JEE Main 2025 April 2 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on April 2, 2025, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2025 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 75 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 25 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 5 numerical value questions per subject, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2025 April 2 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2025 April 2 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:


If the image of the point \( P(1, 0, 3) \) in the line joining the points \( A(4, 7, 1) \) and \( B(3, 5, 3) \) is \( Q(\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \), then \( \alpha + \beta + \gamma \) is equal to:

(1) 47/3
(2) 46/3
(3) 18
(4) 13


Question 2:

Let \( f : [1, \infty) \to [2, \infty) \) be a differentiable function,
If \( \int_{1}^{x} f(t) \, dt = 5x f(x) - x^5 - 9 \) for all \( x \geq 1 \), then the value of \( f(3) \) is :

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 22
  • (4) 26

Question 3:

The number of terms of an A.P. is even; the sum of all the odd terms is 24, the sum of all the even terms is 30 and the last term exceeds the first by \( \frac{21}{2} \). Then the number of terms which are integers in the A.P. is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 8

Question 4:

Let \( A = \{1, 2, 3, \dots, 10\} \) and \( R \) be a relation on \( A \) such that \( R = \{(a, b) : a = 2b + 1\} \). Let \( (a_1, a_2), (a_3, a_4), (a_5, a_6), \dots, (a_k, a_{k+1}) \) be a sequence of \( k \) elements of \( R \) such that the second entry of an ordered pair is equal to the first entry of the next ordered pair. Then the largest integer \( k \), for which such a sequence exists, is equal to:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 8

Question 5:

If the length of the minor axis of an ellipse is equal to one fourth of the distance between the foci, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{\sqrt{17}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\sqrt{5}}{16} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{\sqrt{19}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\sqrt{5}}{7} \)

Question 6:

The line \( L_1 \) is parallel to the vector \( \mathbf{a} = -3\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 4\hat{k} \) and passes through the point \( (7, 6, 2) \), and the line \( L_2 \) is parallel to the vector \( \mathbf{b} = 2\hat{i} + \hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \) and passes through the point \( (5, 3, 4) \). The shortest distance between the lines \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{23}{\sqrt{38}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{21}{\sqrt{57}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{23}{\sqrt{57}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{21}{\sqrt{38}} \)

Question 7:

Let \( (a, b) \) be the point of intersection of the curve \( x^2 = 2y \) and the straight line \( y = 2x - 6 \) in the second quadrant. Then the integral \[ I = \int_a^b \frac{9x^2}{1 + 5x^3} \, dx \]
is equal to:

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 27
  • (3) 18
  • (4) 21

Question 8:

If the system of equation \[ 2x + \lambda y + 3z = 5
3x + 2y - z = 7
4x + 5y + \mu z = 9 \]
has infinitely many solutions, then \( \lambda^2 + \mu^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 22
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 26
  • (4) 30

Question 9:


If \( \theta \in \left[ \frac{7\pi}{6}, \frac{4\pi}{3} \right] \), then the number of solutions of \[ \sqrt{3} \csc^2\theta - 2(\sqrt{3} - 1) \csc\theta - 4 = 0, \] is equal to:

(1) 6

(2) 8

(3) 10

(4) 7


Question 10:

Given three identical bags each containing 10 balls, whose colours are as follows:

Bag I 3 Red 2 Blue 5 Green
Bag II 4 Red 3 Blue 3 Green
Bag III 5 Red 1 Blue 4 Green

A person chooses a bag at random and takes out a ball. If the ball is Red, the probability that it is from Bag I is \( p \) and if the ball is Green, the probability that it is from Bag III is \( q \), then the value of \( \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{q} \) is:


(1) 6

(2) 9

(3) 7

(4) 8


Question 11:

If the mean and the variance of 6, 4, 8, 8, b, 12, 10, 13 are 9 and 9.25 respectively, then \( a + b + ab \) is equal to:

(1) 105

(2) 103

(3) 100

(4) 106


Question 12:

If the domain of the function \( f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{10 + 3x - x^2}} \) is \( (a, b) \), then \( (1 + a)^2 + b \) is equal to:

(1) 26

(2) 29

(3) 25

(4) 30


Question 13:

\[ \int \frac{1}{\sqrt{3+x^2}+\sqrt{1+x^2}} \, dx - 3 \log \left( \sqrt{3} \right) \] is equal to:

(1) \( 2 + \sqrt{2} + \log \left( 1 + \sqrt{2} \right) \)

(2) \( 2 - \sqrt{2} - \log \left( 1 + \sqrt{2} \right) \)

(3) \( 2 + \sqrt{2} - \log \left( 1 + \sqrt{2} \right) \)

(4) \( 2 - \sqrt{2} + \log \left( 1 + \sqrt{2} \right) \)


Question 14:

If \( \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(2x) + a \cos(4x) - b}{x^4} \) is finite, then \( (a + b) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (4) -1

Question 15:

If \[ \sum_{r=0}^{10} \left( \frac{10^{r+1} - 1}{10^r} \right) \cdot {^{11}C_{r+1}} = \frac{\alpha^{11} - 11^{11}}{10^{10}}, \] then \( \alpha \) is equal to:

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 24
  • (4) 20

Question 16:

The number of ways, in which the letters A, B, C, D, E can be placed in the 8 boxes of the figure below so that no row remains empty and at most one letter can be placed in a box, is:

  • (1) 5880
  • (2) 960
  • (3) 840
  • (4) 5760

Question 17:

Let the point \( P \) of the focal chord \( PQ \) of the parabola \( y^2 = 16x \) be \( (1, -4) \). If the focus of the parabola divides the chord \( PQ \) in the ratio \( m : n \), gcd(\(m, n\)) = 1, then \( m^2 + n^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 17
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 37
  • (4) 26

Question 18:

Let \( \mathbf{a} = 2\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + \hat{k}, \, \mathbf{b} = 3\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 5\hat{k} \) and a vector \( \mathbf{c} \) be such that \( (\mathbf{a} - \mathbf{c}) \times \mathbf{b} = -18\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 12\hat{k} \) and \( \mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{c} = 3 \). If \( \mathbf{b} \times \mathbf{c} = \mathbf{a} \), then \( |\mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{c}| \) is equal to:

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 15

Question 19:

Let the area of the triangle formed by a straight line \( L: x + by + c = 0 \) with co-ordinate axes be 48 square units. If the perpendicular drawn from the origin to the line \( L \) makes an angle of \( 45^\circ \) with the positive x-axis, then the value of \( b^2 + c^2 \) is:

  • (1) 90
  • (2) 93
  • (3) 97
  • (4) 83

Question 20:

Let \( A \) be a \( 3 \times 3 \) real matrix such that \( A^2(A - 2I) - 4(A - I) = O \), where \( I \) and \( O \) are the identity and null matrices, respectively. If \( A^3 = \alpha A^2 + \beta A + \gamma I \), where \( \alpha \), \( \beta \), and \( \gamma \) are real constants, then \( \alpha + \beta + \gamma \) is equal to:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 76
  • (4) 4

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q25)

Question 21:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation \[ \frac{dy}{dx} + 2y \sec^2 x = 2 \sec^2 x + 3 \tan x \sec^2 x \]
such that \( y(0) = \frac{5}{4} \). Then \( 12 \left( y \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) - e^2 \right) \) is equal to:

  • (1) 21
  • (2) 22
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 25

Question 22:

If the sum of the first 10 terms of the series \[ \frac{4.1}{1 + 4.1^4} + \frac{4.2}{1 + 4.2^4} + \frac{4.3}{1 + 4.3^4} + \cdots \]
is \( \frac{m}{n} \), where \( \gcd(m, n) = 1 \), then \( m + n \) is equal to .....…

(1) 15

(2) 24

(3) 41

(4) 76


Question 23:

If \( y = \cos \left( \frac{\pi}{3} + \cos^{-1} \frac{x}{2} \right) \), then \( (x - y)^2 + 3y^2 \) is equal to ________.

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 3 \
  • (4) 7

Question 24:

Let \( A(4, -2), B(1, 1) \) and \( C(9, -3) \) be the vertices of a triangle ABC. Then the maximum area of the parallelogram AFDE, formed with vertices D, E and F on the sides BC, CA and AB of the triangle ABC respectively, is __________.

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 9

Question 25:

If the set of all \( a \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \{1\} \), for which the roots of the equation \( (1 - a)x^2 + 2(a - 3)x + 9 = 0 \) are positive is \( (-\infty, -\alpha] \cup [\beta, \gamma] \), then \( 2\alpha + \beta + \gamma \) is equal to ...........

  • (1) 7
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 9

Physics - Section A (Q26 - Q45)

Question 26:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Net dipole moment of a polar linear isotropic dielectric substance is not zero even in the absence of an external electric field.

Reason (R): In absence of an external electric field, the different permanent dipoles of a polar dielectric substance are oriented in random directions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct


Question 27:

In a moving coil galvanometer, two moving coils \( M_1 \) and \( M_2 \) have the following particulars: \( R_1 = 5 \, \Omega \), \( N_1 = 15 \), \( A_1 = 3.6 \times 10^{-3} \, m^2 \), \( B_1 = 0.25 \, T \) \( R_2 = 7 \, \Omega \), \( N_2 = 21 \), \( A_2 = 1.8 \times 10^{-3} \, m^2 \), \( B_2 = 0.50 \, T \)

Assuming that torsional constant of the springs are same for both coils, what will be the ratio of voltage sensitivity of \( M_1 \) and \( M_2 \)?


(1) 1 : 1

(2) 1 : 4

(3) 1 : 3

(4) 1 : 2


Question 28:

The moment of inertia of a circular ring of mass \( M \) and diameter \( r \) about a tangential axis lying in the plane of the ring is:

(1) \( \frac{1}{2} M r^2 \)

(2) \( \frac{3}{8} M r^2 \)

(3) \( \frac{3}{2} M r^2 \)

(4) \( 2 M r^2 \)


Question 29:

Two water drops each of radius \( r \) coalesce to form a bigger drop. If \( T \) is the surface tension, the surface energy released in this process is:

(1) \( 4\pi r^2 T \left[ 2^2 - 2^3 \right] \)

(2) \( 4\pi r^2 T \left[ 2^{-1} - 2^3 \right] \)

(3) \( 4\pi r^2 T \left[ 1 + \sqrt{2} \right] \)

(4) \( 4\pi r^2 T \left[ \sqrt{2} - 1 \right] \)


Question 30:

An electron with mass \( m \) with an initial velocity \( (t = 0) \, \vec{v} = \vec{v_0} \, (v_0 > 0) \) enters a magnetic field \( \vec{B} = B \hat{j} \). If the initial de-Broglie wavelength at \( t = 0 \) is \( \lambda_0 \), then its value after time \( t \) would be:

(1) \( \frac{\lambda_0}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{e^2 B^2 t^2}{m^2}}} \)

(2) \( \frac{\lambda_0}{\sqrt{1 + \frac{e^2 B^2 t^2}{m^2}}} \)

(3) \( \lambda_0 \sqrt{1 + \frac{e^2 B^2 t^2}{m^2}} \)

(4) \( \lambda_0 \)


Question 31:

A sinusoidal wave of wavelength 7.5 cm travels a distance of 1.2 cm along the x-direction in 0.3 sec. The crest P is at \( x = 0 \) at \( t = 0 \) sec and maximum displacement of the wave is 2 cm. Which equation correctly represents this wave?

(1) \( y = 2 \cos(0.83x - 3.35t) \, cm \)

(2) \( y = 2 \sin(0.83x - 3.5t) \, cm \)

(3) \( y = 2 \cos(3.35x - 0.83t) \, cm \)

(4) \( y = 2 \cos(0.13x - 0.5t) \, cm \)


Question 32:

Given a charge \( q \), current \( I \) and permeability of vacuum \( \mu_0 \). Which of the following quantity has the dimension of momentum?

(1) \( qI / \mu_0 \)

(2) \( q \mu_0 I \)

(3) \( q^2 \mu_0 I \)

(4) \( q \mu_0 / I \)


Question 33:

A solenoid having area \( A \) and length \( \ell \) is filled with a material having relative permeability 2. The magnetic energy stored in the solenoid is:

(1) \( \frac{B^2A}{\mu_0} \)

(2) \( \frac{B^2A}{2\mu_0} \)

(3) \( \frac{B^2A}{\mu_0} \)

(4) \( \frac{B^2A}{4\mu_0} \)


Question 34:

Two large plane parallel conducting plates are kept 10 cm apart as shown in figure. The potential difference between them is \( V \). The potential difference between the points A and B (shown in the figure) is:



(1) \( \frac{1}{4} V \)

(2) \( \frac{2}{5} V \)

(3) \( \frac{3}{4} V \)

(4) \( 1 V \)


Question 35:

Identify the characteristics of an adiabatic process in a monatomic gas.

(A) Internal energy is constant. (B) Work done in the process is equal to the change in internal energy. (C) The product of temperature and volume is a constant. (D) The product of pressure and volume is a constant. (E) The work done to change the temperature from \( T_1 \) to \( T_2 \) is proportional to \( (T_2 - T_1) \).

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) (A), (C), (D) only

(2) (A), (C), (E) only

(3) (B), (E) only

(4) (B), (D) only


Question 36:

Assuming the validity of Bohr's atomic model for hydrogen-like ions, the radius of \( Li^{2+} \) ion in its ground state is given by \( \frac{1}{X} a_0 \), where \( a_0 \) is the first Bohr's radius.

(1) 2

(2) 1

(3) 3

(4) 9


Question 37:

Energy released when two deuterons \( (H_2) \) fuse to form a helium nucleus \( (He_4) \) is:

(1) 8.1 MeV

(2) 5.9 MeV

(3) 23.6 MeV

(4) 26.8 MeV


Question 38:

In the digital circuit shown in the figure, for the given inputs the P and Q values are:





(1) \( P = 1, Q = 1 \)

(2) \( P = 0, Q = 0 \)

(3) \( P = 0, Q = 1 \)

(4) \( P = 1, Q = 0 \)


Question 39:

Two identical objects are placed in front of convex mirror and concave mirror having same radii of curvature of 12 cm, at same distance of 18 cm from the respective mirrors. The ratio of sizes of the images formed by convex mirror and by concave mirror is:

(1) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) \( \frac{1}{3} \)


Question 40:

A sportsman runs around a circular track of radius \( r \) such that he traverses the path ABAB. The distance travelled and displacement, respectively, are:




(1) \( 2r, 3\pi r \)

(2) \( 3\pi r, \pi r \)

(3) \( \pi r, 3r \)

(4) \( 3\pi r, 2r \)


Question 41:

A body of mass 1kg is suspended with the help of two strings making angles as shown in the figure. Magnitude of tensions \( T_1 \) and \( T_2 \), respectively, are (in N):

(1) 5, \( 5\sqrt{3} \)

(2) \( 5\sqrt{3} \), 5

(3) \( 5\sqrt{3} \), \( 5\sqrt{3} \)

(4) 5, 5


Question 42:

A bi-convex lens has radius of curvature of both the surfaces same as \( \frac{1}{6} \, cm \). If this lens is required to be replaced by another convex lens having different radii of curvatures on both sides \( (R_1 \neq R_2) \), without any change in lens power then possible combination of \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \) is:

(1) \( \frac{1}{3} \, cm \) and \( \frac{1}{3} \, cm \)

(2) \( \frac{1}{5} \, cm \) and \( \frac{1}{7} \, cm \)

(3) \( \frac{1}{3} \, cm \) and \( \frac{1}{7} \, cm \)

(4) \( \frac{1}{6} \, cm \) and \( \frac{1}{9} \, cm \)


Question 43:

If \( \mu_0 \) and \( \epsilon_0 \) are the permeability and permittivity of free space, respectively, then the dimension of \( \left( \frac{1}{\mu_0 \epsilon_0} \right) \) is :

(1) \( L T^2 \)

(2) \( L^2 T^2 \)

(3) \( T^2 / L \)

(4) \( T^2 / L^2 \)


Question 44:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I                                                    List-II

  • (A) Heat capacity of body                 (I) \( J \, kg^{-1} \)
  • (B) Specific heat capacity of body   (II) \( JK^{-1} \)
  • (C) Latent heat                                (III) \( J \, kg^{-1} K^{-1} \)
  • (D) Thermal conductivity                 (IV) \( J m^{-1} k^{-1} s^{-1} \)
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
    (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
    (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
    (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Question 45:

Consider a circular loop that is uniformly charged and has a radius \( \sqrt{2} \). Find the position along the positive \( z \)-axis of the cartesian coordinate system where the electric field is maximum if the ring was assumed to be placed in the \( xy \)-plane at the origin:

  • (1) \( \frac{a}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{a}{2} \)
  • (3) \( a \)
  • (4) 0

Physics - Section B (Q46 - Q50)

Question 46:

A wheel of radius \( 0.2 \, m \) rotates freely about its center when a string that is wrapped over its rim is pulled by a force of \( 10 \, N \) as shown in the figure. The established torque produces an angular acceleration of \( 2 \, rad/s^2 \). Moment of inertia of the wheel is............. kg m².

 

  • (1) \( 1 \, kg \, m^2 \)
  • (2) \( 2 \, kg \, m^2 \)
  • (3) \( 3 \, kg \, m^2 \)
  • (4) \( 4 \, kg \, m^2 \)

Question 47:

The internal energy of air in \( 4 \, m \times 4 \, m \times 3 \, m \) sized room at 1 atmospheric pressure will be \( \_\_ \times 10^6 \, J \).
(Consider air as a diatomic molecule)


Question 48:

A ray of light suffers minimum deviation when incident on a prism having angle of the prism equal to \(60^\circ\). The refractive index of the prism material is \( \sqrt{2} \). The angle of incidence (in degrees) is ______.


Question 49:

The length of a light string is 1.4 m when the tension on it is 5 N. If the tension increases to 7 N, the length of the string is 1.56 m. The original length of the string is ______ m.


Question 50:

A satellite of mass 1000 kg is launched to revolve around the earth in an orbit at a height of 270 km from the earth's surface. Kinetic energy of the satellite in this orbit is ______ x \(10^{10}\) J.

(Mass of earth = \(6 \times 10^{24}\) kg, Radius of earth = \(6.4 \times 10^6\) m, Gravitational constant = \(6.67 \times 10^{-11}\) Nm\(^2\) kg\(^{-2}\))


Chemistry - Section A (Q51 - Q70)

Question 51:

Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : Neopentane forms only one monosubstituted derivative. Statement (II) : Melting point of neopentane is higher than n-pentane. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 52:

Match List - I with List - II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Question 53:

Electronic configuration of four elements A, B, C and D are given below : (A) \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^3\) (B) \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^4\) (C) \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^5\) (D) \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^2\) Which of the following is the correct order of increasing electronegativity (Pauling's scale)?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{D}<\mathrm{A}<\mathrm{B}<\mathrm{C}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{A}<\mathrm{B}<\mathrm{C}<\mathrm{D}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{A}<\mathrm{C}<\mathrm{B}<\mathrm{D}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{A}<\mathrm{D}<\mathrm{B}<\mathrm{C}\)

Question 54:

A tetrapeptide, " \(x\) " on complete hydrolysis produced glycine (Gly), alanine (Ala), valine (Val), leucine (Leu) in equimolar proportion each. The number of tetrapeptides (sequences) possible involving each of these amino acids is :

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 16

Question 55:

Which among the following molecules is (a) involved in \(\mathrm{sp}^3 \mathrm{~d}\) hybridization, (b) has different bond lengths and (c) has lone pair of electrons on the central atom?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{XeF}_4\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{XeF}_2\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{PF}_5\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{SF}_4\)

Question 56:

In 3,3-dimethylhex-1-en-4-yne, there are _________\(\mathrm{sp}^3\),_________\(\mathrm{sp}^2\) and_________ sp hybridised carbon atoms respectively.

  • (1) \(4,2,2\)
  • (2) \(2,4,2\)
  • (3) \(3,3,2\)
  • (4) \(2,2,4\)

Question 57:

In Dumas' method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.5 gram of an organic compound gave 60 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm Hg pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound (Aqueous tension at \(300 \mathrm{~K}=15 \mathrm{~mm} \mathrm{Hg}\) ) is___________%.

  • (1) 20.87
  • (2) 12.57
  • (3) 1.257
  • (4) 18.67

Question 58:

Which of the following statements are true?
(A) The subsidiary quantum number \(l\) describes the shape of the orbital occupied by the electron.
(B)

is the boundary surface diagram of the \(2p_x\) orbital.
(C) The + and - signs in the wave function of the \(2p_x\) orbital refer to charge.
(D) The wave function of \(2p_x\) orbital is zero everywhere in the \(xy\) plane.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (A), (B) and (C) only

Question 59:

Arrange the following in order of magnitude of work done by the system/on the system at constant temperature. (a) \(\left|w_{\text {reversible }}\right|\) for expansion in infinite stages. (b) \(\left|w_{\text {irreversible }}\right|\) for expansion in single stage. (c) \(\left|\mathrm{w}_{\text {reversible }}\right|\) for compression in infinite stages. (d) \(\left|w_{\text {irreversible }}\right|\) for compression in single stage. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{d}>\mathrm{c}=\mathrm{a}>\mathrm{b}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{c}=\mathrm{a}>\mathrm{d}>\mathrm{b}\)
  • (3) \(a>c>b>d\)
  • (4) \(a>b>c>d\)

Question 60:

When a concentrated solution of sulphanilic acid and 1-naphthylamine is treated with nitrous acid \((273 \mathrm{~K})\) and acidified with acetic acid, the mass \((\mathrm{g})\) of 0.1 mole of product formed is : (Given molar mass in \(\mathrm{g} \mathrm{mol}^{-1} \mathrm{H}: 1, \mathrm{C}: 12, \mathrm{~N}: 14, \mathrm{O}: 16, \mathrm{~S}: 32\) )

  • (1) 330
  • (2) 33
  • (3) 343
  • (4) 66

Question 61:

Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of thermodynamic properties of Haber's process?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 62:

Reactant A converts to product D through the given mechanism (with the net evolution of heat):
A → B slow;   ΔH = +ve
B → C   fast;   ΔH = -ve
C → D   fast;   ΔH = -ve
Which of the following represents the above reaction mechanism?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 63:

Formation of \(\mathrm{Na}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_5 \mathrm{NOS}\right]\), a purple coloured complex formed by addition of sodium nitroprusside in sodium carbonate extract of salt indicates the presence of :

  • (1) Sulphide ion
  • (2) Sulphite ion
  • (3) Sulphate ion
  • (4) Sodium ion

Question 64:

Consider the following reactions. From these reactions which reaction will give carboxylic acid as a major product ?
(A) \(R-C\equiv N \xrightarrow[\text{mild condition}]{(i)\ H^{+}/H_2O}\)
(B) \(R-MgX \xrightarrow[(ii)\ H_3O^{+}]{(i)\ CO_2}\)
(C) \(R-C\equiv N \xrightarrow[(ii)\ H_3O^{+}]{(i)\ SnCl_2/HCl}\)
(D) \(R\cdot CH_2\cdot OH \xrightarrow{PCC}\)
(E)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A, B and E only
  • (2) A and D only
  • (3) B, C and E only
  • (4) B and E only

Question 65:

The nature of oxide \(\left(\mathrm{TeO}_2\right)\) and hydride \(\left(\mathrm{TeH}_2\right)\) formed by Te , respectively are :

  • (1) Reducing and basic
  • (2) Reducing and acidic
  • (3) Oxidising and acidic
  • (4) Oxidising and basic

Question 66:

'\(x\)' g of NaCl is added to water in a beaker with a lid. The temperature of the system is raised from \(1^{\circ}C\) to \(25^{\circ}C\). Which out of the following plots, is best suited for the change in the molarity (M) of the solution with respect to temperature ?
[Consider the solubility of NaCl remains unchanged over the temperature range]

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 67:

The type of hybridization and the magnetic property of \(\left[\mathrm{MnCl}_6\right]^{3-}\) are,

  • (1) \(s p^3 d^2\), paramagnetic with four unpaired electrons.
  • (2) \(d^2 s p^3\), paramagnetic with four unpaired electrons.
  • (3) \(\mathrm{sp}^3 \mathrm{~d}^2\), paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons.
  • (4) \(\mathrm{d}^2 \mathrm{sp}^3\), paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons.

Question 68:

Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Purification technique): (A) Distillation (simple); (B) Fractional distillation; (C) Distillation under reduced pressure; (D) Steam distillation
List - II (Mixture of organic compounds): (I) Diesel + Petrol; (II) Aniline + Water; (III) Chloroform + Aniline; (IV) Glycerol + Spent-lye
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Question 69:

The d-orbital electronic configuration of the complex among \(\left[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{en})_3\right]^{3+},\left[\mathrm{CoF}_6\right]^{3-}\), \(\left[\mathrm{Mn}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_6\right]^{2+}\) and \(\left[\mathrm{Zn}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_6\right]^{2+}\) that has the highest CFSE is :

  • (1) \(t_{2 g}{ }^6 e_g^0\)
  • (2) \(t_{2 g}{ }^3 e_g^2\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{t}_{2 \mathrm{~g}}{ }^4 \mathrm{e}_{\mathrm{g}}{ }^2\)
  • (4) \(t_{2 g}{ }^6 e_g^4\)

Question 70:

Consider the following chemical equilibrium of the gas phase reaction at a constant temperature : \(\mathrm{A}(\mathrm{g}) \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{B}(\mathrm{g})+\mathrm{C}(\mathrm{g})\) If \(p\) being the total pressure, \(K_p\) is the pressure equilibrium constant and \(\alpha\) is the degree of dissociation, then which of the following is true at equilibrium?

  • (1) If \(K_p\) value is extremely high compared to \(p, \alpha\) becomes much less than unity
  • (2) When p increases \(\alpha\) increases
  • (3) If p value is extremely high compared to \(\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{p}}, \alpha \approx 1\)
  • (4) When \(p\) increases \(\alpha\) decreases

Chemistry - Section B (Q71 - Q75)

Question 71:

For the reaction \(A \rightarrow B\) the following graph was obtained. The time required (in seconds) for the concentration of A to reduce to \(2.5\ g\ L^{-1}\) (if the initial concentration of A was \(50\ g\ L^{-1}\)) is ________ . (Nearest integer)
Given : \(\log 2 = 0.3010\)


Question 72:

When 1 g each of compounds AB and \(\mathrm{AB}_2\) are dissolved in 15 g of water separately, they increased the boiling point of water by 2.7 K and 1.5 K respectively. The atomic mass of A (in \(a m u\) ) is____________ \(\times 10^{-1}\) (Nearest integer) (Given : Molal boiling point elevation constant is \(0.5 \mathrm{~K} \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\) )


Question 73:

The spin-only magnetic moment value of \(\mathrm{M}^{\mathrm{n}+}\) ion formed among \(\mathrm{Ni}, \mathrm{Zn}, \mathrm{Mn}\) and Cu that has the least enthalpy of atomisation is_________ . (in nearest integer) Here n is equal to the number of diamagnetic complexes among \(\mathrm{K}_2\left[\mathrm{NiCl}_4\right],\left[\mathrm{Zn}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_6\right] \mathrm{Cl}_2\), \(\mathrm{K}_3\left[\mathrm{Mn}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]\) and \(\left[\mathrm{Cu}\left(\mathrm{PPh}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{I}\right]\)


Question 74:

\(0.2 \%(\mathrm{w} / \mathrm{v})\) solution of NaOH is measured to have resistivity \(870.0 \mathrm{~m} \Omega \mathrm{~m}\). The molar conductivity of the solution will be__________\(\times 10^2 \mathrm{mS} \mathrm{dm}^2 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\). (Nearest integer)


Question 75:


Consider the above sequence of reactions. 151 g of 2-bromopentane is made to react. Yield of major product P is \(80\%\) whereas Q is \(100\%\). Mass of product Q obtained is ________ g.
(Given molar mass in \(g\ mol^{-1}\) H : 1, C : 12, O : 16, Br : 80)

JEE Main 2025 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 75 Questions
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

You can find the JEE Main April 2 Shift 2 Answer key here.

JEE Main 2025 April 2 Shift 2 Difficulty Level Analysis

The Mathematics Section of JEE Main April 2 shift 2 w challenging and time-consuming. The Chemistry and Physics Section of JEE Main April 2 shift 2 were easy. Important topics in JEE Main 2025 Shift 2 include- Calculus, Probability, Algebra, Organic Chemistry, Chemical Bonding. The subject-wise test analysis of the JEE Main 2025 April 2 Shift 2 Question Paper will be released shortly.

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JEE Main 2025 April 2 Shift 2 Question Paper With Video Solutions

The JEE Main 2025 April 2 Question Paper with Video Solution are available here. Students can match their responses with the JEE Main 2025 April 2 Shift 2 Answer key with Solutions. Students who are appearing for JEE Main upcoming shifts can check the JEE Main April 2 Shift 2 Question Paper and video solution to understand the difficulty level of the exam.


 

JEE Main Marking Scheme 2025

For JEE Main Paper 1(B.E/BTech), students are required to attempt 75 questions following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones. The marking scheme is the same across Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections totaling to 300 marks.

Paper Sections Questions Marks Marking Scheme
Paper 1 Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics 75 Questions (25 Physics, 25 Chemistry, 25 Mathematics) 300 total
  • Correct Answer: +4
  • Incorrect MCQ: -1

JEE Main 2025 Marking Criteria for Wrong Questions

If a Question is found to be wrong in JEE Main 2025 Exam, NTA uses the following criteria to mark student for the Questions

For MCQs

  • If more than one Question is incorrect, then +4 marks are awarded to all those students who mark any of the two correct answers.
  • If all options are correct , then +4 marks are awarded to all who attempted the Question.
  • If all Questions are wrong then or none of the provided options are correct then +4 marks are awarded to all students who appeared for the exam whether they have attempted it or not.

For Numerical Questions

  • If the Question is incorrect, then +4 marks are awarded to all students who have attempted the question.
  • The answer to the numerical value Question shall be rounded off to the nearest value.

Once you calculate your expected marks, you can review the JEE Main Question papers to improve your preparation.

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