JEE Main 2024 April 8 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on April 8, 2024, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 April 8 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2024 April 8 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be the solution curve of the differential equation \[ \sec y \frac{dy}{dx} + 2x \sin y = x^3 \cos y, \] \(y(1) = 0\). Then \(y\left(\sqrt{3}\right)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{12}\)

Question 2:

If the shortest distance between the lines \[ \frac{x - \lambda}{2} = \frac{y - 4}{3} = \frac{z - 3}{4} \] and \[ \frac{x - 2}{4} = \frac{y - 4}{6} = \frac{z - 7}{8} \] is \(\frac{13}{\sqrt{29}}\), then a value of \(\lambda\) is:

  • (1) \(-\frac{13}{25}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{13}{25}\)
  • (3) 1
  • (4) -1

Question 3:

There are three bags \(X\), \(Y\), and \(Z\). Bag \(X\) contains 5 one-rupee coins and 4 five-rupee coins; Bag \(Y\) contains 4 one-rupee coins and 5 five-rupee coins, and Bag \(Z\) contains 3 one-rupee coins and 6 five-rupee coins. A bag is selected at random and a coin drawn from it at random is found to be a one-rupee coin. Then the probability, that it came from bag \(Y\), is:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{12}\)

Question 4:

The area of the region in the first quadrant inside the circle \(x^2 + y^2 = 8\) and outside the parabola \(y^2 = 2x\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{1}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\pi - \frac{2}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\pi - \frac{1}{3}\)

Question 5:

Let \(\vec{a} = 4\hat{i} - \hat{j} + \hat{k}\), \(\vec{b} = 11\hat{i} - \hat{j} + \hat{k}\), and \(\vec{c}\) be a vector such that \[ (\vec{a} + \vec{b}) \times \vec{c} = \vec{c} \times (-2\vec{a} + 3\vec{b}). \] If \((2\vec{a} + 3\vec{b}) \cdot \vec{c} = 1670\), then \(|\vec{c}|^2\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1627
  • (2) 1618
  • (3) 1600
  • (4) 1609

Question 6:

If the line segment joining the points \((5, 2)\) and \((2, a)\) subtends an angle \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) at the origin, then the absolute value of the product of all possible values of \(a\) is:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4

Question 7:

If \(\alpha \neq a\), \(\beta \neq b\), \(\gamma \neq c\) and \[ \begin{vmatrix} \alpha & b & c \\ a & \beta & c \\ a & b & \gamma \end{vmatrix} = 0,\] then \[ \frac{a}{\alpha - a} + \frac{b}{\beta - b} + \frac{\gamma}{\gamma - c} \] is equal to:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 1

Question 8:

Let \[ \int_{\log_e a}^{4} \frac{dx}{\sqrt{e^x - 1}} = \frac{\pi}{6}. \] Then \(e^\alpha\) and \(e^{-\alpha}\) are the roots of the equation:

  • (1) \(2x^2 - 5x + 2 = 0\)
  • (2) \(x^2 - 2x - 8 = 0\)
  • (3) \(2x^2 - 5x - 2 = 0\)
  • (4) \(x^2 + 2x - 8 = 0\)

Question 9:

If the system of equations \(x + 4y - z = \lambda\), \(7x + 9y + \mu z = -3\), \(5x + y + 2z = -1\) has infinitely many solutions, then \((2\mu + 3\lambda)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) -3
  • (3) 3
  • (4) -2

Question 10:

Let \(f(x) = \begin{cases} -a & \text{if } -a \leq x \leq 0, \\ x + a & \text{if } 0<x \leq a \end{cases} \) where \(a>0\) and \(g(x) = (f(|x|) - |f(x)|)/2\). Then the function \(g : [-a, a] \to [-a, a]\) is:

  • (1) neither one-one nor onto.
  • (2) both one-one and onto.
  • (3) one-one.
  • (4) onto.

Question 11:

In an increasing geometric progression of positive terms, the sum of the second and sixth terms is \[ \frac{70}{3} \] and the product of the third and fifth terms is 49. Then the sum of the \(4^\text{th}, 6^\text{th}\), and \(8^\text{th}\) terms is:

  • (1) 96
  • (2) 78
  • (3) 91
  • (4) 84

Question 12:

For \(a, b > 0\), let \( f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{\tan((a+1)x) + b \tan x}{x}, & x < 0, \\ \frac{x}{3}, & x = 0, \\ \frac{\sqrt{ax + b^2x^2} - \sqrt{ax}}{b\sqrt{a x \sqrt{x}}}, & x > 0 \end{cases} \) be a continuous function at \(x = 0\). Then \(\frac{b}{a}\) is equal to: 

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 6

Question 13:

Let A= {2, 3, 6, 8, 9, 11} and B = {1, 4, 5, 10, 15} Let R be a relation on A × B define by (a, b)R(c, d) if and only if 3ad – 7bc is an even integer. Then the relation R is

  • (1) reflexive but not symmetric.
  • (2) transitive but not symmetric.
  • (3) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
  • (4) an equivalence relation.

Question 14:

Let \(\vec{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}\), \(\vec{b} = 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 5\hat{k}\), and \(\vec{c} = 3\hat{i} - \hat{j} + \lambda\hat{k}\) be three vectors. Let \(\vec{r}\) be a unit vector along \(\vec{b} + \vec{c}\). If \(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{a} = 3\), then \(3\lambda\) is equal to:

  • (1) 27
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 25
  • (4) 21

Question 15:

The sum of all possible values of \(\theta \in [-\pi, 2\pi]\), for which \[ \frac{1 + i \cos\theta}{1 - 2i \cos\theta} \] is purely imaginary, is equal to:

  • (1) \(2\pi\)
  • (2) \(3\pi\)
  • (3) \(5\pi\)
  • (4) \(4\pi\)

Question 16:

The number of ways five alphabets can be chosen from the alphabets of the word MATHEMATICS, where the chosen alphabets are not necessarily distinct, is equal to :

  • (1) 175
  • (2) 181
  • (3) 177
  • (4) 179

Question 17:

If the function \(f(x) = 2x^3 - 9ax^2 + 12a^2x + 1, \, a>0\) has a local maximum at \(x = \alpha\) and a local minimum at \(x = \alpha^2\), then \(\alpha\) and \(\alpha^2\) are the roots of the equation:

  • (1) \(x^2 - 6x + 8 = 0\)
  • (2) \(8x^2 + 6x - 8 = 0\)
  • (3) \(8x^2 - 6x + 1 = 0\)
  • (4) \(x^2 + 6x + 8 = 0\)

Question 18:

If the value of \[ \frac{3 \cos 36^\circ + 5 \sin 18^\circ}{5 \cos 36^\circ - 3 \sin 18^\circ} = \frac{a\sqrt{5} - b}{c}, \] where \(a, b, c\) are natural numbers and \(\text{gcd}(a, c) = 1\), then \(a + b + c\) is equal to:

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 40
  • (3) 52
  • (4) 54

Question 19:

If the image of the point \((-4, 5)\) in the line \(x + 2y = 2\) lies on the circle \((x + 4)^2 + (y - 3)^2 = r^2\), then \(r\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 75
  • (4) 3

Question 20:

If the term independent of \(x\) in the expansion of \[ \left( \sqrt{ax^2} + \frac{1}{2x^3} \right)^{10} \] is 105, then \(a^2\) is equal to:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 2

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \(a, b, c \in \mathbb{N}\) and \(a<b<c\). Let the mean, the mean deviation about the mean and the variance of the 5 observations \(9, 25, a, b, c\) be \(18, 4\) and \(\frac{136}{5}\), respectively. Then \(2a + b - c\) is equal to _______.


Question 22:

The number of distinct real roots of the equation \[ |x + 1| |x + 3| - 4|x + 2| + 5 = 0, \] is _______.


Question 23:

If \[ \int \frac{1}{\sqrt[5]{(x - 1)^4}(x + 3)^6} \, dx = A \left( \frac{\alpha x - 1}{\beta x + 3} \right)^B + C, \] where \(C\) is the constant of integration, then the value of \(\alpha + \beta + 20AB\) is _______.


Question 24:

Let \(S\) be the focus of the hyperbola \(\frac{x^2}{3} - \frac{y^2}{5} = 1\), on the positive x-axis. Let \(C\) be the circle with its centre at \(A\left(\sqrt{6}, \sqrt{5}\right)\) and passing through the point \(S\). If \(O\) is the origin and \(SAB\) is a diameter of \(C\), then the square of the area of the triangle \(OSB\) is equal to -


Question 25:

Let \(P(\alpha, \beta, \gamma)\) be the image of the point \(Q(1, 6, 4)\) in the line \[ \frac{x}{1} = \frac{y - 1}{2} = \frac{z - 2}{3}. \] Then \(2\alpha + \beta + \gamma\) is equal to _______.


Question 26:

Let \(A\) be the region enclosed by the parabola \(y^2 = 2x\) and the line \(x = 24\). Then the maximum area of the rectangle inscribed in the region \(A\) is ________.


Question 27:

Let \(\alpha |x| = |y| e^{xy - \beta}\), \(\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{N}\) be the solution of the differential equation \[ xdy - ydx + xy(xdy + ydx) = 0, \quad y(1) = 2. \] Then \(\alpha + \beta\) is equal to _.


Question 28:

If \[ \alpha = \lim_{x \to 0^+} \left( \frac{e^{\sqrt{\tan x}} - e^{\sqrt{x}}}{\sqrt{\tan x} - \sqrt{x}} \right) \] \[ \beta = \lim_{x \to 0} (1 + \sin x)^{\frac{1}{2\cot x}} \] are the roots of the quadratic equation \(ax^2 + bx - \sqrt{e} = 0\), then \(12 \log_e (a + b)\) is equal to _________.


Question 29:

An arithmetic progression is written in the following way

arithmetic progression
The sum of all the terms of the 10th row is ______ .


Question 30:

Let a ray of light passing through the point \((3, 10)\) reflects on the line \(2x + y = 6\) and the reflected ray passes through the point \((7, 2)\). If the equation of the incident ray is \(ax + by + 1 = 0\), then \(a^2 + b^2 + 3ab\) is equal to _.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A long straight wire of radius \(a\) carries a steady current \(I\). The current is uniformly distributed across its cross section. The ratio of the magnetic field at \(\frac{a}{2}\) and \(2a\) from axis of the wire is:

  • (1) 1 : 4
  • (2) 4 : 1
  • (3) 1 : 1
  • (4) 3 : 4

Question 32:

A block
A block is simply released from the top of an inclined plane as shown in the figure above. The maximum compression in the spring when the block hits the spring is :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{6} \, \text{m}\)
  • (2) \(2 \, \text{m}\)
  • (3) \(1 \, \text{m}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{5} \, \text{m}\)

Question 33:

The position of the image formed by the combination of lenses is :

combination

  • (1) 30 cm (right of third lens)
  • (2) 15 cm (left of second lens)
  • (3) 30 cm (left of third lens)
  • (4) 15 cm (right of second lens)

Question 34:

If \( \epsilon_0 \) is the permittivity of free space and \( E \) is the electric field, then \( \epsilon_0 E^2 \) has the dimensions:

  • (1) \([M^0 L^{-2} T A]\)
  • (2) \([M L^{-1} T^{-2}]\)
  • (3) \([M^{-1} L^{-3} T^4 A^2]\)
  • (4) \([M L^2 T^{-2}]\)

Question 35:

Two satellites \(A\) and \(B\) go round a planet in circular orbits having radii \(4R\) and \(R\) respectively. If the speed of \(A\) is \(3v\), the speed of \(B\) will be:

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{3}v\)
  • (2) \(3v\)
  • (3) \(6v\)
  • (4) \(12v\)

Question 36:

Water boils in an electric kettle in 20 minutes after being switched on. Using the same main supply, the length of the heating element should be ………….. to …………. times of its initial length if the water is to be boiled in 15 minutes.

  • (1) increased, \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (2) increased, \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (3) decreased, \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (4) decreased, \(\frac{4}{3}\)

Question 37:

A diatomic gas (\( \gamma = 1.4 \)) does 100 J of work in an isobaric expansion. The heat given to the gas is:

  • (1) 350 J
  • (2) 490 J
  • (3) 150 J
  • (4) 250 J

Question 38:

If \(M_0\) is the mass of isotope \(^{{12}}_{{5}}B\), \(M_p\) and \(M_n\) are the masses of proton and neutron, then nuclear binding energy of isotope is:

  • (1) \((5M_p + 7M_n - M_0)C^2\)
  • (2) \((M_0 - 5M_p)C^2\)
  • (3) \((M_0 - 12M_n)C^2\)
  • (4) \((M_0 - 5M_p - 7M_n)C^2\)

Question 39:

A given object takes \(n\) times the time to slide down \(45^\circ\) rough inclined plane as it takes the time to slide down an identical perfectly smooth \(45^\circ\) inclined plane. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the surface of inclined plane is:

  • (1) \(1 - \frac{1}{n^2}\)
  • (2) \(1 - n^2\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{1 - \frac{1}{n^2}}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{1 - n^2}\)

Question 40:

There are 100 divisions on the circular scale of a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm. With no measuring quantity in between the jaws, the zero of the circular scale lies 5 divisions below the reference line. The diameter of a wire is then measured using this screw gauge. It is found the 4 linear scale divisions are clearly visible while 60 divisions on circular scale coincide with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is :

  • (1) 4.65 mm
  • (2) 4.55 mm
  • (3) 4.60 mm
  • (4) 3.35 mm

Question 41:

A capacitor has air as dielectric medium and two conducting plates of area \(12 \, \text{cm}^2\) and they are \(0.6 \, \text{cm}\) apart. When a slab of dielectric having area \(12 \, \text{cm}^2\) and \(0.6 \, \text{cm}\) thickness is inserted between the plates, one of the conducting plates has to be moved by \(0.2 \, \text{cm}\) to keep the capacitance same as in previous case. The dielectric constant of the slab is:
\((\text{Given } \epsilon_0 = 8.834 \times 10^{-12} \, \text{F/m})\)

  • (1) \(1.50\)
  • (2) \(1.33\)
  • (3) \(0.66\)
  • (4) \(1\)

Question 42:

Least count of a vernier caliper is \( \frac{1}{20N} \, \text{cm} \).The value of one division on the main scale is \(1 \, \text{mm}\). Then the number of divisions of the main scale that coincide with \(N\) divisions of the vernier scale is:

  • (1) \( \frac{2N - 1}{20N} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2N - 1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( 2N - 1 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2N - 1}{2N} \)

Question 43:

A cube of ice floats partly in water and partly in kerosene oil. The radio of volume of ice immersed in water to that in kerosene oil (specific gravity of Kerosene oil = 0.8, specific gravity of ice = 0.9)

cube of ice

  • (1) 8 : 9
  • (2) 5 : 4
  • (3) 9 : 10
  • (4) 1 : 1

Question 44:

Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : The mean free path of gas molecules is inversely proportional to square of molecular diameter.
Statement (II) : Average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to absolute temperature of gas.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 45:

The angle of projection for a projectile to have same horizontal range and maximum height is :

  • (1) \(\tan^{-1}(2)\)
  • (2) \(\tan^{-1}(4)\)
  • (3) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)

Question 46:

A proton and an electron have the same de Broglie wavelength. If \(K_p\) and \(K_e\) be the kinetic energies of proton and electron respectively. Then choose the correct relation:

  • (1) \(K_p\) \(>\) \(K_e\)
  • (2) \(K_p = K_e\)
  • (3) \(K_p = K_e^2\)
  • (4) \(K_p\) \(<\) \(K_e\)

Question 47:

In a hypothetical fission reaction
\(^{92}X^{236} \rightarrow ^{56}Y^{141} + ^{36}Z^{92} + 3R\) The identity of emitted particles (R) is:

  • (1) Proton
  • (2) Electron
  • (3) Neutron
  • (4) \(\gamma\)-radiations

Question 48:

A thin circular disc of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane with angular velocity \(\omega\). If another disc of same dimensions but of mass \(\frac{M}{2}\) is placed gently on the first disc co-axially, then the new angular velocity of the system is:

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{5}\omega\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}{4}\omega\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\omega\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}\omega\)

Question 49:

A coil of negligible resistance is connected in series with \(90 \, \Omega\) resistor across \(120 \, \text{V}, \, 60 \, \text{Hz}\) supply. A voltmeter reads \(36 \, \text{V}\) across resistance. Inductance of the coil is:

  • (1) \(0.76 \, \text{H}\)
  • (2) \(2.86 \, \text{H}\)
  • (3) \(0.286 \, \text{H}\)
  • (4) \(0.91 \, \text{H}\)

Question 50:

A plane progressive wave is given by \( y = 2 \cos 2\pi(330t - x) \, \text{m} \). The frequency of the wave is:

  • (1) 165 Hz
  • (2) 330 Hz
  • (3) 660 Hz
  • (4) 340 Hz

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

An alternating emf \( E = 110\sqrt{2} \sin 100t \, \text{volt} \) is applied to a capacitor of \( 2\mu\text{F} \), the rms value of current in the circuit is \(\dots\) \(\text{mA}\).


Question 52:

If the net electric field at point \( P \) along \( Y \)-axis is zero, then the ratio of \[ \left| \frac{q_2}{q_3} \right| \] is \[\frac{8}{5\sqrt{x}},\] where \( x = \dots \dots \dots \dots \dots \).

pq2q3


Question 53:

Two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is located 1 m away from the slits. A light wavelength \( 500 \, \text{nm} \) is used. The width of each slit to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit pattern within the central maximum of the single slit pattern is \(\dots\) \(\times \, 10^{-4} \, \text{m}\).


Question 54:

A potential divider circuit is connected with a dc source of 20 V, a light emitting diode of glow in voltage 1.8 V and a zener diode of breakdown voltage of 3.2 V. The length (PR) of the resistive wire is 20 cm. The minimum length of PQ to just glow the LED is …………. cm.

PR Circuit


Question 55:

An object of mass \( 0.2 \, \text{kg} \) executes simple harmonic motion along the \( x \)-axis with a frequency of \( \left( \frac{25}{\pi} \right) \, \text{Hz} \). At the position \( x = 0.04 \, \text{m} \), the object has kinetic energy \( 0.5 \, \text{J} \) and potential energy \( 0.4 \, \text{J} \). The amplitude of oscillation is \(\dots\) \(\text{cm}\).


Question 56:

A circular table is rotating with an angular velocity of \( \omega \, \text{rad/s} \) about its axis (see figure). There is a smooth groove along a radial direction on the table. A steel ball is gently placed at a distance of \( 1 \, \text{m} \) on the groove. All the surfaces are smooth. If the radius of the table is \( 3 \, \text{m} \), the radial velocity of the ball with respect to the table at the time the ball leaves the table is \( x\sqrt{2}\omega \, \text{m/s} \), where the value of \( x \) is \(\dots\).


Question 57:

A heater is designed to operate with a power of 1000 W in a 100 V line. It is connected in combination with a resistance of 10 \(\Omega\) and a resistance \(R\), to a 100 V mains as shown in the figure. For the heater to operate at 62.5 W, the value of \(R\) should be \(\dots\) \(\Omega\).

heater


Question 58:

Small water droplets of radius 0.01 mm are formed in the upper atmosphere and falling with a terminal velocity of 10 cm/s. Due to condensation, if 8 such droplets are coalesced and formed a larger drop, the new terminal velocity will be ………..cm/s.


Question 59:

The coercivity of a magnet is 5 × 103 A/m. The amount of current required to be passed in a solenoid of length 30 cm and the number of turns 150, so that the magnet gets demagnetised when inside the solenoid is ………A.


Question 60:

A body of mass \( M \) thrown horizontally with velocity \( v \) from the top of the tower of height \( H \) touches the ground at a distance of \( 100 \, \text{m} \) from the foot of the tower. A body of mass \( 2M \) thrown at a velocity \( \frac{v}{2} \) from the top of the tower of height \( 4H \) will touch the ground at a distance of \(\dots\) \(\text{m}\).


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Match List-I with List-II.

reactions and products
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Question 62:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : A Buffer solution is the mixture of a salt and an acid or a base mixed in any particular quantities.
Statement (II) : Blood is naturally occurring buffer solution whose pH is maintained by \(H_2CO_3/HCO_3^-\) concentrations.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II is true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 63:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : All the following compounds react with p-toluenesulfonyl chloride.
\(C_6H_5NH_2 \quad      (C_6H_5)_2NH                \quad (C_6H_5)_3N\)
Statement (II) : Their products in the above reaction are soluble in aqueous NaOH.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II is false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II is true

Question 64: Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
(Complex ion)
List-II
(Spin only magnetic moment in B.M.)
(A) [Cr(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)(I) 4.90
(B) [NiCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)(II) 3.87
(C) [CoF\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)(III) 0.0
(D) [Ni(CN)\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)(IV) 2.83

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Question 65:

Which one the following compounds will readily react with dilute NaOH?

  • (1) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH\(_2\)OH
  • (2) C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH
  • (3) (CH\(_3\))\(_3\)COH
  • (4) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)OH

Question 66:

The shape of carbocation is :

  • (1) trigonal planar
  • (2) diagonal pyramidal
  • (3) tetrahedral
  • (4) diagonal

Question 67:

When \(\psi_A\) and \(\psi_B\) are the wave functions of atomic orbitals, then \(\sigma^*\) is represented by :

  • (1) \(\psi_A - 2\psi_B\)
  • (2) \(\psi_A - \psi_B\)
  • (3) \(\psi_A + 2\psi_B\)
  • (4) \(\psi_A + \psi_B\)

Question 68:

The emf of cell Tl\(\vert^{Tl^+}_{_{(0.001M)}}\vert^{Cu^{2+}}_{_{(0.01M)}}\)Cu is 0.83 V at 298 K. It could be increased by:

  • (1) increasing concentration of Tl\(^+\) ions
  • (2) increasing concentration of both Tl\(^+\) and Cu\(^{2+}\) ions
  • (3) decreasing concentration of both Tl\(^+\) and Cu\(^{2+}\) ions
  • (4) increasing concentration of Cu\(^{2+}\) ions

Question 69:

The reaction;\(\frac{1}{2}H_{2(g)} + AgCl_{(s)} \rightarrow H^+_{(aq)} + Cl^-_{(aq)} + Ag_{(s)}\) occurs in which of the following galvanic cell:

  • (1) Pt \(\vert\) H\(_{2(g)}\) \(\vert\) HCl\(_{(soln.)}\) \(\vert\) AgCl\(_{(s)}\) \(\vert\) Ag
  • (2) Pt \(\vert\) H\(_{2(g)}\) \(\vert\) HCl\(_{(soln.)}\) \(\vert\) AgNO\(_{3(aq)}\) \(\vert\) Ag
  • (3) Pt \(\vert\) H\(_{2(g)}\) \(\vert\) KCl\(_{(soln.)}\) \(\vert\) AgCl\(_{(s)}\) \(\vert\) Ag
  • (4) Ag \(\vert\) AgCl\(_{(s)}\) \(\vert\) KCl\(_{(soln.)}\) \(\vert\) AgNO\(_{3(aq)}\) \(\vert\) Ag

Question 70:

The correct sequence of acidic strength of the following aliphatic acids in their decreasing order is: \(CH_3CH_2COOH\), \(CH_3COOH\), \(CH_3CH_2CH_2COOH\), \(HCOOH\)

  • (1) \(HCOOH > CH_3COOH > CH_3CH_2COOH > CH_3CH_2CH_2COOH\)
  • (2) \(HCOOH > CH_3CH_2CH_2COOH > CH_3CH_2COOH > CH_3COOH\)
  • (3) \(CH_3CH_2CH_2COOH > CH_3CH_2COOH > CH_3COOH > HCOOH\)
  • (4) \(CH_3COOH > CH_3CH_2COOH > CH_3CH_2CH_2COOH > HCOOH\)

Question 71:

For a reaction \(A \xrightarrow{K_1} B \xrightarrow{K_2} C\) If the rate of formation of B is set to be zero then the concentration of B is given by:

  • (1) \(K_1K_2[A]\)
  • (2) \((K_1 - K_2)[A]\)
  • (3) \((K_1 + K_2)[A]\)
  • (4) \((K_1/K_2)[A]\)

Question 72:

The equilibrium \(\mathrm{Cr_2O_7^{2-}} \rightleftharpoons 2\mathrm{CrO_4^{2-}}\) is shifted to the right in:

  • (1) an acidic medium
  • (2) a basic medium
  • (3) a weakly acidic medium
  • (4) a neutral medium

Question 73:

Identify the correct statements about p-block elements and their compounds.
(A) Non metals have higher electronegativity than metals.
(B) Non metals have lower ionisation enthalpy than metals.
(C) Compounds formed between highly reactive nonmetals and highly reactive metals are generally ionic.
(D) The non-metal oxides are generally basic in nature.
(E) The metal oxides are generally acidic or neutral in nature.

  • (1) (D) and (E) only
  • (2) (A) and (C) only
  • (3) (B) and (E) only
  • (4) (B) and (D) only

Question 74:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : Fusion of MnO\(_2\) with KOH and an oxidising agent gives dark green K\(_2\)MnO\(_4\).
Statement (II) : Manganate ion on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline medium gives permanganate ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 75:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : S\(_N\)2 reactions are 'stereospecific', indicating that they result in the formation only one stereo-isomers as the product.
Statement (II) : S\(_N\)1 reactions generally result in formation of product as racemic mixtures.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II is false

Question 76: Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
(Test)
List-II
(Identification)
(A) Bayer's test(I) Phenol
(B) Ceric ammonium nitrate test(II) Aldehyde
(C) Phthalein dye test(III) Alcoholic-OH group
(D) Schiff's test(IV) Unsaturation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Question 77:

IUPAC name of following hydrocarbon (X) is :

ch bond

  • (1) 2-Ethyl-3,6-dimethylheptane
  • (2) 2-Ethyl-2,6-diethylheptane
  • (3) 2,5,6-Trimethyloctane
  • (4) 3,4,7-Trimethyloctane

Question 78:

Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Kjeldahl method is applicable to estimate nitrogen in pyridine.
Statement (II) : The nitrogen present in pyridine can easily be converted into ammonium sulphate in Kjeldahl method.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II is false
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II is true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 79:

Identify the incorrect statements about group 15 elements:
(A) Dinitrogen is a diatomic gas which acts like an inert gas at room temperature.
(B) The common oxidation states of these elements are −3, +3 and +5.
(C) Nitrogen has unique ability to form p\(\pi\)-p\(\pi\) multiple bonds.
(D) The stability of +5 oxidation states increases down the group.
(E) Nitrogen shows a maximum covalency of 6.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) (A), (B), (D) only
  • (2) (A), (C), (E) only
  • (3) (B), (D), (E) only
  • (4) (D) and (E) only

Question 80:

In qualitative test for identification of presence of phosphorous, the compound is heated with an oxidising agent. Which is further treated with nitric acid and ammonium molybdate respectively. The yellow coloured precipitate obtained is :

  • (1) Na\(_3\)PO\(_4\).12MoO\(_3\)
  • (2) (NH\(_4\))\(_3\)PO\(_4\).12(NH\(_4\))\(_2\)MoO\(_4\)
  • (3) (NH\(_4\))\(_3\)PO\(_4\).12MoO\(_3\)
  • (4) MoPO\(_4\).21NH\(_4\)NO\(_3\)

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

\(\Delta_{vap}H^\circ\) for water is \(+40.49 \, \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\) at 1 bar and \(100^\circ\text{C}\). Change in internal energy for this vaporisation under same condition is .............. kJ mol\(^{-1}\). (Integer answer)
(Given R = 8.3 J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\))


Question 82:

Total number of aromatic compounds among the following compounds is _______.

aromatic compounds


Question 83:

Total number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\) and [NiCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\) is


Question 84:

The total number of carbon atoms present in tyrosine, an amino acid, is _______.


Question 85:

Total number of optically active compounds from the following is _______.

CH Compounds


Question 86:

Two moles of benzaldehyde and one mole of acetone under alkaline conditions using aqueous NaOH after heating gives \(x\) as the major product. The number of \(\pi\) bonds in the product \(x\) is ................


Question 87:

A solution is prepared by adding 1 mole ethyl alcohol in 9 mole water. The mass percent of solute in the solution is ___________ (Integer Answer)
(Given : Molar mass in g mol\(^{-1}\) Ethyl alcohol : 46, water : 18)


Question 88:

Molality of an aqueous solution of urea is 4.44 m. Mole fraction of urea in solution is x × 10–3. Value of x is _______. (integer answer)


Question 89:

Wavenumber for a radiation having \(5800 \, \mathring{A}\) wavelength is \(x \times 10 \, \text{cm}^{-1}\). The value of \(x\) is _________


Question 90:

Number of molecules having bond order 2 from the following molecule is ...................
\(C_2, O_2, Be_2, Li_2, Ne_2, N_2, He_2\)

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

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JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

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JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 2 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper