NTA conducted JEE Main 4 April Shift 2 from 3 pm to 6 pm. Question paper with solutions pdf is available here for download. In JEE Main April 4 Shift 2 students were required to attempt 75 questions out of 90 following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones.
Also Check- JEE Main 2026 Memory Based Question Papers for all Shifts
JEE Main 4 April Shift 2 Subject- Wise Expected Difficulty :
- JEE Main Physics- Nearly 30–35% of the Physics questions in JEE Main are derived from mechanics, electrodynamics and modern physics. The section was moderate.
- JEE Main Mathematics- Mathematics weightage in JEE Main Paper 1 has increased by 35%. Questions were time consuming and tough in the calculation part.
- JEE Main Chemistry- Chemistry's weightage in JEE Main has been reduced by 22.5%, compared to other subjects in Paper 1. Easy to moderate questions were there from topics like - Atomic Structure and Solutions.
The Memory-Based Question Paper for JEE Main April 4 Shift 2 for B.E/B. Tech Paper is available for download. You can find JEE Main April 4 Shift 2 Answer key here.
JEE Main 2025 April 4 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions
| JEE Main 2025 April 4 Shift 2 Question Paper Pdf | Check Solutions |

MATHEMATICS
SECTION-A
Question 1:
Let a > 0. If the function \( f(x) = 6x^3 - 45ax^2 + 108a^2x + 1 \) attains its local maximum and minimum values at the points \( x_1 \) and \( x_2 \) respectively such that \( x_1x_2 = 54 \), then \( a + x_1 + x_2 \) is equal to:
Let \( f \) be a differentiable function on \( \mathbb{R} \) such that \( f(2) = 4 \). Let \( \lim_{x \to 0} \left( f(2+x) \right)^{3/x} = e^\alpha \). Then the number of times the curve \( y = 4x^3 - 4x^2 - 4(\alpha - 7)x - \alpha \) meets the x-axis is:
The sum of the infinite series \( \cot^{-1} \left( \frac{7}{4} \right) + \cot^{-1} \left( \frac{19}{4} \right) + \cot^{-1} \left( \frac{39}{4} \right) + \cot^{-1} \left( \frac{67}{4} \right) + \dots \) is:
Let \( A = \{-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3\} \) and \( R \) be a relation on \( A \) defined by \( xRy \) if and only if \( 2x - y \in \{0, 1\} \). Let \( l \) be the number of elements in \( R \). Let \( m \) and \( n \) be the minimum number of elements required to be added in \( R \) to make it reflexive and symmetric relations, respectively. Then \( l + m + n \) is equal to:
Let the product of \( \omega_1 = (8 + i) \sin \theta + (7 + 4i) \cos \theta \) and \( \omega_2 = (1 + 8i) \sin \theta + (4 + 7i) \cos \theta \) be \( \alpha + i\beta \), where \( i = \sqrt{-1} \). Let \( p \) and \( q \) be the maximum and the minimum values of \( \alpha + \beta \) respectively.
Let the values of \( p \), for which the shortest distance between the lines \( \frac{x + 1}{3} = \frac{y}{4} = \frac{z}{5} \) and \( \vec{r} = (p \hat{i} + 2 \hat{j} + \hat{k}) + \lambda (2 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} + 4 \hat{k}) \) is \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{6}} \), be \( a, b \), where \( a < b \). Then the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse \( \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) is:
The axis of a parabola is the line \( y = x \) and its vertex and focus are in the first quadrant at distances \( \sqrt{2} \) and \( 2\sqrt{2} \) units from the origin, respectively. If the point \( (1, k) \) lies on the parabola, then a possible value of \( k \) is:
Let the domains of the functions \( f(x) = \log_4 \log_3 \log_7 (8 - \log_2(x^2 + 4x + 5)) \) and \( g(x) = \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{7x + 10}{x - 2} \right)\) be \( (\alpha, \beta) \) and \( [\gamma, \delta] \), respectively. Then \( \alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \gamma^2 + \delta^2 \) is equal to:
View Solution
First, analyze the function \( f(x) = \log_4 \log_3 \log_7 (8 - \log_2(x^2 + 4x + 5)) \). For this function to be defined, the expression inside the logarithms must be positive. Solving the inequalities gives the domain of \( f(x) \) as \( (\alpha, \beta) \). Similarly, for the function \( g(x) = \sin(x^2) \), the domain is \( [\gamma, \delta] \). After finding the domains, we compute \( \alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \gamma^2 + \delta^2 = 15 \).
Thus, the correct answer is \( 15 \). Quick Tip: Always check the domains of logarithmic and trigonometric functions to ensure they are properly defined.
A line passing through the point \( A(-2, 0) \), touches the parabola \( P: y^2 = x - 2 \) at the point \( B \) in the first quadrant. The area of the region bounded by the line \( AB \), parabola \( P \), and the x-axis is:
Let the sum of the focal distances of the point \( P(4, 3) \) on the hyperbola \( \frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) be \( 8\sqrt{\frac{5}{3}} \). If for \( H \), the length of the latus rectum is \( \ell \) and the product of the focal distances of the point \( P \) is \( m \), then \( 9\ell^2 + 6m \) is equal to:

If the sum of the first 20 terms of the series \[ \frac{4.1}{4 + 3.1^2 + 1^4} + \frac{4.2}{4 + 3.2^2 + 2^4} + \frac{4.3}{4 + 3.3^2 + 3^4} + \frac{4.4}{4 + 3.4^2 + 4^4} + \dots \]
is \( \frac{m}{n} \), where \( m \) and \( n \) are coprime, then \( m + n \) is equal to:

Let for two distinct values of \( p \), the lines \( y = x + p \) touch the ellipse \( E: \frac{x^2}{4} + \frac{y^2}{9} = 1 \) at the points \( A \) and \( B \). Let the line \( y = x \) intersect \( E \) at the points \( C \) and \( D \). Then the area of the quadrilateral \( ABCD \) is equal to:
Consider two sets \( A \) and \( B \), each containing three numbers in A.P. Let the sum and the product of the elements of \( A \) be 36 and \( p \), respectively, and the sum and the product of the elements of \( B \) be 36 and \( q \), respectively. Let \( d \) and \( D \) be the common differences of A.P's in \( A \) and \( B \), respectively, such that \( D = d + 3 \), \( d > 0 \). If \( \frac{p+q}{p-q} = \frac{19}{5} \), then \( p - q \) is equal to:
If a curve \( y = y(x) \) passes through the point \( \left(1, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \) and satisfies the differential equation \[ (7x^4 \cot y - e^x \csc y) \frac{dx}{dy} = x^5, \quad x \geq 1, then at x = 2, the value of \cos y is: \]
The center of a circle \( C \) is at the center of the ellipse \( E: \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \), where \( a > b \). Let \( C \) pass through the foci \( F_1 \) and \( F_2 \) of \( E \) such that the circle \( C \) and the ellipse \( E \) intersect at four points. Let \( P \) be one of these four points. If the area of the triangle \( PF_1F_2 \) is 30 and the length of the major axis of \( E \) is 17, then the distance between the foci of \( E \) is:
Let \( f(x) + 2f\left( \frac{1}{x} \right) = x^2 + 5 \) and \[ 2g(x) - 3g\left( \frac{1}{2} \right) = x, \, x > 0. \, If \, \alpha = \int_{1}^{2} f(x) \, dx, \, \beta = \int_{1}^{2} g(x) \, dx, then the value of 9\alpha + \beta is: \]
Let A be the point of intersection of the lines \[ L_1 : \frac{x - 7}{1} = \frac{y - 5}{0} = \frac{z - 3}{-1} \quad and \quad L_2 : \frac{x - 1}{3} = \frac{y + 3}{4} = \frac{z + 7}{5} \]
Let B and C be the points on the lines \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \), respectively, such that \( AB - AC = \sqrt{15} \). Then the square of the area of the triangle ABC is:
Let the mean and the standard deviation of the observations \( 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, a, b \)
be \( 4 \) and \( \sqrt{2} \) respectively. Then the mean deviation about the mode of these observations is:
SECTION-B
Question 21:
If \( \alpha \) is a root of the equation \( x^2 + x + 1 = 0 \) and \[ \sum_{k=1}^{n} \left( \alpha^k + \frac{1}{\alpha^k} \right)^2 = 20, \quad then n is equal to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \]
If \[ \int \frac{\left( \sqrt{1 + x^2} + x \right)^{10}}{\left( \sqrt{1 + x^2} - x \right)^9} \, dx = \frac{1}{m} \left( \left( \sqrt{1 + x^2} + x \right)^n \left( n\sqrt{1 + x^2} - x \right) \right) + C, \]
where m, n \(\in \mathbb{N}\) and C is the constant of integration, then m + n is equal to:
A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining 51 cards, n cards are drawn and are found to be spades. If the probability of the lost card to be a spade is \[ \frac{11}{50}, then n is equal to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \]
Let m and n, \( m < n \) be two 2-digit numbers. Then the total number of pairs (m, n) such that \( \gcd(m, n) = 6 \), is _______
Let the three sides of a triangle ABC be given by the vectors \[ 2\hat{i} - \hat{j} + \hat{k}, \quad \hat{i} - 3\hat{j} - 5\hat{k}, \quad and \quad 3\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}. \]
Let G be the centroid of the triangle ABC. Then \[ 6 \left( |\vec{AG}|^2 + |\vec{BG}|^2 + |\vec{CG}|^2 \right) is equal to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \]
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
Question 26:
A radioactive material P first decays into Q and then Q decays to non-radioactive material R. Which of the following figure represents time dependent mass of P, Q and R?

There are ‘n’ number of identical electric bulbs, each is designed to draw a power \( p \) independently from the mains supply. They are now joined in series across the main supply. The total power drawn by the combination is:
Consider a rectangular sheet of solid material of length \( \ell = 9 \) cm and width \( d = 4 \) cm. The coefficient of linear expansion is \( \alpha = 3.1 \times 10^{-5} \) K\(^{-1}\) at room temperature and one atmospheric pressure. The mass of the sheet is \( m = 0.1 \) kg and the specific heat capacity \( C_v = 900 \) J kg\(^{-1}\)K\(^{-1}\). If the amount of heat supplied to the material is \( 8.1 \times 10^2 \) J, then the change in area of the rectangular sheet is:
Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : The dimensions of Planck’s constant and angular momentum are same.
Statement (II) : In Bohr’s model, electron revolves around the nucleus in those orbits for which angular momentum is an integral multiple of Planck’s constant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A cylindrical rod of length 1 m and radius 4 cm is mounted vertically. It is subjected to a shear force of \( 10^5 \) N at the top. Considering infinitesimally small displacement in the upper edge, the angular displacement \( \theta \) of the rod axis from its original position would be: (shear moduli \( G = 10^{10} \) N/m\(^2\))
From the combination of resistors with resistance values \( R_1 = R_2 = R_3 = 5 \, \Omega \) and \( R_4 = 10 \, \Omega \), which of the following combination is the best circuit to get an equivalent resistance of 6 \( \Omega \)?

A metallic ring is uniformly charged as shown in the figure. AC and BD are two mutually perpendicular diameters. Electric field due to arc AB to O is ‘E’ magnitude. What would be the magnitude of electric field at ‘O’ due to arc ABC?

There are two vessels filled with an ideal gas where volume of one is double the volume of the other. The large vessel contains the gas at 8 kPa at 1000 K while the smaller vessel contains the gas at 7 kPa at 500 K. If the vessels are connected to each other by a thin tube allowing the gas to flow and the temperature of both vessels is maintained at 600 K, at steady state the pressure in the vessels will be (in kPa).
An object is kept at rest at a distance of 3R above the earth’s surface where \( R \) is earth’s radius. The minimum speed with which it must be projected so that it does not return to earth is: (Assume \( M \) = mass of earth, \( G \) = Universal gravitational constant)
Three parallel plate capacitors \( C_1 \), \( C_2 \), and \( C_3 \) each of capacitance 5 µF are connected as shown in the figure. The effective capacitance between points A and B, when the space between the parallel plates of \( C_1 \) capacitor is filled with a dielectric medium having dielectric constant of 4, is:

The displacement \( x \) versus time graph is shown below.

The displacement \( x \) is plotted against time \( t \). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A wheel is rolling on a plane surface. The speed of a particle on the highest point of the rim is 8 m/s. The speed of the particle on the rim of the wheel at the same level as the center of the wheel, will be:
For the determination of refractive index of glass slab, a travelling microscope is used whose main scale contains 300 equal divisions equals to 15 cm. The vernier scale attached to the microscope has 25 divisions equals to 24 divisions of main scale. The least count (LC) of the travelling microscope is (in cm):
A block of mass 25 kg is pulled along a horizontal surface by a force at an angle \( 45^\circ \) with the horizontal. The friction coefficient between the block and the surface is 0.25. The displacement of 5 m of the block is:
Two polarisers \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) are placed in such a way that the intensity of the transmitted light will be zero. A third polariser \( P_3 \) is inserted in between \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \), at the particular angle between \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \). The transmitted intensity of the light passing the through all three polarisers is maximum. The angle between the polarisers \( P_2 \) and \( P_3 \) is:
Consider a n-type semiconductor in which \( n_e \) and \( n_h \) are the number of electrons and holes, respectively.
Displacement of a wave is expressed as \[ x(t) = 5 \cos \left( 628t + \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \, m. \]
The wavelength of the wave when its velocity is 300 m/s is:
A finite size object is placed normal to the principal axis at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. A plane mirror is now placed in such a way that the image produced by both the mirrors coincide with each other. The distance between the two mirrors is:
In an electromagnetic system, a quantity defined as the ratio of electric dipole moment and magnetic dipole moment has dimensions of [M\( L^2 T^{-3} A^{-1}]\). The value of P and Q are:
SECTION-B
A particle of charge 1.6 \(\mu\)C and mass 16 \(\mu\)g is present in a strong magnetic field of 6.28 T. The particle is then fired perpendicular to magnetic field. The time required for the particle to return to original location for the first time is _______ s. (Take \( \pi = 3.14 \))
A solid sphere with uniform density and radius \( R \) is rotating initially with constant angular velocity (\( \omega_1 \)) about its diameter. After some time during the rotation, it starts losing mass at a uniform rate, with no change in its shape. The angular velocity of the sphere when its radius becomes \( \frac{R}{2} \) is \( \omega_2 \). The value of \( x \) is ________.
If an optical medium possesses a relative permeability of \( \frac{10}{\pi} \) and relative permittivity of \( \frac{1}{0.0885} \), then the velocity of light is greater in vacuum than in that medium by ________ times. \[ (\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, H/m, \quad \epsilon_0 = 8.85 \times 10^{-12} \, F/m, \quad c = 3 \times 10^8 \, m/s) \]
In a Young's double slit experiment, two slits are located 1.5 m apart. The distance of screen from slits is 2 m and the wavelength of the source is 400 nm. If the 20 maxima of the double slit pattern are contained within the centre maximum of the single slit diffraction pattern, then the width of each slit is \( x \times 10^{-3} \, cm \), where x-value is:
An inductor of self inductance 1 H connected in series with a resistor of 100 \( \Omega \) and an AC supply of 10 V, 50 Hz. Maximum current flowing in the circuit is:
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
The correct order of basicity for the following molecules is:

The incorrect relationship in the following pairs in relation to ionisation enthalpies is:
Which among the following compounds give yellow solid when reacted with NaOI/NaOH?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A dipeptide, “x”, on complete hydrolysis gives “y” and “z”; “y” on treatment with aqueous HNO\(_2\), produces lactic acid. On the other hand, “z” on heating gives the following cyclic molecule.

Based on the information given, the dipeptide X is:
In which pairs, the first ion is more stable than the second?

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): Alcohols are formed when alkyl chlorides are treated with aqueous potassium hydroxide by elimination reaction.
Statement (II): In alcoholic potassium hydroxide, alkyl chlorides form alkenes by abstracting the hydrogen from the \( \beta \)-carbon.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): Molal depression constant \( k_f \) is given by \( \frac{M_1 R T_f}{\Delta S_{fus}} \), where symbols have their usual meaning.
Statement (II): \( k_f \) for benzene is less than the \( k_f \) for water.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
The IUPAC name of the following compound is:

A toxic compound “A” when reacted with NaCN in aqueous acidic medium yields an edible cooking component and food preservative “B”. “B” is converted to “C” by dibromane and can be used as an additive to petrol to reduce emission. “C” upon reaction with oleum at 140°C yields an inhalable anesthetic “D”. Identify “A”, “B”, “C”, and “D”, respectively.
The correct order of \( [FeF_6]^{3-} \), \( [CoF_6]^{3-} \),\( [Ni(CO)_4] \) and \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \) complex species based on the number of unpaired electrons present is:
Consider the given data:
\[ (a) HCl(g) + 10H_2O(l) \rightarrow HCl.10 H_2O \quad \Delta H = -69.01 \, kJ/mol^{-1} \]
\[ (b) HCl(g) + 40H_2O(l) \rightarrow HCl.40 H_2O \quad \Delta H = -72.79 \, kJ/mol^{-1} \]
Choose the correct statement:
Consider the ground state of an atom (Z = 24). How many electrons are arranged with Azimuthal quantum number \( l = 1 \) and \( l = 2 \) respectively?
Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): The first ionisation enthalpy of group 14 elements is higher than the corresponding elements of group 13.
Statement (II): Melting points and boiling points of group 13 elements are in general much higher than those of the corresponding elements of group 14.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Consider the following plots of log of rate constant \( k (log k)\) vs \( \frac{1}{T} \) for three different reactions. The correct order of activation energies of these reactions is:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
‘X’ is the number of electrons in \( t_2g \) orbitals of the most stable complex ion among \( [Fe(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \), \( [Fe(Cl)_6]^{3-} \), \( [Fe(C_2O_4)_3]^{3-} \) and \( [Fe(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \).
The nature of oxide of vanadium of the type \( V_2O_x \) is:
The elements of Group 13 with highest and lowest first ionisation enthalpies are respectively:
Consider the following molecule (X).

The structure of \( X \) is:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (II): Structure III is most stable, as the orbitals having the lone pairs are axial, where the \( \ell p - \beta p \) repulsion is minimum.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Half-life of zero-order reaction \( A \to \) product is 1 hour, when initial concentration of reaction is 2.0 mol L\(^{-1}\). The time required to decrease concentration of A from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L\(^{-1}\) is:
SECTION-B
Sea water, which can be considered as a 6 molar (6 M) solution of NaCl, has a density of 2 g mL\(^{-1}\). The concentration of dissolved oxygen (O\(_2\)) in sea water is 5.8 ppm. Then the concentration of dissolved oxygen (O\(_2\)) in sea water, in x \(\times\) 10\(^{-6}\) m. x = _______. (Nearest integer)
Given: Molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g mol\(^{-1}\)
Molar mass of O\(_2\) is 32 g mol\(^{-1}\).
The amount of calcium oxide produced on heating 150 kg limestone (75% pure) is _______ kg. (Nearest integer)
Given: Molar mass (in g mol\(^{-1}\)) of Ca-40, O-16, C-12
A metal complex with a formula MC\(\ell_4\)3NH\(_3\) is involved in sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) hybridisation. It upon reaction with excess of AgNO\(_3\) solution gives ‘x’ moles of AgCl. Consider ‘x’ is equal to the number of lone pairs of electron present in central atom of BrF\(_5\). Then the number of geometrical isomers exhibited by the complex is ________
The molar conductance of an infinitely dilute solution of ammonium chloride was found to be 185 S cm\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\) and the ionic conductance of hydroxyl and chloride ions are 170 and 70 S cm\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\), respectively. If molar conductance of 0.02 M solution of ammonium hydroxide is 85.5 S cm\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\), its degree of dissociation is given by x \(\times\) 10\(^{-1}\). The value of x is ______. (Nearest integer)
x mg of Mg(OH)\(_2\) (molar mass = 58) is required to be dissolved in 1.0 L of water to produce a pH of 10.0 at 298 K. The value of x is ____ mg. (Nearest integer)
(Given: Mg(OH)\(_2\) is assumed to dissociate completely in H\(_2\)O)
JEE Main April 4 Shift 2 Question Paper With Video Solutions
The JEE Main 2025 April 4 Question Paper with Video Solution is available here after the examination. Students can match their responses with the JEE Main 2025 April 4 Shift 2 Answer key with Solutions. Students who are appearing for JEE Main upcoming shifts can check the JEE Main April 4 Shift 2 Question Paper and video solution to understand the difficulty level of the exam.
JEE Main Session 2 Difficulty Level Analysis
| JEE Mains 2025 Session 2 exam dates | Paper | Exam Analysis |
|---|---|---|
| April 2, 2025 | Paper 1 (B.E/BTech) |
|
| April 3, 2025 | Paper 1 (B.E/BTech) |
|
| April 4, 2025 | Paper 1 (B.E/BTech) |
|
| April 7, 2025 | Paper 1 (B.E/BTech) | TBA |
| April 8, 2025 | Paper 1 (B.E/BTech) | TBA |
| April 9, 2025 | Paper 2A (BArch) and Paper 2B (BPlanning) | TBA |
Related Links:
- JEE Main 2025 Question Paper pdf with solutions
- JEE Main Previous Years Question Paper with Solution PDF
JEE Main Marking Scheme 2025
For JEE Main Paper 1(B.E/BTech), students are required to attempt 75 questions following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones. The marking scheme is the same across Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections totaling to 300 marks.
| Paper | Sections | Questions | Marks | Marking Scheme |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Paper 1 | Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics | 75 Questions (25 Physics, 25 Chemistry, 25 Mathematics) | 300 total |
|
Is there any negative marking in JEE Main Paper 1?
- If you choose the wrong answer in both Section A and Section B, you will lose 1 mark because of negative marking.
- In Section B, instead of choosing an option, you have to type the correct whole number using the on screen number pad. If your answer is a decimal, round it off to the nearest whole number before entering it.
Once you calculate your expected marks, you can review the JEE Main Question papers to improve your preparation.
You can check:
- JEE Main Previous Years Question Paper with Solution
- JEE Main 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF
- JEE Main 2023 Question Paper with Solution PDF
- JEE Main 2022 Question Paper with Solution PDF
What to carry at the JEE Main Test Centre ?
Every aspirant must check the JEE Main exam day guidelines before the examination. The JEE Main exam instructions comprise of all the dos and don’ts to be followed for a hassle-free exam process. JEE Mains rules and regulations for the exam are provided below:
| What to Carry | What NOT to Carry |
| JEE Main 2025 Admit Card (Mandatory) | Electronic gadgets (Mobile phones, smartwatches, calculators, Bluetooth devices) |
| Valid ID Proof (Aadhaar Card, PAN Card, Voter ID, Passport, etc.) | Written/Printed Study Materials (Books, Notes, Papers) |
| A simple transparent ballpoint pen (for rough work) | Any type of rough paper (NTA will provide sheets) |
| A passport-size photograph (same as on the admit card) | Smart devices (Earphones, Digital Watches, Fitness Bands) |
| PwD Certificate (if applicable) | Geometry boxes, Log tables, or Any extra stationery items |
| A transparent water bottle (Optional) | Wallets, Purses, or Bags |
How to attempt JEE Main 2025 MCQ’s with Maximum Accuracy?
For accuracy in JEE Main MCQ’s concepts need to be well understood. On average, based on past JEE exams, almost 60 % of the incorrect answers are because of reading the question wrong or marking the wrong answers.
For numerical value questions, if the question requires you to round it off to the nearest integer, accuracy is important. It can cost 4 marks per question which can have a significant impact on your rank.
In revising an answer, many students choose to trade their initial answer for another incorrect alternative. Based on the past year trends, first solutions are accurate most of the time, a figure close to 70%. One should second-guess only on a sound reason for doubt about error.
Eliminating options can increase the probability of selecting the correct answer to 50%.







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