JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on April 3, 2025, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2025 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 75 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 25 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 5 numerical value questions per subject, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let \( A \) be a matrix of order \( 3 \times 3 \) and \( |A| = 5 \). If \( |2 \, adj(3A \, adj(2A))| = 2^{\alpha} \cdot 3^{\beta} \cdot 5^{\gamma}, \alpha, \beta, \gamma \in \mathbb{N} \) then \( \alpha + \beta + \gamma \) is equal to

  • (1) \( 25 \)
  • (2) \( 26 \)
  • (3) \( 27 \)
  • (4) \( 28 \)

Question 2:

Let a line passing through the point \( (4,1,0) \) intersect the line \( L_1: \frac{x - 1}{2} = \frac{y - 2}{3} = \frac{z - 3}{4} \) at the point \( A(\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \) and the line \( L_2: x - 6 = y = -z + 4 \) at the point \( B(a, b, c) \). Then \( \begin{vmatrix} 1 & 0 & 1\\ \alpha & \beta & \gamma \\ a & b & c \end{vmatrix} \text{is equal to} \)

  • (1) \( 8 \)
  • (2) \( 16 \)
  • (3) \( 12 \)
  • (4) \( 6 \)

Question 3:

Let \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) be the roots of \( x^2 + \sqrt{3}x - 16 = 0 \), and \( \gamma \) and \( \delta \) be the roots of \( x^2 + 3x - 1 = 0 \). If \( P_n = \alpha^n + \beta^n \) and \( Q_n = \gamma^n + \delta^n \), then \( \frac{P_{25} + \sqrt{3}P_{24}}{2P_{23}} + \frac{Q_{25} - Q_{23}}{Q_{24}} \text{is equal to} \)

  • (1) \( 3 \)
  • (2) \( 4 \)
  • (3) \( 5 \)
  • (4) \( 7 \)

Question 4:

The sum of all rational terms in the expansion of \( \left( 2 + \sqrt{3} \right)^8 \) is

  • (1) \(16923\)
  • (2) \(3763\)
  • (3) \(33845\)
  • (4) \(18817\)

Question 5:

Let A = {-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3}. Let R be a relation on A defined by xRy if and only if \( 0 \le x^2 + 2y \le 4 \). Let \( l \) be the number of elements in R and m be the minimum number of elements required to be added in R to make it a reflexive relation. then \( l + m \) is equal to

  • (1) 19
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 18

Question 6:

A line passing through the point P\((\sqrt{5}, \sqrt{5})\) intersects the ellipse \( \frac{x^2}{36} + \frac{y^2}{25} = 1 \) at A and B such that (PA).(PB) is maximum. Then 5(PA\(^2\) + PB\(^2\)) is equal to :

  • (1) 218
  • (2) 377
  • (3) 290
  • (4) 338

Question 7:

The sum 1 + 3 + 11 + 25 + 45 + 71 + ... upto 20 terms, is equal to

  • (1) 7240
  • (2) 7130
  • (3) 6982
  • (4) 8124

Question 8:

If the domain of the function \( f(x) = \log_e \left( \frac{2x-3}{5+4x} \right) + \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{4+3x}{2-x} \right) \) is \( [\alpha, \beta] \), then \( \alpha^2 + 4\beta \) is equal to

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 7

Question 9:

If \( \sum_{r=1}^{9} \left( \frac{r+3}{2^r} \right) \cdot {^9C_r} = \alpha \left( \frac{3}{2} \right)^9 - \beta \), \( \alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{N} \), then \( (\alpha + \beta)^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) 27
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 81
  • (4) 18

Question 10:

The number of solutions of the equation \( 2x + 3\tan x = \pi \), \( x \in [-2\pi, 2\pi] - \left\{ \pm \frac{\pi}{2}, \pm \frac{3\pi}{2} \right\} \) is

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 3

Question 11:

If \( y(x) = \begin{vmatrix} \sin x & \cos x & \sin x + \cos x + 1
27 & 28 & 27
1 & 1 & 1 \end{vmatrix} \), \( x \in \mathbb{R} \), then \( \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + y \) is equal to

  • (1) -1
  • (2) 28
  • (3) 27
  • (4) 1

Question 12:

Let g be a differentiable function such that \( \int_0^x g(t) dt = x - \int_0^x tg(t) dt \), \( x \ge 0 \) and let \( y = y(x) \) satisfy the differential equation \( \frac{dy}{dx} - y \tan x = 2(x+1) \sec x g(x) \), \( x \in \left[ 0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \). If \( y(0) = 0 \), then \( y\left( \frac{\pi}{3} \right) \) is equal to

  • (1) \( \frac{2\pi}{3\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{4\pi}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4\pi}{3\sqrt{3}} \)

Question 13:

A line passes through the origin and makes equal angles with the positive coordinate axes. It intersects the lines \( L_1 : 2x + y + 6 = 0 \) and \( L_2 : 4x + 2y - p = 0 \), \( p > 0 \), at the points A and B, respectively. If \( AB = \frac{9}{\sqrt{2}} \) and the foot of the perpendicular from the point A on the line \( L_2 \) is M, then \( \frac{AM}{BM} \) is equal to

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 14:

Let \( z \in \mathbb{C} \) be such that \( \frac{z+3i}{z-2+i} = 2+3i \). Then the sum of all possible values of \( z \) is

  • (1) \( 19 - 2i \)
  • (2) \( -19 - 2i \)
  • (3) \( 19 + 2i \)
  • (4) \( -19 + 2i \)

Question 15:

Let \( f(x) = \int x^3 \sqrt{3-x^2} dx \). If \( 5f(\sqrt{2}) = -4 \), then \( f(1) \) is equal to

  • (1) \( -\frac{2\sqrt{2}}{5} \)
  • (2) \( -\frac{8\sqrt{2}}{5} \)
  • (3) \( -\frac{4\sqrt{2}}{5} \)
  • (4) \( -\frac{6\sqrt{2}}{5} \)

Question 16:

Let \( a_1, a_2, a_3, ... \) be a G.P. of increasing positive numbers. If \( a_3 a_5 = 729 \) and \( a_2 + a_4 = \frac{111}{4} \), then \( 24(a_1 + a_2 + a_3) \) is equal to

  • (1) 131
  • (2) 130
  • (3) 129
  • (4) 128

Question 17:

Let the domain of the function \( f(x) = \log_2 \log_4 \log_6 (3 + 4x - x^2) \) be (a, b). If \( \int_0^{a+b} [x^2] dx = p - q\sqrt{r} \), \( p, q, r \in \mathbb{N} \), gcd(p, q, r) = 1, where [.] is the greatest integer function, then p + q + r is equal to

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 9

Question 18:

The radius of the smallest circle which touches the parabolas \( y = x^2 + 2 \) and \( x = y^2 + 2 \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{7\sqrt{2}}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{7\sqrt{2}}{16} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{7\sqrt{2}}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7\sqrt{2}}{8} \)

Question 19:

Let \( f(x) = \begin{cases} (1+ax)^{1/x} & , x < 0
1+b & , x = 0
\frac{(x+4)^{1/2} - 2}{(x+c)^{1/3} - 2} & , x > 0 \end{cases} \) be continuous at x = 0. Then \( e^a bc \) is equal to

  • (1) 64
  • (2) 72
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 36

Question 20:

Line \( L_1 \) passes through the point (1, 2, 3) and is parallel to z-axis. Line \( L_2 \) passes through the point \( (\lambda, 5, 6) \) and is parallel to y-axis. Let for \( \lambda = \lambda_1, \lambda_2, \lambda_2 < \lambda_1 \), the shortest distance between the two lines be 3. Then the square of the distance of the point \( (\lambda_1, \lambda_2, 7) \) from the line \( L_1 \) is

  • (1) 40
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 25
  • (4) 37

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q25)

Question 21:

All five letter words are made using all the letters A, B, C, D, E and arranged as in an English dictionary with serial numbers. Let the word at serial number \( n \) be denoted by \( W_n \). Let the probability \( P(W_n) \) of choosing the word \( W_n \) satisfy \( P(W_n) = 2P(W_{n-1}) \), \( n > 1 \). If \( P(CDBEA) = \frac{2^\alpha}{2^\beta - 1} \), \( \alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{N} \), then \( \alpha + \beta \) is equal to :


Question 22:

Let the product of the focal distances of the point P(4, \( 2\sqrt{3} \)) on the hyperbola H: \( \frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) be 32. Let the length of the conjugate axis of H be p and the length of its latus rectum be q. Then \( p^2 + q^2 \) is equal to .....


Question 23:

Let \( \vec{a} = \hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k} \), \( \vec{b} = 3\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - \hat{k} \), \( \vec{c} = \lambda \hat{j} + \mu \hat{k} \) and \( \hat{d} \) be a unit vector such that \( \vec{a} \times \hat{d} = \vec{b} \times \hat{d} \) and \( \vec{c} \cdot \hat{d} = 1 \). If \( \vec{c} \) is perpendicular to \( \vec{a} \), then \( |3\lambda \hat{d} + \mu \vec{c}|^2 \) is equal to ____.


Question 24:

If the number of seven-digit numbers, such that the sum of their digits is even, is \( m \cdot n \cdot 10^a \); \( m, n \in \{1, 2, 3, ..., 9\} \), then \( m + n \) is equal to


Question 25:

The area of the region bounded by the curve \( y = \max\{|x|, |x-2|\} \), then x-axis and the lines x = -2 and x = 4 is equal to ____.


Physics - Section A (Q26 - Q45)

Question 26:

During the melting of a slab of ice at 273 K at atmospheric pressure:

  • (1) Internal energy of ice-water system remains unchanged.
  • (2) Positive work is done by the ice-water system on the atmosphere.
  • (3) Internal energy of the ice-water system decreases.
  • (4) Positive work is done on the ice-water system by the atmosphere.

Question 27:

Consider a completely full cylindrical water tank of height 1.6 m and cross-sectional area 0.5 \( m^2 \). It has a small hole in its side at a height 90 cm from the bottom. Assume, the cross-sectional area of the hole to be negligibly small as compared to that of the water tank. If a load 50 kg is applied at the top surface of the water in the tank then the velocity of the water coming out at the instant when the hole is opened is : (g = 10 \( m/s^2 \))

  • (1) 3 m/s
  • (2) 5 m/s
  • (3) 2 m/s
  • (4) 4 m/s

Question 28:

Choose the correct logic circuit for the given truth table having inputs A and B.

  • (1)

  • (2)

  • (3)

  • (4)


Question 29:

The radiation pressure exerted by a 450 W light source on a perfectly reflecting surface placed at 2m away from it, is :

  • (1)

    \(1.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ Pascals}\)

  • (2) 0
  • (3)

    \(6 \times 10^{-5} \text{ Pascals}\)

  • (4)

    \(3 \times 10^{-5} \text{ Pascals} \)


Question 30:

A wire of length \( 25 \, m \) and cross-sectional area \( 5 \, mm^2 \) having resistivity \( 2 \times 10^{-6} \, \Omega \cdot m \) is bent into a complete circle. The resistance between diametrically opposite points will be:

  • (1) 12.5 \( \Omega \)
  • (2) 50 \( \Omega \)
  • (3) 100 \( \Omega \)
  • (4) 25 \( \Omega \)

Question 31:

Two blocks of masses \( m \) and \( M \), \( (M > m) \), are placed on a frictionless table as shown in figure. A massless spring with spring constant \( k \) is attached with the lower block. If the system is slightly displaced and released then \( \mu = \) coefficient of friction between the two blocks.

(A) The time period of small oscillation of the two blocks is \( T = 2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{(m + M)}{k}} \)
(B) The acceleration of the blocks is \( a = \dfrac{kx}{M + m} \)
(\( x = \) displacement of the blocks from the mean position)
(C) The magnitude of the frictional force on the upper block is \( \dfrac{m\mu |x|}{M + m} \)
(D) The maximum amplitude of the upper block, if it does not slip, is \( \dfrac{\mu (M + m) g}{k} \)
(E) Maximum frictional force can be \( \mu (M + m) g \)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1)

    A, B and D

  • (2)

    B, C and D

  • (3)

    A, E and D

  • (4)

    C, D, and E


Question 32:

Which of the following curves possibly represent one-dimensional motion of a particle?

  • (1)

    A, B and D Only

  • (2)

    A, D, and C Only

  • (3)

    C, D Only

  • (4)

    B, and D Only


Question 33:

A parallel plate capacitor is filled equally (half) with two dielectrics of dielectric constant \( \epsilon_1 \) and \( \epsilon_2 \), as shown in figures. The distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A. If capacitance in first configuration and second configuration are \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) respectively, then \( \frac{C_1}{C_2} \) is:


  • (1) \( \frac{\epsilon_1 \epsilon_2}{(\epsilon_1 + \epsilon_2)^2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{4\epsilon_1 \epsilon_2}{(\epsilon_1 + \epsilon_2)^2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\epsilon_1 \epsilon_2}{\epsilon_1 + \epsilon_2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\epsilon_0 (\epsilon_1 + \epsilon_2)}{2} \)

Question 34:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I                                                  LIST-II

A. Gravitational constant                 I. \( [LT^{-2}] \)

B. Gravitational potential energy    II. \( [L^2T^{-2}] \)

C. Gravitational potential                 III. \( [ML^2T^{-2}] \)

D. Acceleration due to gravity         IV. \( [M^{-1}L^3T^{-2}] \)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Question 35:

A force of 49 N acts tangentially at the highest point of a sphere (solid) of mass 20 kg, kept on a rough horizontal plane. If the sphere rolls without slipping, then the acceleration of the center of the sphere is


  • (1) 3.5 \( m/s^2 \)
  • (2) 0.35 \( m/s^2 \)
  • (3) 2.5 \( m/s^2 \)
  • (4) 0.25 \( m/s^2 \)

Question 36:

A piston of mass M is hung from a massless spring whose restoring force law goes as F = -kx, where k is the spring constant of appropriate dimension. The piston separates the vertical chamber into two parts, where the bottom part is filled with 'n' moles of an ideal gas. An external work is done on the gas isothermally (at a constant temperature T) with the help of a heating filament (with negligible volume) mounted in lower part of the chamber, so that the piston goes up from a height \( L_0 \) to \( L_1 \), the total energy delivered by the filament is (Assume spring to be in its natural length before heating)


  • (1) \( 3nRT \ln \left( \frac{L_1}{L_0} \right) + 2Mg(L_1 - L_0) + \frac{k}{3} (L_1^3 - L_0^3) \)
  • (2) \( nRT \ln \left( \frac{L_1}{L_0} \right) + \frac{Mg}{2} (L_1 - L_0) + \frac{k}{4} (L_1^4 - L_0^4) \)
  • (3) \( nRT \ln \left( \frac{L_1}{L_0} \right) + Mg(L_1 - L_0) + \frac{k}{4} (L_1^4 - L_0^4) \)
  • (4) \( nRT \ln \left( \frac{L_1}{L_0} \right) + Mg(L_1 - L_0) + \frac{3k}{4} (L_1^4 - L_0^4) \)

Question 37:

A gas is kept in a container having walls which are thermally non-conducting. Initially the gas has a volume of 800 \( cm^3 \) and temperature 27°C. The change in temperature when the gas is adiabatically compressed to 200 \( cm^3 \) is: (Take \( \gamma \) = 1.5 : \( \gamma \) is the ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume)

  • (1) 327 K
  • (2) 600 K
  • (3) 522 K
  • (4) 300 K

Question 38:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

\[ \begin{array}{|l|l|} \hline \text{LIST-I} & \text{LIST-II} \\ \hline A. \ ^{236}_{92} U \rightarrow ^{94}_{38} Sr + ^{140}_{54} Xe + 2n & \text{I. Chemical Reaction} \\ \hline B. \ 2H_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2H_2O & \text{II. Fusion with +ve Q value} \\ \hline C. \ ^3_1 H + ^2_1 H \rightarrow ^4_2 He + n & \text{III. Fission} \\ \hline D. \ ^1_1 H + ^3_1 H \rightarrow ^4_2 H + \gamma & \text{IV. Fusion with -ve Q value} \\ \hline \end{array} \]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Question 39:

The electrostatic potential on the surface of uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R = 10 cm is 120 V. The potential at the centre of shell, at a distance r = 5 cm from centre, and at a distance r = 15 cm from the centre of the shell respectively, are:

  • (1) 120V, 120V, 80V
  • (2) 40V, 40V, 80V
  • (3) 0V, 0V, 80V
  • (4) 0V, 120V, 40V

Question 40:

The work function of a metal is 3 eV. The color of the visible light that is required to cause emission of photoelectrons is

  • (1) Green
  • (2) Blue
  • (3) Red
  • (4) Yellow

Question 41:

A particle is released from height S above the surface of the earth. At certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of the earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively.

  • (1) \( \frac{S}{2} \), \( \sqrt{\frac{3gS}{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{S}{2} \), \( \frac{3gS}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{S}{4} \), \( \sqrt{\frac{3gS}{2}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{S}{4} \), \( \frac{3gS}{2} \)

Question 42:

A person measures mass of 3 different particles as 435.42 g, 226.3 g and 0.125 g. According to the rules for arithmetic operations with significant figures, the additions of the masses of 3 particles will be.

  • (1) 661.845 g
  • (2) 662 g
  • (3) 661.8 g
  • (4) 661.84 g

Question 43:

The radii of curvature for a thin convex lens are 10 cm and 15 cm respectively. The focal length of the lens is 12 cm. The refractive index of the lens material is

  • (1) 1.2
  • (2) 1.4
  • (3) 1.5
  • (4) 1.8

Question 44:

The angle of projection of a particle is measured from the vertical axis as \( \phi \) and the maximum height reached by the particle is \( h_m \). Here \( h_m \) as function of \( \phi \) can be presented as

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 45:

Consider following statements for refraction of light through prism, when angle of deviation is minimum.

  • (1) The refracted ray inside prism becomes parallel to the base.
  • (2) Larger angle prisms provide smaller angle of minimum deviation.
  • (3) Angle of incidence and angle of emergence becomes equal.
  • (4) There are always two sets of angle of incidence for which deviation will be same except at minimum deviation setting.

Physics - Section B (Q46 - Q50)

Question 46:

Three identical spheres of mass m, are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of length a. When released, they interact only through gravitational force and collide after a time T = 4 seconds. If the sides of the triangle are increased to length 2a and also the masses of the spheres are made 2m, then they will collide after ______ seconds.


Question 47:

A 4.0 cm long straight wire carrying a current of 8A is placed perpendicular to an uniform magnetic field of strength 0.15 T. The magnetic force on the wire is ______ mN.


Question 48:

Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities 4I and 9I are superimposed. The difference between the maximum and minimum intensities in the resulting interference pattern is xI. The value of x is ______.


Question 49:

A loop ABCD, carrying current \( I = 12 \, A \), is placed in a plane, consists of two semi-circular segments of radius \( R_1 = 6\pi \, m \) and \( R_2 = 4\pi \, m \). The magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at center O is \( k \times 10^{-7} \, T \). The value of \( k \) is ______ (Given \( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, T m A^{-1} \))



Question 50:

In the figure shown below, a resistance of 150.4 \( \Omega \) is connected in series to an ammeter A of resistance 240 \( \Omega \). A shunt resistance of 10 \( \Omega \) is connected in parallel with the ammeter. The reading of the ammeter is ______ mA.



Chemistry - Section A (Q51 - Q70)

Question 51:

Which of the following postulate of Bohr's model of hydrogen atom in not in agreement with quantum mechanical model of an atom ?

  • (1) An atom in a stationary state does not emit electromagnetic radiation as long as it stays in the same state
  • (2) An atom can take only certain distinct energies \( E_1 \), \( E_2 \), \( E_3 \), etc. These allowed states of constant energy are called the stationary states of atom
  • (3) When an electron makes a transition from a higher energy stationary state to a lower energy stationary state, then it emits a photon of light
  • (4) The electron in a H atom's stationary state moves in a circle around the nucleus

Question 52:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The N-N single bond is weaker and longer than that of P-P single bond
Statement II : Compounds of group 15 elements in +3 oxidation states readily undergo disproportionation reactions.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 53:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I: A catalyst cannot alter the equilibrium constant (\( K_c \)) of the reaction, temperature remaining constant.


Statement II: A homogeneous catalyst can change the equilibrium composition of a system, temperature remaining constant.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 54:

The metal ions that have the calculated spin only magnetic moment value of 4.9 B.M. are
A. \( Cr^{2+} \)
B. \( Fe^{2+} \)
C. \( Fe^{3+} \)
D. \( Co^{2+} \)
E. \( Mn^{2+} \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) A, C and E only
  • (2) B and E only
  • (3) B and E only
  • (4) A, B and E only
  • (A) \( \mathrm{Cr}^{2+} = [\mathrm{Ar}]\,3d^4 \) (4 unpaired \( e^- \))
  • (B) \( \mathrm{Fe}^{2+} = [\mathrm{Ar}]\,3d^6 \) (4 unpaired \( e^- \))
  • (C) \( \mathrm{Fe}^{3+} = [\mathrm{Ar}]\,3d^5 \) (5 unpaired \( e^- \))
  • (D) \( \mathrm{Co}^{2+} = [\mathrm{Ar}]\,3d^7 \) (3 unpaired \( e^- \))

Question 55:

In a reaction A + B → C, initial concentrations of A and B are related as \( [A]_0 = 8[B]_0 \). The half lives of A and B are 10 min and 40 min, respectively. If they start to disappear at the same time, both following first order kinetics, after how much time will the concentration of both the reactants be same?

  • (1) 60 min
  • (2) 80 min
  • (3) 20 min
  • (4) 40 min

Question 56:

Which of the following is the correct structure of L-fructose?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 57:

Identify the correct statements from the following

A. 57 A

B. 57 B

C. 57 C

D. 57 D

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) C and D only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) A, B and C only

Question 58:

Among \( 10^{-10} \) g (each) of the following elements, which one will have the highest number of atoms?

Element : Pb, Po, Pr and Pt

  • (1) Po
  • (2) Pr
  • (3) Pb
  • (4) Pt

Question 59:

Which of the following statements are correct?
A. The process of the addition an electron to a neutral gaseous atom is always exothermic
B. The process of removing an electron from an isolated gaseous atom is always endothermic
C. The 1st ionization energy of the boron is less than that of the beryllium
D. The electronegativity of C is 2.5 in \( CH_4 \) and \( CCl_4 \)
E. Li is the most electropositive among elements of group 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) B and C only
  • (2) A, C and D only
  • (3) B and D only
  • (4) B, C and E only

Question 60:

Which of the following properties will change when system containing solution 1 will become solution 2 ?


  • (1) Molar heat capacity
  • (2) Density
  • (3) Concentration
  • (4) Gibbs free energy

Question 61:

Number of molecules from below which cannot give iodoform reaction is:
Ethanol, Isopropyl alcohol, Bromoacetone, 2-Butanol, 2-Butanone, Butanal, 2-Pentanone, 3-Pentanone, Pentanal and 3-Pentanol

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 2

Question 62:

Identify [A], [B], and [C], respectively in the following reaction sequence :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 63:

In the following reactions, which one is NOT correct?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 64:

The correct order of the complexes
[5pt] \([Co(NH_3)_5(H_2O)]^{3+}\) (A),
[3pt] \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) (B),
[3pt] \([Co(CN)_6]^{3-}\) (C),
[3pt] \([CoCl(NH_3)_5]^{2+}\) (D)
[5pt]
in terms of wavelength of light absorbed is:

  • (1) D \(>\) A \(>\) B \(>\) C
  • (2) C \(>\) B \(>\) D \(>\) A
  • (3) D \(>\) C \(>\) B \(>\) A
  • (4) C \(>\) B \(>\) A \(>\) D

Question 65:

In the following system, \( PCl_5(g) \rightleftharpoons PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g) \) at equilibrium, upon addition of xenon gas at constant T and p, the concentration of

  • (1) \( PCl_5 \) will increase
  • (2) \( Cl_2 \) will decrease
  • (3) \( PCl_5 \), \( PCl_3 \) and \( Cl_2 \) remain constant
  • (4) \( PCl_3 \) will increase

Question 66:

2 moles each of ethylene glycol and glucose are dissolved in 500 g of water. The boiling point of the resulting solution is: (Given: Ebullioscopic constant of water = \( 0.52 \, K kg mol^{-1} \))

  • (1) 379.2 K
  • (2) 377.3 K
  • (3) 375.3 K
  • (4) 277.3 K

Question 67:

Which compound would give 3-methyl-6-oxoheptanal upon ozonolysis ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 68:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
LIST-I                              LIST-II

A. \( PF_5 \)                  I. \( dsp^2 \)

B. \( SF_6 \)                  II. \( sp^3d \)

C. \( Ni(CO)_4 \)           III. \( sp^3d^2 \)

D. \( [PtCl_4]^{2-} \)     IV. \( sp^3 \)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Question 69:

The least acidic compound, among the following is

  • (1) D
  • (2) A
  • (3) B
  • (4) C

Question 70:

Correct order of limiting molar conductivity for cations in water at 298 K is :

  • (1) \( H^+ > K^+ > Ca^{2+} > Mg^{2+} \)
  • (2) \( H^+ > Ca^{2+} > Mg^{2+} > K^+ \)
  • (3) \( Mg^{2+} > H^+ > Ca^{2+} > K^+ \)
  • (4) \( H^+ > Na^+ > Ca^{2+} > Mg^{2+} > K^+ \)

Chemistry - Section B (Q71 - Q75)

Question 71:

During estimation of Nitrogen by Dumas' method of compound X (0.42 g) :
 
mL of \( N_2 \) gas will be liberated at STP. (nearest integer) \(\text{(Given molar mass in g mol}^{-1}\text{ : C : 12, H : 1, N : 14})\)


Question 72:

0.5 g of an organic compound on combustion gave 1.46 g of \( CO_2 \) and 0.9 g of \( H_2O \). The percentage of carbon in the compound is ______ (Nearest integer) \(\text{(Given : Molar mass (in g mol}^{-1}\text{ C : 12, H : 1, O : 16})\)


Question 73:

The number of optical isomers exhibited by the iron complex (A) obtained from the following reaction is ______ \( FeCl_3 + KOH + H_2C_2O_4 \rightarrow A \)


Question 74:

Given:

\[ \Delta^{\Theta}_{sub}[\text{C(graphite)}] = 710 \, kJ \, mol^{-1} \] \[ \Delta_{\text{C-H}}^{\Theta} = 414 \, kJ \, mol^{-1} \] \[ \Delta_{\text{H-H}}^{\Theta} = 436 \, kJ \, mol^{-1} \] \[ \Delta_{\text{C=C}}^{\Theta} = 611 \, kJ \, mol^{-1} \]

The \(\Delta H_f^{\Theta}\) for \(CH_2 = CH_2\) is _______ \(kJ \, mol^{-1}\) (nearest integer value).


Question 75:

Consider the following reactions \( A + HCl + H_2SO_4 \rightarrow CrO_2Cl_2 + Side Products \)
Little amount \( CrO_2Cl_2(vapour) + NaOH \rightarrow B + NaCl + H_2O \) \( B + H^+ \rightarrow C + H_2O \)
The number of terminal 'O' present in the compound 'C' is ______

JEE Main 2025 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 75 Questions
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

You can find the JEE Main April 3 Shift 1 Answer key here.

JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 1 Question Paper With Video Solutions

The JEE Main 2025 April 3 Question Paper with Video Solutions is available here. Students can match their responses with the JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 1 Answer key with Solutions. Students who are appearing for JEE Main upcoming shifts can check the JEE Main April 3 Shift 1 Question Paper and video solution to understand the difficulty level of the exam.


 

JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 1 Difficulty Level Analysis

The Mathematics Section of JEE Main April 3 shift 1 was challenging and time-consuming. The Chemistry and Physics Section of JEE Main April 3 shift 1 was easy. Important topics in JEE Main 2025 Shift 1 include- Calculus, Probability, Algebra, Organic Chemistry, Chemical Bonding. The subject-wise test analysis of the JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 1 Question Paper will be released shortly.

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JEE Main Marking Scheme 2025

For JEE Main Paper 1(B.E/BTech), students are required to attempt 75 questions following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones. The marking scheme is the same across Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections totaling to 300 marks.

Paper Sections Questions Marks Marking Scheme
Paper 1 Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics 75 Questions (25 Physics, 25 Chemistry, 25 Mathematics) 300 total
  • Correct Answer: +4
  • Incorrect MCQ: -1

JEE Main 2025 Marking Criteria for Wrong Questions

If a Question is found to be wrong in JEE Main 2025 Exam, NTA uses the following criteria to mark student for the Questions

For MCQs

  • If more than one Question is incorrect, then +4 marks are awarded to all those students who mark any of the two correct answers.
  • If all options are correct , then +4 marks are awarded to all who attempted the Question.
  • If all Questions are wrong then or none of the provided options are correct then +4 marks are awarded to all students who appeared for the exam whether they have attempted it or not.

For Numerical Questions

  • If the Question is incorrect, then +4 marks are awarded to all students who have attempted the question.
  • The answer to the numerical value Question shall be rounded off to the nearest value.

Once you calculate your expected marks, you can review the JEE Main Question papers to improve your preparation.

You can check: