - 4r + 1 = 0\)
  • (4) \(\ 2r^{2} - 8r + 7 = 0\)

Question 4:

Let \((\alpha, \beta, \gamma)\) be the point \((8, 5, 7)\) in the line \(\frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y+1}{3} = \frac{z-2}{5}\). Then \(\alpha + \beta + \gamma\) is equal to

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 20

Question 5:

Let \(S_1 = \{z \in \mathbb{C} : |z| \leq 5\}\),
\(S_2 = \left\{z \in \mathbb{C} : \text{Im}\left(\frac{z + 1 - \sqrt{3}i}{1 - \sqrt{3}i}\right) \geq 0\right\}\) and
\(S_3 = \{z \in \mathbb{C} : \text{Re}(z) \geq 0\}\). Then

  • (1) \(\frac{125\pi}{6}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{125\pi}{24}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{125\pi}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{125\pi}{12}\)

Question 6:

If the constant term in the expansion of \(\left(\frac{\sqrt[5]{3}}{x}+\frac{2x}{\sqrt[3]{5}}\right)^{12}\), \(x \neq 0\), is \(\alpha \times 2^8 \times \sqrt[5]{3}\), then \(25\alpha\) is

  • (1) 639
  • (2) 724
  • (3) 693
  • (4) 742

Question 7:

Let \(\vec{a}\) = 2\(\hat{i}\) + 5\(\hat{j}\) - \(\hat{k}\), \(\vec{b}\) = 2\(\hat{i}\) - 2\(\hat{j}\) + 2\(\hat{k}\)
and \(\vec{c}\) be three vectors such that
(\(\vec{c}\) + \(\hat{i}\)) \(\times\) (\(\vec{a}\) + \(\vec{b}\) + \(\hat{i}\)) = \(\vec{a}\) \(\times\) (\(\vec{c}\) + \(\hat{i})\) . \(\vec{a}\).\(\vec{c}\) = -29,)
then \(\vec{c}\).(-2\(\hat{i}\) + \(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{k}\)) is equal to :

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 12

Question 8:

Let A(-1, 1) and B(2, 3) be two points and P be a variable point above the line AB such that the area of \(\triangle APB\) is 10. If the locus of P is \(ax + by = 15\), then \(5a + 2b\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{12}{5}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{6}{5}\)
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 6

Question 9:

The values of \(m, n\), for which the system of equations
\(x + y + z = 4,\)
\(2x + 5y + 5z = 17,\)
\(x + 2y + mz = n\)
has infinitely many solutions, satisfy the equation :

  • (1) \(m^{2} + n^{2} - m - n = 46\)
  • (2) \(m^{2} + n^{2} + m + n = 64\)
  • (3) \(m^{2} + n^{2} + mn = 68\)
  • (4) \(m^{2} + n^{2} - mn = 39\)

Question 10:

If \(y(\theta) = \frac{2\cos\theta + \cos2\theta}{\cos3\theta + 4\cos2\theta + 5\cos\theta + 2}\), then at \(\theta = \frac{\pi}{2}, y'' + y' + y\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) 2

Question 11:

Let \(\beta(m, n) = \int_{0}^{1}x^{m-1}(1-x)^{n-1}dx\), \(m, n > 0\). If \(\int_{0}^{1}(1-x^{10})^{20}dx = a\beta(b,c)\), then \(100(a+b+x)\) equals

  • (1) 1021
  • (2) 1120
  • (3) 2012
  • (4) 2120

Question 12:

Let \(f: [-1, 2] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\) be given by \(f(x) = 2x^2 + x + [x^2] - [x]\), where \([t]\) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \(t\). The number of points, where \(f\) is not continuous, is:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5

Question 13:

Let the set \(S = \{2, 4, 8, 16, ..., 512\}\) be partitioned into 3 sets \(A, B, C\) with equal number of elements such that \(A \cup B \cup C = S\) and \(A \cap B = B \cap C = A \cap C = \phi\). The maximum number of such possible partitions of \(S\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1680
  • (2) 1520
  • (3) 1710
  • (4) 1640

Question 14:

The coefficients a, b, c in the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. If the probability of this equation having one real root bigger than the other is p, then 216p equals :

  • (1) 57
  • (2) 38
  • (3) 19
  • (4) 76

Question 15:

Let \(\alpha \beta \neq 0\) and \(A = \begin{bmatrix} \beta & \alpha & 3 \\ \alpha & \alpha & \beta \\ -\beta & \alpha & 2\alpha \end{bmatrix}\). If \(B = \begin{bmatrix} 3\alpha & -9 & 3\alpha \\ -\alpha & 7 & -2\alpha \\ -2\alpha & 5 & -2\beta \end{bmatrix}\) is the matrix of cofactors of the elements of A, then det(AB) is equal to:

  • (1) 343
  • (2) 125
  • (3) 64
  • (4) 216

Question 16:

For \(x \geq 0\), the least value of \(K\), for which \(4^{1+x}, 4^{1-x}, \frac{K}{2}, 16^{x}, 16^{-x}\) are three consecutive terms of an A.P. is equal to:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 16

Question 17:

The area enclosed between the curves \(y = x|x|\) and \(y = x - |x|\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (3) 1
  • (4) \(\frac{4}{3}\)

Question 18:

60 words can be made using all the letters of the word BHBJO, with or without meaning. If these words are written as in a dictionary, then the 50th word is :

  • (1) OBBHJ
  • (2) HBBJO
  • (3) OBBJH
  • (4) JBBOH

Question 19:

Consider three vectors \(\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}\). Let \(|\vec{a}| = 2, |\vec{b}| = 3\) and \(\vec{a} = \vec{b} \times \vec{c}\). If \(\alpha \in [0, \frac{\pi}{3}]\) is the angle between the vectors \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\), then the minimum value of \(27|\vec{c}| - |\vec{a}|^2\) is equal to:

  • (1) 110
  • (2) 105
  • (3) 124
  • (4) 121

Question 20:

The differential equation of the family of circles passing the origin and having center at the line y = x is:

  • (1) \((x^2 - y^2 + 2xy)dx = (x^2 - y^2 + 2xy)dy\)
  • (2) \((x^2 + y^2 + 2xy)dx = (x^2 + y^2 - 2xy)dy\)
  • (3) \((x^2 - y^2 + 2xy)dx = (x^2 - y^2 - 2xy)dy\)
  • (4) \((x^2 + y^2 - 2xy)dx = (x^2 + y^2 + 2xy)dy\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation\[\frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{2x}{\left( 1 + x^2 \right)^2} y = x e^{\frac{1}{1+x^2}}, \quad y(0) = 0. \] Then the area enclosed by the curve \[ f(x) = y(x) e^{\frac{1}{1+x^2}} \]and the line \( y - x = 4 \) is _______.


Question 22:

Let the mean and the standard deviation of the probability distribution be deviationbe \(\mu\) and \(\sigma\), respectively. If \(\sigma - \mu = 2\), then \(\sigma + \mu\) is equal to ________.


Question 23:

Let the maximum and minimum values of \[\left( \sqrt{8x - x^2 - 12 - 4} \right)^2 + (x - 7)^2, \quad x \in \mathbb{R} \text{ be } M \text{ and } m \text{ respectively}.\] Then \( M^2 - m^2 \) is equal to _____.


Question 24:

Let the point \((-1, \alpha, \beta)\) lie on the line of the shortest distance between the lines \[\frac{x + 2}{-3} = \frac{y - 2}{4} = \frac{z - 5}{2} \quad \text{and} \quad \frac{x + 2}{-1} = \frac{y + 6}{2} = \frac{z - 1}{0}.\] Then \((\alpha - \beta)^2\) is equal to ______.


Question 25:

If \[1 + \frac{\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{2}}{2\sqrt{3}} + \frac{5 - 2\sqrt{6}}{18} + \frac{9\sqrt{3} - 11\sqrt{2}}{36\sqrt{3}} + \frac{49 - 20\sqrt{6}}{180} + \cdots\] up to \(\infty = 2 \left( \sqrt{\frac{b}{a}} + 1 \right) \log_e \left( \frac{a}{b} \right)\), where \(a\) and \(b\) are integers with \(\gcd(a, b) = 1\), then \(11a + 18b\) is equal to _________.


Question 26:

Let \( a > 0 \) be a root of the equation \( 2x^2 + x - 2 = 0 \). If \[ \lim_{x \to \frac{1}{a}} \frac{16 \left( 1 - \cos(2 + x - 2x^2) \right)}{1 - ax^2} = \alpha + \beta \sqrt{17}, \] where \( \alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{Z} \), then \( \alpha + \beta \) is equal to _____.


Question 27:

If \( f(t) = \int_0^{\pi} \frac{2x \, dx}{1 - \cos^2 t \sin^2 x} \), \( 0 < t < \pi \), then the value of \[ \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\pi^2 \, dt}{f(t)} \] equals _____.


Question 28:

The number of real solutions of the equation x |x + 5| + 2|x + 7| – 2 = 0 is _____.


Question 29:

The number of solutions of \[\sin^2 x + (2 + 2x - x^2) \sin x - 3(x - 1)^2 = 0, \quad \text{where } -\pi \leq x \leq \pi,\] is


Question 30:

Let a line perpendicular to the line \( 2x - y = 10 \) touch the parabola \( y^2 = 4(x - 9) \) at the point \( P \). The distance of the point \( P \) from the centre of the circle \[ x^2 + y^2 - 14x - 8y + 56 = 0 \] is _____.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a constant power source. Its displacement in time t is proportional to :

  • (1) t2
  • (2) \(t^\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (3) \(t^\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (4) t

Question 32:

What is the dimensional formula of \( ab^{-1} \) in the equation \[ \left( P + \frac{a}{V^2} \right) (V - b) = RT, \] where letters have their usual meaning.

  • (1) \( [M^0 L^3 T^{-2}] \)
  • (2) \( [M L^2 T^{-2}] \)
  • (3) \( [M^{-1} L^5 T^3] \)
  • (4) \( [M^6 L^7 T^4] \)

Question 33:

A particle moves in the x-y plane under the influence of a force \( \vec{F} \) such that its linear momentum is \[ \vec{P}(t) = \hat{i} \cos(kt) - \hat{j} \sin(kt). \] If \( k \) is constant, the angle between \( \vec{F} \) and \( \vec{P} \) will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)

Question 34: Match List-I with List-II :-
List-I
EM-Wave
List-II
Wavelength Range
(A) Infra-red(III) 1 mm to 700 nm
(B) Ultraviolet(II) 400 nm to 1 nm
(C) X-rays(IV) 1 nm to \(10^{-3}\) nm
(D) Gamma rays(I) \(<10^{-3}\) nm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Question 35:

During an adiabatic process, if the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature, then the ratio of \(\frac{C_p}{C_v}\) for the gas is : 

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{9}{7}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{5}\)

Question 36:

A heavy box of mass 50 kg is moving on a horizontal surface. If co-efficient of kinetic friction between the box and horizontal surface is 0.3 then force of kinetic friction is :

  • (1) 14.7 N
  • (2) 147 N
  • (3) 1.47 N
  • (4) 1470 N

Question 37:

A man carrying a monkey on his shoulder does cycling smoothly on a circular track of radius \( 9 \, \text{m} \) and completes \( 120 \) revolutions in \( 3 \) minutes. The magnitude of centripetal acceleration of the monkey is (in \( \text{m/s}^2 \)):

  • (1) zero
  • (2) \( 16 \pi^2 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)
  • (3) \( 4 \pi^2 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)
  • (4) \( 57600 \pi^2 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)

Question 38:

A series LCR circuit is subjected to an AC signal of 200 V, 50 Hz. If the voltage across the inductor (L = 10 mH) is 31.4 V, then the current in this circuit is ________ :

  • (1) 68 A
  • (2) 63 A
  • (3) 10 A
  • (4) 10 mA

Question 39:

Which of the following statement is not true about stopping potential (\( V_0 \))?

  • (1) It depends on the nature of emitter material.
  • (2) It depends upon frequency of the incident light.
  • (3) It increases with increase in intensity of the incident light.
  • (4) It is \( \frac{1}{e} \) times the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted.

Question 40:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : When the white light passed through a prism, the red light bends lesser than yellow and violet.
Statement II : The refractive indices are different for different wavelengths in dispersive medium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Question 41: Match List-I with List-II :
List-IList-II
(A) A force that restores an elastic body of unit area to its original state(I) Bulk modulus
(B) Two equal and opposite forces parallel to opposite faces(IV) Shear modulus
(C) Forces perpendicular everywhere to the surface per unit area same everywhere(III) Stress
(D) Two equal and opposite forces perpendicular to opposite faces(II) Young's modulus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Question 42:

A satellite revolving around a planet in stationary orbit has time period 6 hours. The mass of planet is one-fourth the mass of earth. The radius orbit of planet is: (Given = Radius of geostationary orbit for earth is \(4.2 \times 10^4\) km

  • (1) \(1.4 \times 10^4\) km
  • (2) \(8.4 \times 10^1\) km
  • (3) \(1.68 \times 10^5\) km
  • (4) \(1.05 \times 10^4\) km

Question 43:

A vernier callipers has 20 divisions on the vernier scale, which coincides with 19th division on the main scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. One main scale division is equal to ____mm.

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0.5
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 5

Question 44:

The ratio of heat dissipated per second through the resistance 5 ohm and 10 ohm in the circuit given below is :
Circuit diagram

  • (1) 1:2
  • (2) 2:1
  • (3) 4:1
  • (4) 1:1

Question 45:

The output (Y) of logic circuit given below is 0 only when :

logic circuit

  • (1) A = 1, B = 0
  • (2) A = 0, B = 0
  • (3) A = 1, B = 1
  • (4) A = 0, B = 1

Question 46:

The angular momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is proportional to: (Where \( r \) is the radius of the orbit of the electron)

  • (1) \( \sqrt{r} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{r} \)
  • (3) \( r \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{r}} \)

Question 47:

The vehicles carrying inflammable fluids usually have metallic chains touching the ground :

  • (1) To conduct excess charge due to air friction to ground and prevent sparking.
  • (2) To alert other vehicles.
  • (3) To protect tyres from catching dirt from ground.
  • (4) It is a custom.

Question 48:

A galvanometer of resistance \( 100 \, \Omega \) when connected in series with \( 400 \, \Omega \) measures a voltage of up to \( 10 \, V \). The value of resistance required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter to read up to \( 10 \, A \) is \( x \times 10^{-2} \, \Omega \). The value of \( x \) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 800
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 200

Question 49:

The electrostatic force (\( \vec{F_1} \)) and magnetic force (\( \vec{F_2} \)) acting on a charge \( q \) moving with velocity \( \vec{v} \) can be written:

  • (1) \( \vec{F_1} = q \vec{V} \cdot \vec{E}, \quad \vec{F_2} = q (\vec{B} \cdot \vec{V}) \)
  • (2) \( \vec{F_1} = q \vec{B}, \quad \vec{F_2} = q (\vec{B} \times \vec{V}) \)
  • (3) \( \vec{F_1} = q \vec{E}, \quad \vec{F_2} = q (\vec{V} \times \vec{B}) \)
  • (4) \( \vec{F_1} = q \vec{E}, \quad \vec{F_2} = q (\vec{B} \times \vec{V}) \)

Question 50:

If n is the number density and d is the diameter of the molecule, then the average distance covered by a molecule between two successive collisions (i.e. mean free path) is represented by :

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 n \pi d^2}} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2 n \pi d^2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi d^2}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 n^2 \pi^2 d^2}} \)

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

The electric field at point p due to an electric dipole is E. The electric field at point R on equitorial line will be\(\frac{E}{x}\). The value of x :


Question 52:

A sonometer wire of resonating length 90 cm has a fundamental frequency of 400 Hz when kept under some tension. The resonating length of the wire with fundamental frequency of 600 Hz under same tension _______ cm.


Question 53:

In a single slit experiment, a parallel beam of green light of wavelength 550 nm passes through a slit of width 0.20 mm. The transmitted light is collected on a screen 100 cm away. The distance of first order minima from the central maximum will be\(x \times 10^{–5}\)m. The value of x is :


Question 54:

A hollow sphere is rolling on a plane surface about its axis of symmetry. The ratio of rotational kinetic energy to its total kinetic energy is \(\frac{x}{5}\). The value of x is ________.


Question 55:

A wire of resistance 20 \(\Omega\) is divided into 10 equal parts. A combination of two parts are connected in parallel and so on. Now resulting pairs of parallel combination are connected in series. The equivalent resistance of final combination is _______ \(\Omega\).


Question 56:

The maximum height reached by a projectile is 64 m. If the initial velocity is halved, the new maximum height of the projectile is ______ m.


Question 57:

The shortest wavelength of the spectral lines in the Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum is 915 Å. The longest wavelength of spectral lines in the Balmer series will be _______ Å.


Question 58:

The current in an inductor is given by I = (3t + 8) where t is in second. The magnitude of induced emf produced in the inductor is 12 mV. The self inductance of the inductor _______ mH.


Question 59:

A hydraulic press containing water has two arms with diameters as mentioned in the figure. A force of 10 N is applied on the surface of water in the thinner arm. The force required to be applied on the surface of water in the thicker arm to maintain equilibrium of water is _______ N.
Hydraullic press


Question 60:

A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 'm' number of turns. It carries a current of 5 A. If the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is \(6.28 \times 10^{-3}\) T, then the value of m is:


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

The number of complexes from the following with no electrons in the t\(_{2g}\) orbital is _______.
TiCl\(_4\), [MnO\(_4\)]\(^{-}\), [FeO\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\), [FeCl\(_4\)]\(^{-}\), [CoCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 2

Question 62: Match List - I with List - II.
List - IList - II
(A) ICl(IV) Linear
(B) ICl3(I) T-Shape
(C) ClF5(II) Square pyramidal
(D) IF7(III) Pentagonal bipyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)–(I), (B)–(IV), C–(III), D–(II)
  • (2) (A)–(I), (B)–(III), C–(II), D–(IV)
  • (3) (A)–(IV), (B)–(I), C–(II), D–(III)
  • (4) (A)–(IV), (B)–(III), C–(II), D–(I)

Question 63:

The correct nomenclature for the following compound is:
2–formyl–4–hydroxyhept–7–enoic acid

  • (1) 2–carboxy–4–hydroxyhept–6–enal
  • (2) 2–carboxy–4–hydroxyhept–7–enal
  • (3) 2–formyl–4–hydroxyhept–6–enoic acid
  • (4) 2–formyl–4–hydroxyhept–7–enoic acid

Question 64:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: On passing HCl\(_{(g)}\) through a saturated solution of BaCl\(_2\), at room temperature white turbidity appears.
Statement II: When HCl gas is passed through a saturated solution of NaCl, sodium chloride is precipitated due to common ion effect.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 65: Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Pair of Compounds)List - II (Isomerism)
(A) n-propanol and Isopropanol(I) Metamerism
(B) Methoxypropane and ethoxyethane(IV) Functional Isomerism
(C) Propanone and propanal(III) Position Isomerism
(D) Neopentane and Isopentane(II) Chain Isomerism
  • (1) (A)–(II), (B)–(I), (C)–(IV), (D)–(III)
  • (2) (A)–(III), (B)–(I), (C)–(II), (D)–(IV)
  • (3) (A)–(I), (B)–(III), (C)–(IV), (D)–(II)
  • (4) (A)–(III), (B)–(I), (C)–(IV), (D)–(II)

Question 66:

While preparing crystals of Mohr's salt, dil. \(H_2SO_4\) is added to a mixture of ferrous sulphate and ammonium sulphate, before dissolving this mixture in water, dil. \(H_2SO_4\) is added here to:

  • (1) prevent the hydrolysis of ferrous sulphate
  • (2) prevent the hydrolysis of ammonium sulphate
  • (3) make the medium strongly acidic
  • (4) increase the rate of formation of crystals

Question 67:

Identify the major product in the following reaction.
Chemical reaction

  • (1) Product 1
  • (2) Product 2
  • (3) Product 3
  • (4) Product 4

Question 68:

Identify A and B in the given chemical reaction sequence : -
chemical reaction

  • (1) Product 1
  • (2) Product 2
  • (3) Product 3
  • (4) Product 4

Question 69:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): NH\(_3\) and NF\(_3\) molecule have pyramidal shape with a lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom. The resultant dipole moment of NH\(_3\) is greater than that of NF\(_3\).
Reason (R): In NH\(_3\), the orbital dipole due to lone pair is in the same direction as the resultant dipole moment of the N\(-\)H bonds. F is the most electronegative element.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

Question 70:

Consider the given chemical reaction :
reaction 1
Product ''A'' is :

  • (1) picric acid
  • (2) oxalic acid
  • (3) acetic acid
  • (4) adipic acid

Question 71:

The correct statements from the following are:
(A) The decreasing order of atomic radii of group 13 elements is Tl \(>\) In \(>\) Ga \(>\) Al \(>\) B.
(B) Down the group 13 electronegativity decreases from top to bottom.
(C) Al dissolves in dil. HCl and liberate H\(_2\), but conc. HNO\(_3\) renders Al passive by forming a protective oxide layer on the surface.
(D) All elements of group 13 exhibits highly stable +1 oxidation state.
(E) Hybridisation of Al in [Al(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\) ion is sp\(^3\)d\(^2\).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) (C) and (E) only
  • (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
  • (4) (A) and (C) only

Question 72:

Chemical reaction
Consider the above reaction sequence and identify the major product P.

  • (1) Methane
  • (2) Methanal
  • (3) Methoxymethane
  • (4) Methanoic acid

Question 73:

Coagulation of egg, on heating is because of :

  • (1) Denaturation of protein occurs
  • (2) The secondary structure of protein remains unchanged
  • (3) Breaking of the peptide linkage in the primary structure of protein occurs
  • (4) Biological property of protein remains unchanged

Question 74:

Which one of the following reactions is NOT possible?

  • (1) Reaction 1
  • (2) Reaction 2
  • (3) Reaction 3
  • (4) Reaction 4

Question 75:

The number of ions from the following that have the ability to liberate hydrogen from a dilute acid is _______. Ti2+, Cr2+ and V2+.

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 1

Question 76:

The number of moles of methane required to produce 11g \(CO_2\) (g) after complete combustion is:
(Given molar mass of methane in g mol–1 : 16)

  • (1) 0.75
  • (2) 0.25
  • (3) 0.35
  • (4) 0.5

Question 77:

The quantity of silver deposited when one coulomb charge is passed through\(AgNO_3\)solution:

  • (1) 0.1 g atom of silver
  • (2) 1 chemical equivalent of silver
  • (3) 1 g of silver
  • (4) 1 electrochemical equivalent of silver

Question 78:

The metal atom present in the complex MABXL (where A, B, X and L are unidentate ligands and M is metal) involves sp3 hybridization. The number of geometrical isomers exhibited by the complex is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 79:

For the electrochemical cell
M|M\(^{2+}\)||X\(^{2-}\)|X
If \(E^0_{(M^{2+}/M)} = 0.46\) V and \(E^0_{(X/X^{2-})} = 0.34\) V.
Which of the following is correct?

  • (1) \(E_{cell} = -0.80\) V
  • (2) M + X \(\rightarrow\) M\(^{2+}\) + X\(^{2-}\) is a spontaneous reaction
  • (3) M\(^{2+}\) + X\(^{2-}\) \(\rightarrow\) M + X is a spontaneous reaction
  • (4) \(E_{cell} = 0.80\) V

Question 80:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The metallic radius of Na is 1.86 Å and the ionic radius of Na\(^+\) is lesser than 1.86 Å.
Statement II: Ions are always smaller in size than the corresponding elements.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

In an atom, total number of electrons having quantum numbers n = 4, \(|m_l|\) = 1 and \(m_s\) = \(-\frac{1}{2}\) is ________.


Question 82:

The product Ⓒ in the following sequence of reactions has _______ π bonds.
Chemical reaction


Question 83:

Using the given figure, the ratio of \(R_f\) values of sample A and sample C is x × 10–2. Value of x is __________.
Paper chromatography


Question 84:

Considering acetic acid dissociates in water, its dissociation constant is \(6.25 \times 10^{-5}\). If 5 mL of acetic acid is dissolved in 1 litre water, the solution will freeze at \(-x \times 10^{-1}\) °C, provided pure water freezes at 0 °C. \(x = \) _____ (Nearest integer)
Given: \((K_f)_{water} = 1.86\) K kg mol\(^{-1}\)
density of acetic acid is 1.2 g mol\(^{-1}\)
molar mass of water = 18 g mol\(^{-1}\)
molar mass of acetic acid = 60 g mol\(^{-1}\)
density of water = 1 g cm\(^{-3}\)
Acetic acid dissociates as CH\(_3\)COOH \(\rightleftharpoons\) CH\(_3\)COO\(^-\) + H\(^+\)


Question 85:

Consider the following single step reaction in gas phase at constant temperature.
\(2A_{(g)} + B_{(g)} → C_{(g)}\)
The initial rate of the reaction is recorded as \(r_1\) when the reaction starts with 1.5 atm pressure of A and 0.7 atm pressure of B. After some time, the rate \(r_2\) is recorded when the pressure of C becomes 0.5 atm. The ratio \(r_1 : r_2\) is _______ \(\times 10^1\). (Nearest integer)


Question 86:

The fusion of chromite ore with sodium carbonate in the presence of air leads to the formation of products A and B along with the evolution of CO\(_2\). The sum of spin-only magnetic moment values of A and B is ______ B.M. (Nearest integer)
(Given atomic number: C : 6, Na : 11, O : 8, Fe : 26, Cr : 24)


Question 87:

In the Claisen-Schmidt reaction to prepare 351 g of dibenzalacetone using 87 g of acetone, the amount of benzaldehyde required is _________g. (Nearest integer)


Question 88:

Combustion of 1 mole of benzene is expressed as C\(_6\)H\(_6\)(l) + \(\frac{15}{2}\)O\(_2\)(g) → 6CO\(_2\)(g) + 3H\(_2\)O(l). The standard enthalpy of combustion of 2 mol of benzene is x kJ. x = __________
(1) standard Enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of C\(_6\)H\(_6\)(l), for the reaction 6C(graphite) + 3H\(_2\)(g) → C\(_6\)H\(_6\)(l) is 48.5 kJ mol\(^{-1}\).
(2) Standard Enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of \(CO_2\)(g),  for the reaction 6(graphite) + \(O_2(g)\) → CO\(_2\)(g) is -393.5 kJ mol\(^{-1}\).
(3) Standard Enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of H\(_2\)O(l), for the reaction H\(_2\)(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O\(_2\)(g) → H\(_2\)O(l) is -286 kJ mol\(^{-1}\).


Question 89:

X of enthanamine was subjected to reaction with \(NaNO_2/HCl\) followed by hydrolysis to liberate \(N_2\) and HCl. The HCl generated was completely neutralised by 0.2 moles of NaOH. X is ____ g.


Question 90:

Number of compounds from the following with zero dipole moment is _______.
HF, H\(_2\), H\(_2\)S, CO\(_2\), NH\(_3\), BF\(_3\), CH\(_4\), CHCl\(_3\), SiF\(_4\), H\(_2\)O, BeF\(_2\)

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

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JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

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JEE Main 2024 5 April Shift 2 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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