JEE Main 2025 January 29 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on January 29, 2025, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2025 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 75 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 25 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 5 numerical value questions per subject, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2025 January 29 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2025 January 29 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let \( \overrightarrow{a} = i + 2j + k \) and \( \overrightarrow{b} = 2i + 7j + 3k \). Let \( L_1 : \overrightarrow{r} = (-i + 2j + k) + \lambda \overrightarrow{a}, \lambda \in \mathbb{R} \) and \( L_2 : \overrightarrow{r} = (j + k) + \mu \overrightarrow{b}, \mu \in \mathbb{R} \) be two lines. If the line \( L_3 \) passes through the point of intersection of \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \), and is parallel to \( \overrightarrow{a} + \overrightarrow{b} \), then \( L_3 \) passes through the point:

  • (A) \( (-1, -1, 1) \)
  • (B) \( (5, 17, 4) \)
  • (C) \( (2, 8, 5) \)
  • (D) \( (8, 26, 12) \)

Question 2:

Define a relation \( R \) on the interval \( \left[ 0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right] \) by \( x \, R \, y \) if and only if \( \sec^2 x - \tan^2 y = 1 \). Then \( R \) is:

  • (1) both reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
  • (2) both reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
  • (3) reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
  • (4) an equivalence relation

Question 3:

The integral \( 80 \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{(\sin \theta + \cos \theta)}{(9 + 16 \sin 2\theta)} \, d\theta \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 6 \log 4 \)
  • (2) \( 2 \log 3 \)
  • (3) \( 4 \log 3 \)
  • (4) \( 3 \log 4 \)

Question 4:

Let the area of the region \( \{(x, y) : 2y \leq x^2 + 3, y + |x| \leq 3, y \geq |x-1| \} \) be \( A \). Then \( 6A \) is equal to:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 12

Question 5:

Let \( ABC \) be a triangle formed by the lines \( 7x - 6y + 3 = 0 \), \( x + 2y - 31 = 0 \), and \( 9x - 2y - 19 = 0 \). Let the point \( (h, k) \) be the image of the centroid of \( \triangle ABC \) in the line \( 3x + 6y - 53 = 0 \). Then \( h^2 + k^2 + hk \) is equal to:

  • (1) 47
  • (2) 36
  • (3) 40
  • (4) 37

Question 6:

Let \( P \) be the set of seven-digit numbers with the sum of their digits equal to 11. If the numbers in \( P \) are formed by using the digits 1, 2, and 3 only, then the number of elements in the set \( P \) is:

  • (1) 158
  • (2) 173
  • (3) 161
  • (4) 164

Question 7:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation \[ \cos(x \log_e (\cos x))^2 \, dy + (\sin x - 3 \sin x \log_e (\cos x)) \, dx = 0, \, x \in \left( 0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \] If \( y \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) = -1 \), then \( y \left( \frac{\pi}{6} \right) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\log_e (4) - \log_e (3)} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{\log_e (3) - \log_e (4)} \)
  • (3) \( - \frac{1}{\log_e (4)} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{\log_e (3) - \log_e (4)} \)

Question 8:

Let \( A = \left[ a_{ij} \right] = \left[ \begin{array}{cc} \log_5 128 & \log_4 5
\log_5 8 & \log_4 25 \end{array} \right] \). If \( A_{ij} \) is the cofactor of \( a_{ij} \), \( C_{ij} = \sum_{k=1}^{2} a_{ik} A_{jk} \), and \( C = [C_{ij}] \), then \( 8|C| \) is equal to:

  • (1) 242
  • (2) 222
  • (3) 262
  • (4) 288

Question 9:

Let the ellipse \( E_1 : \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \), \( a > b \) and \( E_2 : \frac{x^2}{A^2} + \frac{y^2}{B^2} = 1 \), \( A < B \), have the same eccentricity \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \). Let the product of their lengths of latus rectums be \( \frac{32}{\sqrt{3}} \) and the distance between the foci of \( E_1 \) be 4. If \( E_1 \) and \( E_2 \) meet at A, B, C, and D, then the area of the quadrilateral ABCD equals:

  • (1) \( \frac{18 \sqrt{6}}{5} \)
  • (2) \( 6 \sqrt{6} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{12 \sqrt{6}}{5} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{24 \sqrt{6}}{5} \)

Question 10:

Let \( M \) and \( m \) respectively be the maximum and the minimum values of \[ f(x) = \frac{1 + \sin^2 x}{\cos^2 x} + \frac{4 \sin 4x}{\sin^2 x \cos^2 x} \quad \text{for} \quad x \in \mathbb{R} \] Then \( M^4 - m^4 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 1215
  • (2) 1040
  • (3) 1295
  • (4) 1280

Question 11:

Consider an A.P. of positive integers, whose sum of the first three terms is 54 and the sum of the first twenty terms lies between 1600 and 1800. Then its 11th term is:

  • (1) 122
  • (2) 84
  • (3) 90
  • (4) 108

Question 12:

The number of solutions of the equation \[ \left( \frac{9}{x} - \frac{9}{\sqrt{x}} + 2 \right) \left( \frac{2}{x} - \frac{7}{\sqrt{x}} + 3 \right) = 0 \] is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4

Question 13:

Let \( \mathbf{a} = 2\hat{i} - \hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \), \( \mathbf{b} = 3\hat{i} - 5\hat{j} + \hat{k} \), and \( \mathbf{c} \) be a vector such that \( \mathbf{a} \times \mathbf{c} = \mathbf{a} \times \mathbf{b} \) and \[ (\mathbf{a} + \mathbf{c}) \cdot (\mathbf{b} + \mathbf{c}) = 168. \] Then the maximum value of \( | \mathbf{c} |^2 \) is:

  • (1) 462
  • (2) 77
  • (3) 308
  • (4) 154

Question 14:

Let the line \( x + y = 1 \) meet the circle \( x^2 + y^2 = 4 \) at the points A and B. If the line perpendicular to \( AB \) and passing through the mid point of the chord AB intersects the circle at C and D, then the area of the quadrilateral ABCD is equal to:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{14} \)
  • (2) \( 5\sqrt{7} \)
  • (3) \( 3\sqrt{7} \)
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{14} \)

Question 15:

Let \( |z_1 - 8 - 2i| \leq 1 \) and \( |z_2 - 2 + 6i| \leq 2 \), where \( z_1, z_2 \in \mathbb{C} \). Then the minimum value of \( |z_1 - z_2| \) is:

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 3

Question 16:

The least value of \( n \) for which the number of integral terms in the Binomial expansion of \( \left( \sqrt{7} + \sqrt{11} \right)^n \) is 183, is:

  • (1) 2196
  • (2) 2172
  • (3) 2184
  • (4) 2148

Question 17:

Two parabolas have the same focus \( (4, 3) \) and their directrices are the x-axis and the y-axis, respectively. If these parabolas intersect at points A and B, then \( (AB)^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 392
  • (2) 192
  • (3) 96
  • (4) 384

Question 18:

The value of \[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \left( \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{k^3 + 6k^2 + 11k + 5}{(k + 3)!} \right) \] is:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) \( \frac{7}{3} \)

Question 19:

Let \( x_1, x_2, \ldots, x_{10} \) be ten observations such that \[ \sum_{i=1}^{10} (x_i - 2) = 30, \quad \sum_{i=1}^{10} (x_i - \beta)^2 = 98, \quad \beta \geq 2, \] and their variance is \( \frac{4}{5} \). If \( \mu \) and \( \sigma^2 \) are respectively the mean and the variance of \( 2(x_1 - 1) + 4B, 2(x_2 - 1) + 4B, \ldots, 2(x_{10} - 1) + 4B \), then \( \frac{B\mu}{\sigma^2} \) is equal to:

  • (1) 100
  • (2) 110
  • (3) 90
  • (4) 120

Question 20:

Let \[ L_1 : \frac{x-1}{1} = \frac{y-2}{-1} = \frac{z-1}{-1} \quad \text{and} \quad L_2 : \frac{x+1}{1} = \frac{y-2}{2} = \frac{z-2}{2} \] be two lines. Let \( L_3 \) be a line passing through the point \( (\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \) and be perpendicular to both \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \). If \( L_3 \) intersects \( L_1 \) where \( 5x - 11y - 8z = 1 \), then \( 5x - 11y - 8z \) equals:

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 10
  • (4)

    25 
     


Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q25)

Question 21:

Let \( [t] \) be the greatest integer less than or equal to \( t \). Then the least value of \( p \in \mathbb{N} \) for which \[ \lim_{x \to \infty} \left( x \left( \left[ 1/x \right] + \left[ 2/x \right] + \cdots + \left[ p/x \right] \right) - x^2 \left( \frac{1}{x^2} + \frac{2}{x^2} + \cdots + \frac{p^2}{x^2} \right) \right) \geq 1 \] is equal to:


Question 22:

Let \( S = \{ x : \cos^{-1}x = \pi + \sin^{-1}x + \sin^{-1}(2x+1) \} \). Then \[ \sum_{x \in S} (2x - 1)^2 \text{ is equal to:} \]


Question 23:

Let \( f : (0, \infty) \to \mathbb{R} \) be a twice differentiable function. If for some \( a \neq 0 \), \[ \int_0^a f(x) \, dx = f(a), \quad f(1) = 1, \quad f(16) = \frac{1}{8}, \quad \text{then} \quad 16 - f^{-1}\left( \frac{1}{16} \right) \] is equal to:


Question 24:

The number of 6-letter words, with or without meaning, that can be formed using the letters of the word "MATHS" such that any letter that appears in the word must appear at least twice is:


Question 25:

Let \[ S = \left\{ m \in \mathbb{Z} : A m^2 + A^n = 31 - A^6 \right\}, \quad \text{where} \quad A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & -1
1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \] Then \( n(S) \) is equal to:


Physics - Section A (Q26 - Q45)

Question 26:

A coil of area \( A \) and \( N \) turns is rotating with angular velocity \( \omega \) in a uniform magnetic field \( \mathbf{B} \) about an axis perpendicular to \( \mathbf{B} \). Magnetic flux \( \phi \) and induced emf \( \varepsilon \) across it, at an instant when \( \mathbf{B} \) is parallel to the plane of the coil, are:

  • (1) \( \phi = AB, \, \varepsilon = 0 \)
  • (2) \( \phi = 0, \, \varepsilon = 0 \)
  • (3) \( \phi = 0, \, \varepsilon = NAB\omega \)
  • (4) \( \phi = AB, \, \varepsilon = NAB\omega \)

Question 27:

If \( \lambda \) and \( K \) are de Broglie wavelength and kinetic energy, respectively, of a particle with constant mass. The correct graphical representation for the particle will be:

  • (1) Q27a
  • (2) Q27b
  • (3)Q27c
  • (4) Q27d

Question 28:

The pair of physical quantities not having same dimensions is:

  • (1) Torque and energy
  • (2) Pressure and Young's modulus
  • (3) Angular momentum and Planck's constant
  • (4) Surface tension and impulse

Question 29:

As shown below, bob A of a pendulum having massless string of length \( R \) is released from \( 60^\circ \) to the vertical. It hits another bob B of half the mass that is at rest on a frictionless table in the center. Assuming elastic collision, the magnitude of the velocity of bob A after the collision will be (take \( g \) as acceleration due to gravity): 
29

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{3} \sqrt{Rg} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{Rg} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{3} \sqrt{Rg} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4}{3} \sqrt{Rg} \)

Question 30:

At the interface between two materials having refractive indices \( n_1 \) and \( n_2 \), the critical angle for reflection of an EM wave is \( \theta_c \). The \( n_1 \) material is replaced by another material having refractive index \( n_3 \), such that the critical angle at the interface between \( n_1 \) and \( n_3 \) materials is \( \theta_{c3} \). If \( n_1 > n_2 > n_3 \), \( \frac{n_2}{n_3} = \frac{2}{5} \), and \( \sin\theta_{c2} - \sin\theta_{c1} = \frac{1}{2} \), then \( \theta_{c1} \) is:

  • (1) \( \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{5}{6n_1} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{2}{3n_1} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{3n_1} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{6n_1} \right) \)

Question 31:

The workdone in an adiabatic change in an ideal gas depends upon:

  • (1) change in its pressure
  • (2) change in its volume
  • (3) change in its specific heat
  • (4) change in its temperature

Question 32:

Two projectiles are fired with the same initial speed from the same point on the ground at angles of \( (45^\circ - \alpha) \) and \( (45^\circ + \alpha) \), respectively, with the horizontal direction. The ratio of their maximum heights attained is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1 - \tan \alpha}{1 + \tan \alpha} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1 - \sin 2\alpha}{1 + \sin 2\alpha} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1 + \sin 2\alpha}{1 - \sin 2\alpha} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1 + \sin \alpha}{1 - \sin \alpha} \)

Question 33:

The fractional compression \( \frac{\Delta V}{V} \) of water at the depth of 2.5 km below the sea level is:

  • (1) 1.5
  • (2) 1.0
  • (3) 1.75
  • (4) 1.25

Question 34:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Choke coil is simply a coil having a large inductance but a small resistance. Choke coils are used with fluorescent mercury-tube fittings. If household electric power is directly connected to a mercury tube, the tube will be damaged. Reason (R): By using the choke coil, the voltage across the tube is reduced by a factor \( \frac{R}{\sqrt{R^2 + \omega^2 L^2}} \), where \( \omega \) is the frequency of the supply across resistor \( R \) and inductor \( L \). If the choke coil were not used, the voltage across the resistor would be the same as the applied voltage. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is true but (R) is false

Question 35:

Consider \( I_1 \) and \( I_2 \) are the currents flowing simultaneously in two nearby coils 1 & 2, respectively. If \( L_1 \) = self inductance of coil 1, \( M_{12} \) = mutual inductance of coil 1 with respect to coil 2, then the value of induced emf in coil 1 will be:

  • (1) \( e_1 = -L_1 \frac{dI_2}{dt} + M_{12} \frac{dI_1}{dt} \)
  • (2) \( e_1 = -L_1 \frac{dI_1}{dt} + M_{12} \frac{dI_2}{dt} \)
  • (3) \( e_1 = -L_1 \frac{dI_1}{dt} - M_{12} \frac{dI_2}{dt} \)
  • (4) \( e_1 = -L_1 \frac{dI_1}{dt} + M_{12} \frac{dI_1}{dt} \)

Question 36:

36a
For the circuit shown above, the equivalent gate is:

  • (1) AND gate
  • (2) OR gate
  • (3) NAND gate
  • (4) NOT gate

Question 37:

Let \( u \) and \( v \) be the distances of the object and the image from a lens of focal length \( f \). The correct graphical representation of \( u \) and \( v \) for a convex lens when \( |u| > f \), is:

37a
37b

37c

37d

  • (1) Linear graph
  • (2) Inverse graph
  • (3) Parabolic graph
  • (4) Hyperbolic graph

Question 38:

Consider a long straight wire of a circular cross-section (radius \( a \)) carrying a steady current \( I \). The current is uniformly distributed across this cross-section. The distances from the centre of the wire's cross-section at which the magnetic field (inside the wire, outside the wire) is half of the maximum possible magnetic field, anywhere due to the wire, will be:

  • (1) \( \left[ \frac{a}{2}, 3a \right] \)
  • (2) \( \left[ \frac{a}{2}, 2a \right] \)
  • (3) \( \left[ \frac{a}{4}, 2a \right] \)
  • (4) \( \left[ \frac{a}{4}, \frac{3a}{2} \right] \)

Question 39:

An electric dipole of mass \( m \), charge \( q \), and length \( l \) is placed in a uniform electric field \( \mathbf{E} = E_0 \hat{i} \). When the dipole is rotated slightly from its equilibrium position and released, the time period of its oscillations will be:

  • (1) \( 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{ml}{qE_0}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\frac{2ml}{qE_0}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\frac{ml}{2qE_0}} \)
  • (4) \( 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{ml}{2qE_0}} \)

Question 40:

A body of mass \( m \) connected to a massless and unstretchable string goes in vertical circle of radius \( R \) under gravity \( g \). The other end of the string is fixed at the center of the circle. If velocity at top of circular path is \( v = \sqrt{n g R} \), where \( n \geq 1 \), then the ratio of kinetic energy of the body at bottom to that at top of the circle is:

  • (1) \( \frac{n^2}{n^2 + 4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{n}{n + 4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{n + 4}{n} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{n^2 + 4}{n^2} \)

Question 41:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Time period of a simple pendulum is longer at the top of a mountain than that at the base of the mountain. Reason (R): Time period of a simple pendulum decreases with increasing value of acceleration due to gravity and vice-versa. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is true but (R) is false

Question 42:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Electromagnetic waves carry energy but not momentum. Reason (R): Mass of a photon is zero. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is true but (R) is false

Question 43:

Match List - I with List - II: List - I: (A) Electric field inside (distance \( r > 0 \) from center) of a uniformly charged spherical shell with surface charge density \( \sigma \), and radius \( R \). (B) Electric field at distance \( r > 0 \) from a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet with surface charge density \( \sigma \). (C) Electric field outside (distance \( r > 0 \) from center) of a uniformly charged spherical shell with surface charge density \( \sigma \), and radius \( R \). (D) Electric field between two oppositely charged infinite plane parallel sheets with uniform surface charge density \( \sigma \). List - II: (I) \( \frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0} \) (II) \( \frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0} \) (III) 0 (IV) \( \frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0 r^2} \) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \( \text{(A)-(IV)}, \text{(B)-(II)}, \text{(C)-(III)}, \text{(D)-(I)} \)
  • (2) \( \text{(A)-(IV)}, \text{(B)-(I)}, \text{(C)-(III)}, \text{(D)-(II)} \)
  • (3) \( \text{(A)-(III)}, \text{(B)-(II)}, \text{(C)-(IV)}, \text{(D)-(I)} \)
  • (4) \( \text{(A)-(I)}, \text{(B)-(II)}, \text{(C)-(IV)}, \text{(D)-(III)} \)

Question 44:

The expression given below shows the variation of velocity \( v \) with time \( t \): \[ v = At^2 + \frac{Bt}{C + t}. \] The dimension of \( ABC \) is:

  • (1) \( [M L^2 T^{-3}] \)
  • (2) \( [M L T^{-3}] \)
  • (3) \( [M L^2 T^{-2}] \)
  • (4) \( [M L T^{-2}] \)

Question 45:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Emission of electrons in photoelectric effect can be suppressed by applying a sufficiently negative electron potential to the photoemissive substance. Reason (R): A negative electric potential, which stops the emission of electrons from the surface of a photoemissive substance, varies linearly with frequency of incident radiation. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Physics - Section B (Q46 - Q50)

Question 46:

The coordinates of a particle with respect to origin in a given reference frame is \( (1, 1, 1) \) meters. If a force of \( \mathbf{F} = \hat{i} - \hat{j} + \hat{k} \) acts on the particle, then the magnitude of torque (with respect to origin) in \( z \)-direction is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 47:

Two light beams fall on a transparent material block at point 1 and 2 with angle \( \theta_1 \) and \( \theta_2 \), respectively, as shown in the figure. After refraction, the beams intersect at point 3 which is exactly on the interface at the other end of the block. Given: the distance between 1 and 2, \( d = \frac{4}{3} \) cm and \( \theta_1 = \theta_2 = \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{n_2}{2n_1} \right) \), where \( n_2 \) is the refractive index of the block and \( n_1 \) is the refractive index of the outside medium, then the thickness of the block is _____ cm. 
47a

  • (1) 1 cm
  • (2) 2 cm
  • (3) 3 cm
  • (4) 4 cm

Question 48:

A container of fixed volume contains a gas at 27°C. To double the pressure of the gas, the temperature of the gas should be raised to _____°C.

  • (1) 327°C
  • (2) 327 K
  • (3) 527°C
  • (4) 527 K

Question 49:

The maximum speed of a boat in still water is 27 km/h. Now this boat is moving downstream in a river flowing at 9 km/h. A man in the boat throws a ball vertically upwards with speed of 10 m/s. Range of the ball as observed by an observer at rest on the river bank is _____ cm. (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)).

  • (1) 50 cm
  • (2) 100 cm
  • (3) 200 cm
  • (4) 300 cm

Question 50:

In a hydraulic lift, the surface area of the input piston is 6 cm² and that of the output piston is 1500 cm². If 100 N force is applied to the input piston to raise the output piston by 20 cm, then the work done is _____ kJ.

  • (1) 0.01 kJ
  • (2) 0.1 kJ
  • (3) 1 kJ
  • (4) 10 kJ

Chemistry - Section A (Q51 - Q70)

Question 51:

The correct increasing order of stability of the complexes based on \( \Delta \) value is:

  • (1) \( \text{IV} < \text{III} < \text{II} < \text{I} \)
  • (2) \( \text{I} < \text{II} < \text{IV} < \text{III} \)
  • (3) \( \text{III} < \text{II} < \text{IV} < \text{I} \)
  • (4) \( \text{II} < \text{III} < \text{I} < \text{IV} \)

Question 52:

In the following substitution reaction:
Q52
52a

52b
52c
56d


Question 53:

Total number of nucleophiles from the following is: \[ \text{NH}_3, \text{PhSH}, \text{(H}_3\text{C}_2\text{S})_2, \text{H}_2\text{C}= \text{C}\text{H}_2, \, \text{OH}^-, \, \text{H}_3\text{O}^+, \, (\text{CH}_3)_2 \text{CO}, \, \text{NCH}_3 \]

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 7

Question 54:

The molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte when plotted against the square root of its concentration, which of the following is expected to be observed?

  • (1) A small decrease in molar conductivity is observed at infinite dilution.
  • (2) A small increase in molar conductivity is observed at infinite dilution.
  • (3) Molar conductivity increases sharply with increase in concentration.
  • (4) Molar conductivity decreases sharply with increase in concentration.

Question 55:

Given below are two statements: Statement (I): The radius of isoelectronic species increases in the order. \[ \text{Mg}^{2+} < \text{Na}^+ < \text{F}^- < \text{O}^{2-} \] Statement (II): The magnitude of electron gain enthalpy of halogens decreases in the order. \[ \text{Cl} > \text{F} > \text{Br} > \text{I} \] In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Question 56:

The product (P) formed in the following reaction is:
Q56
56a
56b

56c

56 d
 


Question 57:

Match List - I with List - II: List - I: (A) \( \text{[MnBr}_4]^{2-} \)
(B) \( \text{[FeF}_6]^{3-} \)
(C) \( \text{[Co(C}_2\text{O}_4)_3]^{3-} \)
(D) \( \text[Ni(CO)_4] \)
List - II: (I) \( d^2sp^3 \) & diamagnetic
(II) \( sp^2d^2 \) & paramagnetic
(III) \( sp^3 \) & diamagnetic
(IV) \( sp^3 \) & paramagnetic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \( \text{(A)-(III)}, \text{(B)-(II)}, \text{(C)-(I)}, \text{(D)-(IV)} \)
  • (2) \( \text{(A)-(IV)}, \text{(B)-(I)}, \text{(C)-(II)}, \text{(D)-(III)} \)
  • (3) \( \text{(A)-(I)}, \text{(B)-(II)}, \text{(C)-(III)}, \text{(D)-(IV)} \)
  • (4) \( \text{(A)-(IV)}, \text{(B)-(I)}, \text{(C)-(III)}, \text{(D)-(II)} \)

Question 58:

At temperature T, compound \( \text{AB}_2 \) dissociates as \( \text{AB}_2 \rightleftharpoons \text{A} + \frac{1}{2} \text{B}_2 \), having degree of dissociation \( x \) (small compared to unity). The correct expression for \( x \) in terms of \( K_p \) and \( p \) is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{K_p p} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2K_p}{p} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2K_p}{p} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2K_p^2}{p} \)

Question 59:

The steam volatile compounds among the following are:

option 1
Option B

Option C

Option D

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \( \text{(A)} \) and \( \text{(B)} \) Only
  • (2) \( \text{(A)}, \text{(B)} \) and \( \text{(C)} \) Only
  • (3) \( \text{(B)} \) and \( \text{(D)} \) Only
  • (4) \( \text{(A)} \) and \( \text{(C)} \) Only

Question 60:

For a \( \text{Mg} | \text{Mg}^{2+}(aq) || \text{Ag}^{+}(aq) | \text{Ag} \), the correct Nernst Equation is:

  • (1) \( E_{\text{cell}} = E_{\text{cell}}^o + \frac{RT}{2F} \ln \frac{[\text{Ag}^+]}{[\text{Mg}^{2+}]} \)
  • (2) \( E_{\text{cell}} = E_{\text{cell}}^o - \frac{RT}{2F} \ln \frac{[\text{Ag}^+]}{[\text{Mg}^{2+}]} \)
  • (3) \( E_{\text{cell}} = E_{\text{cell}}^o - \frac{RT}{2F} \ln \frac{[\text{Mg}^{2+}]}{[\text{Ag}^+]} \)
  • (4) \( E_{\text{cell}} = E_{\text{cell}}^o + \frac{RT}{2F} \ln [\text{Ag}^+]^2 \)

Question 61:

An element 'E' has the ionisation enthalpy value of 374 kJ mol\(^{-1}\). 'E' reacts with elements A, B, C, and D with electron gain enthalpy values of \( -328 \), \( -349 \), \( -325 \), and \( -295 \) kJ mol\(^{-1}\), respectively. The correct order of the products EA, EB, EC, and ED in terms of ionic character is:

  • (1) \( \text{EA} > \text{EB} > \text{EC} > \text{ED} \)
  • (2) \( \text{ED} > \text{EC} > \text{EA} > \text{EB} \)
  • (3) \( \text{ED} > \text{EC} > \text{EB} > \text{EA} \)
  • (4) \( \text{EB} > \text{EA} > \text{EC} > \text{ED} \)

Question 62:

If \( a_0 \) is denoted as the Bohr radius of the hydrogen atom, then what is the de-Broglie wavelength \( \lambda \) of the electron present in the second orbit of hydrogen atom? (\( n \): any integer)

  • (1) \( \frac{4n a_0}{\pi a_0} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{8 \pi a_0}{n} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4 \pi a_0}{n} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2 a_0}{n \pi} \)

Question 63:

The standard reduction potential values of some of the p-block ions are given below. Predict the one with the strongest oxidising capacity.

  • (1) \( \text{E}^\circ \, \text{I}_3^- / \text{I}_2 = +1.26 \, \text{V} \)
  • (2) \( \text{E}^\circ \, \text{Al}^{3+} / \text{Al} = -1.66 \, \text{V} \)
  • (3) \( \text{E}^\circ \, \text{Pb}^{4+} / \text{Pb}^{2+} = +1.67 \, \text{V} \)
  • (4) \( \text{E}^\circ \, \text{Sn}^{4+} / \text{Sn}^{2+} = +1.15 \, \text{V} \)

Question 64:

Match List - I with List - II: List - I: (A) Amylase
(B) Cellulose
(C) Glycogen
(D) Amylopectin
List - II: (I) \( \beta \)-C1-C4 plant
(II) \( \alpha \)-C1-C4 animal
(III) \( \alpha \)-C1-C4 \( \alpha \)-C1-C6 plant
(IV) \( \alpha \)-C1-C4 plant
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \( \text{(A)-(IV)}, \text{(B)-(II)}, \text{(C)-(III)}, \text{(D)-(I)} \)
  • (2) \( \text{(A)-(IV)}, \text{(B)-(I)}, \text{(C)-(III)}, \text{(D)-(II)} \)
  • (3) \( \text{(A)-(III)}, \text{(B)-(II)}, \text{(C)-(I)}, \text{(D)-(IV)} \)
  • (4) \( \text{(A)-(IV)}, \text{(B)-(I)}, \text{(C)-(III)}, \text{(D)-(II)} \)

Question 65:

Match List - I with List - II: 

Structure & IUPAC Name  (A) C6H{13}CH=CH2 & (I) 4 - Methylpent-1-ene  (B) (CH3)2C(C5H3) & (II) 4, 4

Choose the correct answer from the given below options

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Question 66:

1.24 g of \(AX_2\) (molar mass 124 g mol\(^{-1}\)) is dissolved in 1 kg of water to form a solution with boiling point of 100.105°C, while 2.54 g of AY_2 (molar mass 250 g mol\(^{-1}\)) in 2 kg of water constitutes a solution with a boiling point of 100.026°C. \(Kb(H)_2\)\(\text(O)\) = 0.52 K kg mol\(^{-1}\). Which of the following is correct?

  • (1) AX₂ is completely unionised while AY₂ is fully ionised.
  • (2) AX₂ is fully ionised while AY₂ is completely unionised.
  • (3) AX₂ and AY₂ (both) are completely unionised.
  • (4) AX₂ and AY₂ (both) are fully ionised.

Question 67:

The reaction \( \text{A}_2 + \text{B}_2 \to 2\text{AB} \) follows the mechanism: \[ \text{A}_2 \xrightarrow{k_1} \text{A} + \text{A} \ (\text{fast}) \quad \text{A} + \text{B}_2 \xrightarrow{k_2} \text{AB} + \text{B} \ (\text{slow}) \quad \text{A} + \text{B} \to \text{AB} \ (\text{fast}) \] The overall order of the reaction is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 1.5
  • (3) 2.5
  • (4) 2

Question 68:

The correct option with order of melting points of the pairs (Mn, Fe), (Tc, Ru) and (Re, Os) is:

  • (1) \( \text{Fe} < \text{Mn}, \ \text{Ru} < \text{Tc} \ \text{and} \ \text{Re} < \text{Os} \)
  • (2) \( \text{Mn} < \text{Fe}, \ \text{Tc} < \text{Ru} \ \text{and} \ \text{Os} < \text{Re} \)
  • (3) \( \text{Mn} < \text{Fe}, \ \text{Tc} < \text{Ru} \ \text{and} \ \text{Re} < \text{Os} \)
  • (4) \( \text{Fe} < \text{Mn}, \ \text{Ru} < \text{Tc} \ \text{and} \ \text{Os} < \text{Re} \)

Question 69:

Choose the correct statements.
(A) Weight of a substance is the amount of matter present in it.
(B) Mass is the force exerted by gravity on an object.
(C) Volume is the amount of space occupied by a substance.
(D) Temperatures below \(0^\circ\)C are possible in Celsius scale, but in Kelvin scale negative temperature is not possible.
(E) Precision refers to the closeness of various measurements for the same quantity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) Only
  • (2) (B), (C) and (D) Only
  • (3) (C), (D) and (E) Only
  • (4) (A), (D) and (E) Only

Question 70:

500 J of energy is transferred as heat to 0.5 mol of Argon gas at 298 K and 1.00 atm. The final temperature and the change in internal energy respectively are: Given \( R = 8.3 \, \text{J K}^{-1} \, \text{mol}^{-1} \) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) 348 K and 300 J
  • (2) 378 K and 500 J
  • (3) 378 K and 300 J
  • (4) 368 K and 500 J

Chemistry - Section B (Q71 - Q75)

Question 71:

Given below are some nitrogen containing compounds:
Q71
Each of them is treated with HCl separately. 1.0 g of the most basic compound will consume ....... mg of HCl.
(Given Molar mass in g mol\(^{-1}\): C: 12, H: 1, O: 16, Cl: 35.5.)


Question 72:

If \( \text{A}_2\text{B} \) is 30% ionised in an aqueous solution, then the value of van't Hoff factor \( i \) is:


Question 73:

The sum of sigma (\( \sigma \)) and pi (\( \pi \)) bonds in Hex-1,3-dien-5-yne is:


Question 74:

Q74
0.1 mole of compound S will weigh ....... g,
(given the molar mass in g mol\(^{-1}\) \( \text{C} = 12, \, \text{H} = 1, \, \text{O} = 16 )\):


Question 75:

The molar mass of the water insoluble product formed from the fusion of chromite ore \( \text{FeCr}_2\text{O}_4 \) with \( \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \) in presence of \( \text{O}_2 \) is ....... g mol\(^{-1}\).

  • (1) \( \text{196 g mol}^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( \text{198 g mol}^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( \text{200 g mol}^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( \text{202 g mol}^{-1} \)

JEE Main 2025 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 75 Questions
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

Also Check: JEE Main 2025 Question Papers (Download PDF)

JEE Main 29th Jan Shift 1 Paper Analysis- Check Difficulty Level and Good Score

The question paper consisted of a total of 75 questions, divided equally across the three subjects:

  • The Mathematics section in JEE Main 2025 29 Jan Shift 1 Question Paper was Tough with 9 questions coming majorly from topics like Integration, Probability, etc.
  • Physics was Moderate with 14 questions coming majorly from topics like Ray Optics, Gravity, Magnetism, etc.
  • Chemistry was Moderate with 8 questions coming majorly from topics like Organic Chemistry, Physical Chemistry, etc.

Each section included a mix of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and numerical value-based questions, offering a balanced challenge for students.

JEE Main 2025: Shift-Wise Analysis

Session Shift Difficulty Trend 
(Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics)
Overall Difficulty
January 22nd January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy (NCERT-based)
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate
January 22nd January Shift 2
  • Physics: Easy to Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy
  • Mathematics: Moderate, Lengthy
Moderate
January 23rd January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy but Tricky
  • Mathematics: Tough and Lengthy
Moderate
January 23rd January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Easy
  • Mathematics: Tough with Long Calculations
Moderate
January 24th January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate, easier than last four shifts
  • Chemistry: Easier than last four shifts
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate
January 24th January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate, Application Based
  • Chemistry: Easy, more focus on Organic
  • Mathematics: Tough, time-consuming
Moderate
January 28th January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate, Application Based
  • Chemistry: Mdoerate, more focus on Inorganic
  • Mathematics: Tough, time-taking
Tough
January 28th January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Mdoerate, more focus on Inorganic and Physical
  • Mathematics: Tough,Calculation-Based
Tough
January 29th January Shift 1
  • x
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Easy to Moderate
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate to Tough
January 29th January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Easy to Moderate
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate to Tough