JEE Main 2025 January 28 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on January 28, 2025, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2025 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 75 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 25 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 5 numerical value questions per subject, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2025 January 28 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2025 January 28 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

The square of the distance of the point \(\left( \frac{15}{7}, \frac{32}{7}, 7 \right)\) from the line \(\frac{x+1}{3} = \frac{y+3}{5} = \frac{z+5}{7}\) in the direction of the vector \(\mathbf{i} + 4\mathbf{j} + 7\mathbf{k}\) is:

  • (1) \(41\)
  • (2) \(44\)
  • (3) \(54\)
  • (4) \(66\)

Question 2:

If \[ \sum_{r=1}^{13} \frac{1}{\sin \frac{\pi}{4} + (r-1) \frac{\pi}{6}} \sin \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{\pi}{6} = a \sqrt{3} + b, \quad a, b \in \mathbb{Z}, { then } a^2 + b^2 { is equal to:} \]

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 2

Question 3:

Let \( f : \mathbb{R} \setminus \{0\} \to (-\infty, 1) \) be a polynomial of degree 2, satisfying \( f(x)f\left( \frac{1}{x} \right) = f(x) + f\left( \frac{1}{x} \right) \). If \( f(K) = -2K \), then the sum of squares of all possible values of \( K \) is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 6

Question 4:

If \( \alpha + i\beta \) and \( \gamma + i\delta \) are the roots of the equation \( x^2 - (3-2i)x - (2i-2) = 0 \), \( i = \sqrt{-1} \), then \( \alpha\gamma + \beta\delta \) is equal to:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 2
  • (3) -2
  • (4) -6

Question 5:

Bag \( B_1 \) contains 6 white and 4 blue balls, Bag \( B_2 \) contains 4 white and 6 blue balls, and Bag \( B_3 \) contains 5 white and 5 blue balls. One of the bags is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. If the ball is white, then the probability that the ball is drawn from Bag \( B_2 \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4}{15} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{5} \)

Question 6:

The area of the region bounded by the curves \( x(1 + y^2) = 1 \) and \( y^2 = 2x \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2}[\frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{1}{3}] \)
  • (4) \( 2[\frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{1}{3}] \)

Question 7:

Let \( A = \left[ \begin{array}{cc} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} & -2
0 & 1 \end{array} \right] \) and \( P = \left[ \begin{array}{cc} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta
\sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{array} \right], \theta > 0. \) If \( B = P A P^T \), \( C = P^T B P \), and the sum of the diagonal elements of \( C \) is \( \frac{m}{n} \), where gcd(m, n) = 1, then \( m + n \) is:

  • (1) 258
  • (2) 65
  • (3) 127
  • (4) 2049

Question 8:

Two equal sides of an isosceles triangle are along \( -x + 2y = 4 \) and \( x + y = 4 \). If \( m \) is the slope of its third side, then the sum of all possible distinct values of \( m \) is:

  • (1) \( -2\sqrt{10} \)
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 6
  • (4) -6

Question 9:

If the components of \( \vec{a} = \alpha \hat{i} + \beta \hat{j} + \gamma \hat{k} \) along and perpendicular to \( \vec{b} = 3\hat{i} + \hat{j} - \hat{k} \) respectively are \( \frac{16}{11} (3\hat{i} + \hat{j} - \hat{k}) \) and \( \frac{1}{11} (-4\hat{i} - 5\hat{j} - 17\hat{k}) \), then \( \alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \gamma^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 26
  • (3) 23
  • (4) 16

Question 10:

Let the coefficients of three consecutive terms \( T_r \), \( T_{r+1} \), and \( T_{r+2} \) in the binomial expansion of \( (a + b)^{12} \) be in a G.P. and let \( p \) be the number of all possible values of \( r \). Let \( q \) be the sum of all rational terms in the binomial expansion of \( \left( 4\sqrt{3} + 3\sqrt{4} \right)^{12} \). Then \( p + q \) is equal to:

  • (1) 283
  • (2) 295
  • (3) 287
  • (4) 299

Question 11:

If \( A \) and \( B \) are the points of intersection of the circle \( x^2 + y^2 - 8x = 0 \) and the hyperbola \( \frac{x^2}{9} - \frac{y^2}{4} = 1 \), and a point \( P \) moves on the line \( 2x - 3y + 4 = 0 \), then the centroid of \( \triangle PAB \) lies on the line:

  • (1) \( 4x - 9y = 12 \)
  • (2) \( x + 9y = 36 \)
  • (3) \( 9x - 9y = 32 \)
  • (4) \( 6x - 9y = 20 \)

Question 12:

For positive integers \( n \), if \( 4 a_n = \frac{n^2 + 5n + 6}{4} \) and \[ S_n = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \left( \frac{1}{a_k} \right), \text{ then the value of } 507 S_{2025} \text{ is:} \]

  • (1) 540
  • (2) 1350
  • (3) 675
  • (4) 135

Question 13:

Let \( f \) be a real-valued continuous function defined on the positive real axis such that \( g(x) = \int_0^x t f(t) \, dt \). If \( g(x^3) = x^6 + x^7 \), then the value of \( \sum_{r=1}^{15} f(r^3) \) is:

  • (1) 320
  • (2) 340
  • (3) 270
  • (4) 310

Question 14:

Let \( [x] \) denote the greatest integer less than or equal to \( x \). Then the domain of \( f(x) = \sec^{-1}(2[x] + 1) \) is:

  • (1) \( (-\infty, -1] \cup [0, \infty) \)
  • (2) \( (-\infty, -\infty) \)
  • (3) \( (-\infty, -1] \cup [1, \infty) \)
  • (4) \( (-\infty, \infty) - \{ 0 \} \)

Question 15:

Let \( f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) be a twice-differentiable function such that \( f(2) = 1 \). If \( F(x) = x f(x) \) for all \( x \in \mathbb{R} \), and the integrals \( \int_0^2 x F'(x) \, dx = 6 \) and \( \int_0^2 x^2 F''(x) \, dx = 40 \), then \( F'(2) + \int_0^2 F(x) \, dx \) is equal to:

  • (1) 11
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 13

Question 16:

Let \( S \) be the set of all the words that can be formed by arranging all the letters of the word GARDEN. From the set \( S \), one word is selected at random. The probability that the selected word will NOT have vowels in alphabetical order is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

Question 17:

Let \( f: [0, 3] \to A \) be defined by \( f(x) = 2x^3 - 15x^2 + 36x + 7 \) and \( g: [0, \infty) \to B \) be defined by \( g(x) = \frac{x}{x^{2025} + 1}. \) If both functions are onto and \( S = \{ x \in \mathbb{Z} : x \in A \text{ or } x \in B \} \), then \( n(S) \) is equal to:

  • (1) 30
  • (2) 36
  • (3) 29
  • (4) 31

Question 18:

If \[ f(x) = \int \frac{1}{x^{1/4} (1 + x^{1/4})} \, dx, \quad f(0) = -6, \text{ then } f(1) \text{ is equal to:} \]

  • (1) \( \log 2 + 2 \)
  • (2) \( 4 (\log 2 - 2) \)
  • (3) \( 2 - \log 2 \)
  • (4) \( 4 (\log 2 + 2) \)

Question 19:

If the midpoint of a chord of the ellipse \( \frac{x^2}{9} + \frac{y^2}{4} = 1 \) is \( \left( \sqrt{2}, \frac{4}{3} \right) \), and the length of the chord is \( \frac{2\sqrt{\alpha}}{3} \), then \( \alpha \) is:

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 22
  • (3) 26
  • (4) 20

Question 20:

Let A, B, C be three points in the xy-plane, whose position vectors are given by \( \sqrt{3} \hat{i} + \hat{j} \), \( \hat{i} + \sqrt{3} \hat{j} \), and \( a\hat{i} + (1-a) \hat{j} \) respectively with respect to the origin \( O \). If the distance of the point C from the line bisecting the angle between the vectors \( \overrightarrow{OA} \) and \( \overrightarrow{OB} \) is \( \frac{9}{\sqrt{2}} \), then the sum of all possible values of \( a \) is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \( \frac{9}{2} \)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 2

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q25)

Question 21:

The number of natural numbers, between 212 and 999, such that the sum of their digits is 15, is ______.


Question 22:

Let \[ f(x) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{r=0}^{n} \left( \frac{\tan \left( \frac{x}{2^{r+1}} \right) + \tan^3 \left( \frac{x}{2^{r+1}} \right)}{1 - \tan^2 \left( \frac{x}{2^{r+1}} \right)} \right) \] Then, \( \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{e^x - e^{f(x)}}{x - f(x)} \) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \( \infty \)
  • (4) \( -1 \)

Question 23:

The interior angles of a polygon with \( n \) sides, are in an A.P. with common difference 6°. If the largest interior angle of the polygon is 219°, then \( n \) is equal to:

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 25
  • (4) 15

Question 24:

Let A and B be the two points of intersection of the line \( y + 5 = 0 \) and the mirror image of the parabola \( y^2 = 4x \) with respect to the line \( x + y + 4 = 0 \). If \( d \) denotes the distance between A and B, and \( a \) denotes the area of \( \Delta SAB \), where \( S \) is the focus of the parabola \( y^2 = 4x \), then the value of \( (a + d) \) is:


Question 25:

If \( y = y(x) \) is the solution of the differential equation, \[ \sqrt{4 - x^2} \frac{dy}{dx} = \left( \left( \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{x}{2} \right) \right)^2 - y \right) \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{x}{2} \right), \] where \( -2 \leq x \leq 2 \), and \( y(2) = \frac{\pi^2 - 8}{4} \), then \( y^2(0) \) is equal to:


Physics - Section A (Q26 - Q45)

Question 26:

The magnetic field of an E.M. wave is given by: \[ \vec{B} = \left( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \hat{i} + \frac{1}{2} \hat{j} \right) 30 \sin \left( \omega \left( t - \frac{z}{c} \right) \right) \] The corresponding electric field in S.I. units is:

  • (1) \( \vec{E} = \left( \frac{1}{2} \hat{i} + \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \hat{j} \right) 30 c \sin \left( \omega \left( t + \frac{z}{c} \right) \right) \)
  • (2) \( \vec{E} = \left( \frac{3}{4} \hat{i} + \frac{1}{4} \hat{j} \right) 30 c \cos \left( \omega \left( t - \frac{z}{c} \right) \right) \)
  • (3) \( \vec{E} = \left( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \hat{i} - \frac{1}{2} \hat{j} \right) 30 c \sin \left( \omega \left( t + \frac{z}{c} \right) \right) \)
  • (4) \( \vec{E} = \left( \frac{1}{2} \hat{i} - \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \hat{j} \right) 30 c \sin \left( \omega \left( t - \frac{z}{c} \right) \right) \)

Question 27:

The ratio of vapour densities of two gases at the same temperature is \( \frac{4}{25} \), then the ratio of r.m.s. velocities will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{25}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{5} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4}{25} \)

Question 28:

Earth has mass 8 times and radius 2 times that of a planet. If the escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/s, the escape velocity in km/s from the planet will be:

  • (1) 5.6
  • (2) 2.8
  • (3) 11.2
  • (4) 8.4

Question 29:

An infinite wire has a circular bend of radius \( a \), and carrying a current \( I \) as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the origin \( O \) of the arc is given by:
Q29

  • (1) \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi a} \left( \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2 \right) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi a} \left( \frac{\pi}{2} + 2 \right) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi a} \left( \frac{3\pi}{2} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi a} \left( \frac{3\pi}{2} + 1 \right) \)

Question 30:

A balloon and its content having mass \( M \) is moving up with an acceleration \( a \). The mass that must be released from the content so that the balloon starts moving up with an acceleration \( 3a \) will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{3Ma}{2a + g} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3Ma}{2a - g} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2Ma}{3a + g} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2Ma}{3a - g} \)

Question 31:

Match List - I with List - II.

Angular Impulse
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Question 32:

In the circuit shown, assuming the threshold voltage of the diode is negligibly small, then the voltage \( V_{AB} \) is correctly represented by:
32a
32 b

  • (1)
    threshold voltage of the diode is negligibly smal
  • (2)
    threshold voltage of the diode is negligibly small
  • (3) \(V_{AB}\) would be zero at all times
  • (4)
    threshold voltage of the diode is negligibly small

Question 33:

The kinetic energy of translation of the molecules in 50 g of CO\(_2\) gas at 17°C is:

  • (1) 4102.8 J
  • (2) 4205.5 J
  • (3) 3986.3 J
  • (4) 3582.7 J

Question 34:

In a long glass tube, a mixture of two liquids A and B with refractive indices 1.3 and 1.4 respectively, forms a convex refractive meniscus towards A. If an object placed at 13 cm from the vertex of the meniscus in A forms an image with a magnification of \(-2\), then the radius of curvature of the meniscus is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{3} \) cm
  • (2) 1 cm
  • (3) \( \frac{4}{3} \) cm
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{3} \) cm

Question 35:

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1 μF is charged to a potential difference of 20 V. The distance between plates is 1 μm. The energy density between the plates of the capacitor is:

  • (1) \( 2 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{J/m}^3 \)
  • (2) \( 1.8 \times 10^5 \, \text{J/m}^3 \)
  • (3) \( 1.8 \times 10^3 \, \text{J/m}^3 \)
  • (4) \( 2 \times 10^2 \, \text{J/m}^3 \)

Question 36:

The frequency of revolution of the electron in Bohr’s orbit varies with \( n \), the principal quantum number as:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{n^3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{n^4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{n} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{n^2} \)

Question 37:

Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Knowing initial position \( x_0 \), and initial momentum \( p_0 \) is enough to determine the position and momentum at any time \( t \) for a simple harmonic motion with a given angular frequency \( \omega \).
Reason (R): The amplitude and phase can be expressed in terms of \( x_0 \) and \( p_0 \). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is true but (R) is false

Question 38:

A uniform rod of mass 250 g having length 100 cm is balanced on a sharp edge at the 40 cm mark. A mass of 400 g is suspended at the 10 cm mark. To maintain the balance of the rod, the mass to be suspended at the 90 cm mark is:

  • (1) 300 g
  • (2) 200 g
  • (3) 290 g
  • (4) 190 g

Question 39:

A uniform magnetic field of \( 0.4 \) T acts perpendicular to a circular copper disc \( 20 \) cm in radius. The disc is having a uniform angular velocity of \( 10\pi \) rad/s about an axis through its center and perpendicular to the disc. What is the potential difference developed between the axis of the disc and the rim? (\(\pi = 3.14\))

  • (1) \( 0.5024 \) V
  • (2) \( 0.2512 \) V
  • (3) \( 0.0628 \) V
  • (4) \( 0.1256 \) V

Question 40:

Which of the following phenomena cannot be explained by the wave theory of light?

  • (1) Reflection of light
  • (2) Diffraction of light
  • (3) Refraction of light
  • (4) Compton effect

Question 41:

A 400 g solid cube having an edge of length \(10\) cm floats in water. How much volume of the cube is outside the water? (Given: density of water = \(1000 \text{ kg/m}^3\))

  • (1) \( 600 \text{ cm}^3 \)
  • (2) \( 4000 \text{ cm}^3 \)
  • (3) \( 1400 \text{ cm}^3 \)
  • (4) \( 400 \text{ cm}^3 \)

Question 42:

A body of mass \(4\) kg is placed at a point \(P\) having coordinates \( (3,4) \) m. Under the action of force \( \mathbf{F} = (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \) N, it moves to a new point \(Q\) having coordinates \( (6,10) \) m in \(4\) sec. The average power and instantaneous power at the end of \(4\) sec are in the ratio:

  • (1) \( 1:2 \)
  • (2) \( 6:13 \)
  • (3) \( 4:3 \)
  • (4) \( 13:6 \)

Question 43:

The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown in the figure. What is the distance covered by the object between \( t = 0 \) to \( t = 4s \)?
43a

  • (1) 13 m
  • (2) 30 m
  • (3) 11 m
  • (4) 10 m

Question 44:

A concave mirror produces an image of an object such that the distance between the object and image is 20 cm. If the magnification of the image is \( -3 \), then the magnitude of the radius of curvature of the mirror is:

  • (1) 7.5 cm
  • (2) 30 cm
  • (3) 15 cm
  • (4) 3.75 cm

Question 45:

A bar magnet has total length \( 2l = 20 \) units and the field point \( P \) is at a distance \( d = 10 \) units from the centre of the magnet. If the relative uncertainty of length measurement is 1%, then the uncertainty of the magnetic field at point P is:
Q45

  • (1) 10%
  • (2) 4%
  • (3) 5%
  • (4) 3%

Physics - Section B (Q46 - Q50)

Question 46:

A thin transparent film with refractive index 1.4 is held on a circular ring of radius 1.8 cm. The fluid in the film evaporates such that transmission through the film at wavelength 560 nm goes to a minimum every 12 seconds. Assuming that the film is flat on its two sides, the rate of evaporation is: % Given answer Answer: \( \pi \times 10^{-13} \, \text{m}^3/\text{s} \)


Question 47:

An electric dipole of dipole moment \(6 \times 10^{-6} \) Cm is placed in a uniform electric field of magnitude \(10^6\) V/m. Initially, the dipole moment is parallel to the electric field. The work that needs to be done on the dipole to make its dipole moment opposite to the field will be ______ J.


Question 48:

A conducting bar moves on two conducting rails as shown in the figure. A constant magnetic field \( B \) exists into the page. The bar starts to move from the vertex at time \( t = 0 \) with a constant velocity. If the induced EMF is \( E \propto t^n \), then the value of \( n \) is ______.
45a


Question 49:

The volume contraction of a solid copper cube of edge length 10 cm, when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of \( 7 \times 10^6 \) Pa, would be ______ mm\(^3\). (Given bulk modulus of copper = \( 1.4 \times 10^{11} \) N m\(^{-2}\))


Question 50:

The value of current \( I \) in the electrical circuit as given below, when the potential at \( A \) is equal to the potential at \( B \), will be ______ A.
45a

  • (1) \( 1.0 \)
  • (2) \( 2.0 \)
  • (3) \( 0.5 \)
  • (4) \( 4.0 \)

Chemistry - Section A (Q51 - Q70)

Question 51:

Identify product [A], [B], and [C] in the following reaction sequence.
52a

  • (1)
    product [A], [B], and [C] in the following reaction
  • (2)
    product [A], [B], and [C] in the following reaction
  • (3)
    product [A], [B], and [C] in the following reaction
  • (4)
    product [A], [B], and [C] in the following reaction

Question 52:

For bacterial growth in a cell culture, growth law is very similar to the law of radioactive decay. Which of the following graphs is most suitable to represent bacterial colony growth? Where \( N \) - Number of Bacteria at any time, \( N_0 \) - Initial number of Bacteria.

52 Q

  • (1)
    bacterial growth in a cell culture
  • (2)
    bacterial growth in a cell culture
  • (3)
    bacterial growth in a cell culture
  • (4)
    bacterial growth in a cell culturebacterial growth in a cell culture

Question 53:

The product B formed in the following reaction sequence is: \[ \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CN} \xrightarrow{\text{HCl}} (A) \xrightarrow{\text{AgCN}} (B) \]
Q53


Question 54:

Given below are two statements: Statement (I): According to the Law of Octaves, the elements were arranged in the increasing order of their atomic number.
Statement (II): Meyer observed a periodically repeated pattern upon plotting physical properties of certain elements against their respective atomic numbers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 55:

Identify the inorganic sulphides that are yellow in colour:
(A) \( (\text{NH}_4)_2\text{S} \)
(B) \( \text{PbS} \)
(C) \( \text{CuS} \)
(D) \( \text{As}_2\text{S}_3 \)
(E) \( \text{As}_2\text{S}_5 \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (A) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (D) and (E) only
  • (4) (D) and (E) only

Question 56:

Identify correct conversion during acidic hydrolysis from the following: (A) Starch gives galactose.
(B) Cane sugar gives equal amount of glucose and fructose.
(C) Milk sugar gives glucose and galactose.
(D) Amylopectin gives glucose and fructose.
(E) Amylose gives only glucose.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (B), (C) and (E) only
  • (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (C), (D) and (E) only

Question 57:

Match List - I with List - II.

[CoF6]3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

Question 58:

An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from point A and coming back to the same point by tracing the path A→B→C→D→A as shown in the three cases below.
Q58
Choose the correct option regarding \(\Delta U\):

  • (1) \(\Delta U(\text{Case-III}) > \Delta U(\text{Case-II}) > \Delta U(\text{Case-I})\)
  • (2) \(\Delta U(\text{Case-I}) = \Delta U(\text{Case-II}) = \Delta U(\text{Case-III})\)
  • (3) \(\Delta U(\text{Case-I}) > \Delta U(\text{Case-II}) > \Delta U(\text{Case-III})\)
  • (4) \(\Delta U(\text{Case-I}) > \Delta U(\text{Case-III}) > \Delta U(\text{Case-II})\)

Question 59:

Identify correct statements: (A) Primary amines do not give diazonium salts when treated with \(\text{NaNO}_2\) in acidic condition.
(B) Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with \(\text{CHCl}_3\) and ethanolic \(\text{KOH}\) form carbylamines.
(C) Secondary and tertiary amines also give carbylamine test.
(D) Benzenesulfonyl chloride is known as Hinsberg’s reagent.
(E) Tertiary amines react with benzenesulfonyl chloride very easily.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (D) and (E) only
  • (2) (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (A) and (B) only
  • (4) (B) and (C) only

Question 60:

Consider an elementary reaction: \[ A(g) + B(g) \rightarrow C(g) + D(g) \] If the volume of the reaction mixture is suddenly reduced to \( \frac{1}{3} \) of its initial volume, the reaction rate will become \( x \) times of the original reaction rate. The value of \( x \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 3
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{3} \)

Question 61:

The purification method based on the following physical transformation is: \[ \text{Solid} \xrightarrow{\text{Heat}} \text{Vapour} \xrightarrow{\text{Cool}} \text{Solid} \]

  • (1) Distillation
  • (2) Sublimation
  • (3) Crystallization
  • (4) Extraction

Question 62:

The major product of the following reaction is:
62a

  • (1) 2-Phenylhepta-2,4-diene
  • (2) 6-Phenylhepta-3,5-diene
  • (3) 6-Phenylhepta-2,4-diene
  • (4) 2-Phenylhepta-2,5-diene

Question 63:

Given below are two statements: Statement (I): 63aare isomeric compounds.
Statement (II): 63b are functional group isomers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Question 64:

The total number of compounds from below when treated with hot KMnO4 giving benzoic acid is:
Q64

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 4

Question 65:

Match List - I with List - II. \[ \text{List - I (Saccharides)} \quad \text{List - II (Glycosidic-linkages found)} \] \[ \text{(A) Sucrose} \quad \text{(I) } \alpha 1-4 \] \[ \text{(B) Maltose} \quad \text{(II) } \alpha 1-4 \text{ and } \alpha 1-6 \] \[ \text{(C) Lactose} \quad \text{(III) } \alpha 1-\beta 2 \] \[ \text{(D) Amylopectin} \quad \text{(IV) } \beta 1-4 \] Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Question 66:

Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the energy of atomic orbitals of a hydrogen atom? (A) \( 1s < 2s < 2p < 3d < 4s \)
(B) \( 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p \)
(C) \( 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p \)
(D) \( 1s < 2s < 4s < 3d \) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (C) only
  • (2) (A) and (B) only
  • (3) (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (B) and (D) only

Question 67:

Arrange the following in increasing order of solubility product: \[ \text{Ca(OH)}_2, \text{AgBr}, \text{PbS}, \text{HgS} \]

  • (1) HgS < AgBr < PbS < Ca(OH)2
  • (2) PbS < HgS < Ca(OH)2 < AgBr
  • (3) Ca(OH)2 < AgBr < HgS < PbS
  • (4) HgS < PbS < AgBr < Ca(OH)2

Question 68:

Concentrated nitric acid is labelled as 75% by mass. The volume in mL of the solution which contains 30 g of nitric acid is: Given: Density of nitric acid solution is 1.25 g/mL.

  • (1) 55
  • (2) 45
  • (3) 40
  • (4) 32

Question 69:

Assume a living cell with 0.9% (\(w/w\)) of glucose solution (aqueous). This cell is immersed in another solution having equal mole fraction of glucose and water. (Consider the data up to first decimal place only) The cell will:

  • (1) Shrink since solution is 0.5% (\(w/w\))
  • (2) Shrink since solution is 0.45% (\(w/w\)) as a result of association of glucose molecules (due to hydrogen bonding)
  • (3) Show no change in volume since solution is 0.9% (\(w/w\))
  • (4) Swell up since solution is 1% (\(w/w\))

Question 70:

The spin-only magnetic moment (\(\mu\)) value (B.M.) of the compound with the strongest oxidising power among \(Mn_2O_3\), \(TiO\), and \(VO\) is ______ B.M. (Nearest integer).


Chemistry - Section B (Q71 - Q75)

Question 71:

Consider the following data: - Heat of formation of \( CO_2(g) \) = -393.5 kJ mol\(^{-1}\) - Heat of formation of \( H_2O(l) \) = -286.0 kJ mol\(^{-1}\) - Heat of combustion of benzene = -3267.0 kJ mol\(^{-1}\) The heat of formation of benzene is ______ kJ mol\(^{-1}\) (Nearest integer).


Question 72:

Total number of molecules/species from the following which will be paramagnetic is ______. \[ O_2, O_2^+, O_2^-, NO, NO_2, CO, K_2[NiCl_4], [Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3, K_2[Ni(CN)_4] \]


Question 73:

A group 15 element forms \( d\pi - d\pi \) bond with transition metals. It also forms a hydride, which is the strongest base among the hydrides of other group members that form \( d\pi - d\pi \) bonds. The atomic number of the element is ______.


Question 74:

Electrolysis of 600 mL aqueous solution of NaCl for 5 min changes the pH of the solution to 12. The current in Amperes used for the given electrolysis is ______. (Nearest integer).


Question 75:

The amphoteric oxide among \(\mathrm{V}_2 \mathrm{O}_3, \mathrm{~V}_2 \mathrm{O}_4\) and \(\mathrm{V}_2 \mathrm{O}_5\), upon reaction with alkali leads to formation of an oxide anion. The oxidation state of V in the oxide anion is :

  • (1) + 4
  • (2) + 5
  • (3) + 3
  • (4) + 7

JEE Main 2025 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 75 Questions
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

Also Check: Good Score in JEE Main 2025

JEE Main 28th Jan Shift 2 Paper Analysis- Check Difficulty Level and Good Score

The question paper consisted of a total of 75 questions, divided equally across the three subjects:

  • The Mathematics section in JEE Main 2025 28th Jan Shift 2 Question Paper was Tough with 9 questions coming majorly from topics like Integration, Probability, etc.
  • Physics was Moderate with 14 questions coming majorly from topics like Ray Optics, Gravity, Magnetism, etc.
  • Chemistry was Moderate with 8 questions coming majorly from topics like Organic Chemistry, Physical Chemistry, etc.

Each section included a mix of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and numerical value-based questions, offering a balanced challenge for students.

Check: JEE Main 28th Jan Shift 1 Question Paper

JEE Main 2025: Shift-Wise Analysis

Session Shift Difficulty Trend 
(Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics)
Overall Difficulty
January 22nd January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy (NCERT-based)
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate
January 22nd January Shift 2
  • Physics: Easy to Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy
  • Mathematics: Moderate, Lengthy
Moderate
January 23rd January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy but Tricky
  • Mathematics: Tough and Lengthy
Moderate
January 23rd January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Easy
  • Mathematics: Tough with Long Calculations
Moderate
January 24th January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate, easier than last four shifts
  • Chemistry: Easier than last four shifts
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate
January 24th January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate, Application Based
  • Chemistry: Easy, more focus on Organic
  • Mathematics: Tough, time-consuming
Moderate
January 28th January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate, Application Based
  • Chemistry: Mdoerate, more focus on Inorganic
  • Mathematics: Tough, time-taking
Tough
January 28th January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Mdoerate, more focus on Inorganic and Physical
  • Mathematics: Tough,Calculation-Based
Tough
January 29th January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Easy to Moderate
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate to Tough
January 29th January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Easy to Moderate
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate to Tough