JEE Main 2024 April 8 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on April 8, 2024, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 April 8 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 April 8 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & a & 0 \\ 1 & 3 & 1 \\ 0 & 5 & b \end{bmatrix}\). If \(A^3 = 4A^2 - A - 21I\), where I is the identity matrix of order \(3 \times 3\), then \(2a + 3b\) is equal to:

  • (1) -10
  • (2) -13
  • (3) -9
  • (4) -12

Question 2:

The value of \(k \in \mathbb{N}\) for which the integral \[ I_n = \int_0^1 (1 - x^k)^n \, dx, \, n \in \mathbb{N}, \] satisfies \(147 \, I_{20} = 148 \, I_{21}\) is:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 7

Question 3:

Let \(f(x) = 4\cos^3 x + 3\sqrt{3} \cos^2 x - 10\). The number of points of local maxima of \(f\) in interval \((0, 2\pi)\) is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 4:

The set of all α, for which the vectors \(\vec{a} = \alpha \hat{ti} + 6\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b} = \hat{ti} - 2\hat{j} - 2\alpha t\hat{k}\) are inclined at an obtuse angle for all \(t \in \mathbb{R}\) is:

  • (1) [0,1)
  • (2) (-2,0]
  • (3) \(\left[-\frac{4}{3}, 0\right]\)
  • (4) \(\left[-\frac{4}{3}, 1\right]\)

Question 5:

Let the circles \(C_1 : (x - \alpha)^2 + (y - \beta)^2 = r_1^2\) and \(C_2 : (x - 8)^2 + \left( y - \frac{15}{2} \right)^2 = r_2^2\) touch each other externally at the point \((6, 6)\). If the point \((6, 6)\) divides the line segment joining the centres of the circles \(C_1\) and \(C_2\) internally in the ratio \(2 : 1\), then \((\alpha + \beta) + 4\left(r_1^2 + r_2^2\right)\) equals _____.

  • (1) 110
  • (2) 130
  • (3) 125
  • (4) 145

Question 6:

Let \( f(x) \) be a positive function such that the area bounded by \( y = f(x) \), \( y = 0 \), from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = a>0 \) is \[ \int_0^a f(x) \, dx = e^{-a} + 4a^2 + a - 1. \] Then the differential equation, whose general solution is \[ y = c_1 f(x) + c_2, \] where \( c_1 \) and \( c_2 \) are arbitrary constants, is:

  • (1) \((8e^x - 1)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \frac{dy}{dx} = 0\)
  • (2) \((8e^x + 1)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - \frac{dy}{dx} = 0\)
  • (3) \((8e^x + 1)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \frac{dy}{dx} = 0\)
  • (4) \((8e^x - 1)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - \frac{dy}{dx} = 0\)

Question 7:

Let H: \(\frac{-x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1\) be the hyperbola, whose eccentricity is \(\sqrt{3}\) and the length of the latus rectum is \(4\sqrt{3}\). Suppose the point \((\alpha, 6)\), \(\alpha>0\) lies on H. If \(\beta\) is the product of the focal distances of the point \((\alpha, 6)\), then \(\alpha^2 + \beta\) is equal to:

  • (1) 170
  • (2) 171
  • (3) 169
  • (4) 172

Question 8:

The number of critical points of the function \(f(x) = (x - 2)^{2/3}(2x + 1)\) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 3

Question 9:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \((1 + y^2)e^{\tan x} dx + \cos^2 x (1 + e^{2\tan x}) dy = 0\), \(y(0) = 1\). Then \(y\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{e}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{e^2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{e}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{e^2}\)

Question 10:

Let the sum of two positive integers be 24. If the probability, that their product is not less than \(\frac{3}{4}\) times their greatest positive product, is \(\frac{m}{n}\), where \(\gcd(m, n) = 1\), then \(n - m\) equals :

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 10

Question 11:

For the function \(f(x) = (\cos x) - x + 1, x \in \mathbb{R}\), find the correct relationship between the following two statements
(S1) \(f(x) = 0\) for only one value of x is \([0, \pi]\).
(S2) \(f(x)\) is decreasing in \(\left[0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\) and increasing in \(\left[\frac{\pi}{2}, \pi\right]\).

  • (1) Both (S1) and (S2) are correct
  • (2) Only (S1) is correct
  • (3) Both (S1) and (S2) are incorrect
  • (4) Only (S2) is correct

Question 12:

Let \(\text{P}(x, y, z)\) be a point in the first octant, whose projection in the xy-plane is the point \(\text{Q}\). Let \(\text{OP} = \gamma\); the angle between \(\text{OQ}\) and the positive x-axis be \(\theta\); and the angle between \(\text{OP}\) and the positive z-axis be \(\phi\), where \(\text{O}\) is the origin. Then the distance of \(\text{P}\) from the x-axis is:

  • (1) \(\gamma \sqrt{1 - \sin^2 \phi \cos^2 \theta}\)
  • (2) \(\gamma \sqrt{1 + \cos^2 \theta \sin^2 \phi}\)
  • (3) \(\gamma \sqrt{1 - \sin^2 \theta \cos^2 \phi}\)
  • (4) \(\gamma \sqrt{1 + \cos^2 \phi \sin^2 \theta}\)

Question 13:

Let \(z\) be a complex number such that \(|z + 2| = 1\) and \(\text{Im}\left(\frac{z+1}{z+2}\right) = \frac{1}{5}\). Then the value of \(|\text{Re}(z+2)|\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{6}}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1+\sqrt{6}}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{24}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2\sqrt{6}}{5}\)

Question 14:

The sum of all the solutions of the equation \[(8)^{2x} - 16 \cdot (8)^x + 48 = 0\]is:

  • (1) \(1 + \log_6(8)\)
  • (2) \(\log_6(6)\)
  • (3) \(1 + \log_6(6)\)
  • (4) \(\log_6(4)\)

Question 15:

The equations of two sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are \(4x + y = 14\) and \(3x - 2y = 5\), respectively. The point \(\left(2, -\frac{4}{3}\right)\) divides the third side BC internally in the ratio 2 : 1. The equation of the side BC is:

  • (1) x – 6y – 10 = 0
  • (2) x – 3y – 6 = 0
  • (3) x + 3y + 2 = 0
  • (4) x + 6y + 6 = 0

Question 16:

If \(\sin x = -\frac{3}{5}\), where \(\pi<x<\frac{3\pi}{2}\), then \(80(\tan^2 x - \cos x)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 109
  • (2) 108
  • (3) 18
  • (4) 19

Question 17:

Let \([t]\) be the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Let A be the set of all prime factors of 2310 and \(f: A \to \mathbb{Z}\) be the function \(f(x) = \left[ \log_2 \left( x^2 + \left[ \frac{x^3}{5} \right] \right) \right]\). The number of one-to-one functions from A to the range of f is:

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 120
  • (3) 25
  • (4) 24

Question 18:

If the set \(R = {(a, b) : a + 5b = 42, a, b \in \mathbb{N}}\) has \(m\) elements and \(\sum_{n=1}^m (1 + i^n) = x + iy\), where \(i = \sqrt{-1}\), then the value of \(m + x + y\) is:

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5

Question 19:

If the shortest distance between the lines.
L1: \(\vec{r} = (2 + \lambda)\hat{i} + (1 - 3\lambda)\hat{j} + (3 + 4\lambda)\hat{k}\), \(\lambda \in \mathbb{R}\).
L2: \(\vec{r} = 2(1 + \mu)\hat{i} + 3(1 + \mu)\hat{j} + (5 + \mu)\hat{k}\), \(\mu \in \mathbb{R}\) is \(\frac{m}{\sqrt{n}}\), where gcd(m, n) = 1, then the value of m + n equals.

  • (1) 384
  • (2) 387
  • (3) 377
  • (4) 390

Question 20:

Let \(I(x) = \int \frac{6}{\sin^2 x (1 - \cot x)^2} dx\). If \(I(0) = 3\), then \(I\left(\frac{\pi}{12}\right)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(3\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(6\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(2\sqrt{3}\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

If the orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines 2x + 3y – 1 = 0, x + 2y – 1 = 0 and ax + by – 1 = 0, is the centroid of another triangle, whose circumecentre and orthocentre respectively are (3, 4) and (–6, –8), then the value of |a– b| is_____.


Question 22:

If the range of \(f(\theta) = \frac{\sin^4\theta + 3\cos^2\theta}{\sin^4\theta + \cos^2\theta}, \, \theta \in \mathbb{R}\) is \([\alpha, \beta]\), then the sum of the infinite G.P., whose first term is \(64\) and the common ratio is \(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}\), is equal to ____.


Question 23:

Let \(\vec{a} = 9\hat{i} - 13\hat{j} + 25\hat{k}\), \(\vec{b} = 3\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} - 13\hat{k}\), and \(\vec{c} = 17\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + \hat{k}\) be three given vectors. If \(\vec{r}\) is a vector such that \(\vec{r} \times \vec{a} = (\vec{b} + \vec{c}) \times \vec{a}\) and \(\vec{r} \cdot (\vec{b} - \vec{c}) = 0\), then \(\frac{|593\vec{r} + 67\vec{a}|^2}{(593)^2}\) is equal to _______.


Question 24:

Let the positive integers be written in the form :
Pattern
If the \(k^\text{th}\) row contains exactly \(k\) numbers for every natural number \(k\), then the row in which the number \(5310\) will be, is _____


Question 25:

The number of 3-digit numbers, formed using the digits 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7, when the repetition of digits is not allowed, and which are not divisible by 3, is equal to ______.


Question 26:

Three balls are drawn at random from a bag containing 5 blue and 4 yellow balls. Let the random variables \(X\) and \(Y\) respectively denote the number of blue and yellow balls. If \(\bar{X}\) and \(\bar{Y}\) are the means of \(X\) and \(Y\) respectively, then \(7\bar{X} + 4\bar{Y}\) is equal to _____.


Question 27:

Let \(\alpha = \sum_{r=0}^n (4r^2 + 2r + 1) \binom{n}{r}\) and \(\beta = \left( \sum_{r=0}^n \frac{\binom{n}{r}}{r+1} \right) + \frac{1}{n+1}\). If \(140 < \frac{2\alpha}{\beta} < 281\), then the value of \(n\) is _____.


Question 28:

Let \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & -1 \\ 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\). If the sum of the diagonal elements of \(A^{13}\) is \(3^n\), then \(n\) is equal to _____.


Question 29:

Let the area of the region enclosed by the curve \(y = \min\{\sin x, \cos x\}\) and the x-axis between \(x = -\pi\) to \(x = \pi\) be \(A\). Then \(A^2\) is equal to _____.


Question 30:

The value of \[ \lim_{x \to 0} 2 \left( \frac{1 - \cos x \sqrt{\cos 2x} \, \sqrt[3]{\cos 3x} \ldots \sqrt[10]{\cos 10x}}{x^2} \right) \] is _____.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A stationary particle breaks into two parts of masses \(m_A\) and \(m_B\), which move with velocities \(v_A\) and \(v_B\), respectively. The ratio of their kinetic energies (\(K_B : K_A\)) is:

  • (1) \(v_B : v_A\)
  • (2) \(m_B : m_A\)
  • (3) \(m_B v_B : m_A v_A\)
  • (4) \(1 : 1\)

Question 32:

Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each other by a conducting wire. The ratio of charges of the two spheres respectively is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{ab}\)
  • (2) ab
  • (3) \(\frac{a}{b}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{b}{a}\)

Question 33:

Two planets A and B having masses \(m_1\) and \(m_2\) move around the sun in circular orbits of \(r_1\) and \(r_2\) radii, respectively. If the angular momentum of A is \(L\) and that of B is \(3L\), the ratio of time periods \(\frac{T_A}{T_B}\) is:

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{r_2}{r_1}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}\)
  • (2) \(\left(\frac{r_1}{r_2}\right)^3\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{27} \left(\frac{m_2}{m_1}\right)^3\)
  • (4) \(27 \left(\frac{m_1}{m_2}\right)^3\)

Question 34:

Average force exerted on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence is \(2.4\times10^{-4}\ N\). If \(360\ W/cm^2\) is the light energy flux during span of 1 hour 30 minutes, Then the area of the surface is:

  • (1) \(20\ m^2\)
  • (2) \(0.2\ m^2\)
  • (3) \(0.1\ m^2\)
  • (4) \(0.02\ m^2\)

Question 35:

In an expression \(a \times 10^b\):

  • (1) \(a\) is the order of magnitude for \(b \leq 5\)
  • (2) \(b\) is the order of magnitude for \(a \leq 5\)
  • (3) \(b\) is the order of magnitude for \(5<a \leq 10\)
  • (4) \(b\) is the order of magnitude for \(a \geq 5\)

Question 36:

A clock has a 75 cm long second hand and a 60 cm long minute hand, respectively. In 30 minutes duration, the tip of the second hand will travel \(x\) distance more than the tip of the minute hand. The value of \(x\) in meters is nearly (Take \(\pi = 3.14\)):

  • (1) 139.4
  • (2) 140.5
  • (3) 220.0
  • (4) 118.9

Question 37:

The output Y of following circuit for given inputs is :

ABY Circuit

  • (1) \(A \cdot B (A + B)\)
  • (2) \(A \cdot B\)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) \(\overline{A} \cdot B\)

Question 38:

A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g moving at a speed of 20 m/s. If the catching process is completed in 0.1 s, the magnitude of force exerted by the ball on the hand of the player is:

  • (1) 150 N
  • (2) 3 N
  • (3) 30 N
  • (4) 300 N

Question 39:

Three bodies A, B and C have equal kinetic energies and their masses are 400 g, 1.2 kg and 1.6 kg respectively. The ratio of their linear momenta is :

  • (1) \(1 : \sqrt{3} : 2\)
  • (2) \(1 : \sqrt{3} : \sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2} : \sqrt{3} : 1\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{3} : \sqrt{2} : 1\)

Question 40:

Young's modulus is determined by the equation given by:\[ Y = \frac{49000 \, M}{\ell} \, \text{dyne/cm}^2 \] where \(M\) is the mass and \(\ell\) is the extension of the wire used in the experiment. Now, the error in Young's modulus (\(Y\)) is estimated by taking data from the \(M-\ell\) plot on graph paper. The smallest scale divisions are \(5 \, \text{g}\) and \(0.02 \, \text{cm}\) along the load axis and extension axis, respectively. If the value of \(M\) and \(\ell\) are \(500 \, \text{g}\) and \(2 \, \text{cm}\), respectively, then the percentage error of \(Y\) is:

  • (1) 0.2 %
  • (2) 0.02 %
  • (3) 2 %
  • (4) 0.5 %

Question 41:

Paramagnetic substances:
A. align themselves along the directions of external magnetic field.
B. attract strongly towards external magnetic field.
C. has susceptibility little more than zero.
D. move from a region of strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C, D
  • (2) B, D Only
  • (3) A, B, C Only
  • (4) A, C Only

Question 42:

A mixture of one mole of a monoatomic gas and one mole of a diatomic gas (rigid) are kept at room temperature (\(27^\circ \text{C}\)). The ratio of specific heat of gases at constant volume respectively is:

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{3}\)

Question 43:

A LCR circuit is at resonance for a capacitor C, inductance L and resistance R. Now the value of resistance is halved keeping all other parameters same. The current amplitude at resonance will be now:

  • (1) Zero
  • (2) double
  • (3) same
  • (4) halved

Question 44:

The diameter of a sphere is measured using a vernier caliper whose 9 divisions of main scale are equal to 10 divisions of vernier scale. The shortest division on the main scale is equal to l mm. The main scale reading is 2 cm and second division of vernier scale coincides with a division on main scale. If mass of the sphere is 8.635 g, the density of the sphere is:

  • (1) \(2.5 \, \text{g/cm}^3\)
  • (2) \(1.7 \, \text{g/cm}^3\)
  • (3) \(2.2 \, \text{g/cm}^3\)
  • (4) \(2.0 \, \text{g/cm}^3\)

Question 45:

Critical angle of incidence for a pair of optical media is \(45^\circ\).
The refractive indices of the first and second media are in the ratio:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2} : 1\)
  • (2) \(1 : 2\)
  • (3) \(1 : \sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(2 : 1\)

Question 46:

A proton and an electron are associated with the same de-Broglie wavelength. The ratio of their kinetic energies is:
Given: \(h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{Js}\), \(m_e = 9.0 \times 10^{-31} \, \text{kg}\), and \(m_p = 1836 \times m_e\)

  • (1) \(1 : 1836\)
  • (2) \(1 : \frac{1}{1836}\)
  • (3) \(1 : \frac{1}{\sqrt{1836}}\)
  • (4) \(1 : \sqrt{1836}\)

Question 47:

Correct Bernoulli's equation is (symbols have their usual meaning):

  • (1) \(P + mgh + \frac{1}{2} mv^2 = \text{constant}\)
  • (2) \(P + \rho gh + \frac{1}{2} \rho v^2 = \text{constant}\)
  • (3) \(P + \rho gh + \rho v^2 = \text{constant}\)
  • (4) \(P + \frac{1}{2} \rho gh + \frac{1}{2} \rho v^2 = \text{constant}\)

Question 48:

The binding energy of a certain nucleus is \(18 \times 10^8 \, \text{J}\). How much is the difference between the total mass of all the nucleons and the nuclear mass of the given nucleus?

  • (1) \(0.2 \, \mu \text{g}\)
  • (2) \(20 \, \mu \text{g}\)
  • (3) \(2 \, \mu \text{g}\)
  • (4) \(10 \, \mu \text{g}\)

Question 49:

In the given circuit, the terminal potential difference of the cell is :

circuit

  • (1) 2 V
  • (2) 4 V
  • (3) 1.5 V
  • (4) 3 V

Question 50:

Two different adiabatic paths for the same gas intersect two isothermal curves as shown in the \(P-V\) diagram. The relation between the ratio \(\frac{V_a}{V_d}\) and the ratio \(\frac{V_b}{V_c}\) is:

angle

  • (1) \(\frac{V_a}{V_d} = \left(\frac{V_b}{V_c}\right)^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{V_a}{V_d} \neq \frac{V_b}{V_c}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{V_a}{V_d} = \frac{V_b}{V_c}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{V_a}{V_d} = \left(\frac{V_b}{V_c}\right)^2\)

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A closed and an open organ pipe have same lengths. If the ratio of frequencies of their seventh overtones is \(\left(\frac{a-1}{a}\right)\), then the value of \(a\) is ______.


Question 52:

An electric field, \(\vec{E} = \frac{2\hat{i} + 6\hat{j} + 8\hat{k}}{\sqrt{6}}\) passes through the surface of \(4 \, \text{m}^2\) area having unit vector \(\hat{n} = \frac{2\hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k}}{\sqrt{6}}\). The electric flux for that surface is _________ \( \text{V m} \).


Question 53:

Three vectors \(\overrightarrow{OP}\), \(\overrightarrow{OQ}\), and \(\overrightarrow{OR}\) each of magnitude \(A\) are acting as shown in figure. The resultant of the three vectors is \(A \sqrt{x}\). The value of \(x\) is ______.

circle OPR


Question 54:

A square loop PQRS having 10 turns, area \(3.6 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m}^2\), and resistance \(100 \, \Omega\) is slowly and uniformly being pulled out of a uniform magnetic field of magnitude \(B = 0.5 \, \text{T}\) as shown. Work done in pulling the loop out of the field in \(1.0 \, \text{s}\) is ______ \( \times 10^{-6} \, \text{J} \).

loop


Question 55:

A liquid column of height \(0.04 \, \text{cm}\) balances excess pressure of a soap bubble of certain radius. If density of liquid is \(8 \times 10^3 \, \text{kg m}^{-3}\) and surface tension of soap solution is \(0.28 \, \text{N m}^{-1}\), then diameter of the soap bubble is _________ \(\text{cm}\).
\((\text{if } g = 10 \, \text{m s}^{-2})\)


Question 56:

A uniform thin metal plate of mass \(10 \, \text{kg}\) with dimensions is shown. The ratio of \(x\) and \(y\) coordinates of the center of mass of the plate is \(\frac{n}{9}\). The value of \(n\) is ______.

metal plate


Question 57:

Resistance of a wire at \(0^\circ C\), \(100^\circ C\) and \(t^\circ C\) is found to be \(10 \, \Omega\), \(10.2 \, \Omega\) and \(10.95 \, \Omega\) respectively. The temperature \(t\) in Kelvin scale is ______.


Question 58:

A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength \(600 \, \text{nm}\) passes through single slit of \(0.4 \, \text{mm}\) width. Angular divergence corresponding to second order minima would be ______ \( \times 10^{-3} \, \text{rad}\).


Question 59:

An electron with kinetic energy \(5 \, \text{eV}\) enters a region of uniform magnetic field of \(3 \, \mu\text{T}\) perpendicular to its direction. An electric field \(E\) is applied perpendicular to the direction of velocity and magnetic field. The value of \(E\), so that the electron moves along the same path, is ______ \( \text{NC}^{-1} \).
Given: mass of electron = \(9 \times 10^{-31} \, \text{kg}\), electric charge = \(1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{C}\)


Question 60:

In an alpha particle scattering experiment, distance of closest approach for the \(\alpha\) particle is \(4.5 \times 10^{-14} \, \text{m}\). If the target nucleus has atomic number 80, then maximum velocity of \(\alpha\)-particle is ______ \( \times 10^5 \, \text{m/s} \) approximately.
\[ \left( \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{SI unit}, \, \text{mass of } \alpha \, \text{particle} = 6.72 \times 10^{-27} \, \text{kg} \right) \]


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Combustion of glucose (\(C_6H_{12}O_6\)) produces \(CO_2\) and water. The amount of oxygen (in g) required for the complete combustion of \(900 \, \text{g}\) of glucose is:
\([ \text{Molar mass of glucose in g mol}^{-1} = 180 ]\)

  • (1) 480
  • (2) 960
  • (3) 800
  • (4) 32

Question 62:

Thiosulphate reacts differently with iodine and bromine in the reaction given below:  
\[ 2S_2O_3^{2-} + I_2 \rightarrow S_4O_6^{2-} + 2I^- \] \[ S_2O_3^{2-} + 5Br_2 + 5H_2O \rightarrow 2SO_4^{2-} + 4Br^- + 10H^+ \] 
Which of the following statements justifies the above dual behaviour of thiosulphate?

  • (1) Bromine undergoes oxidation and iodine undergoes reduction by iodine in these reactions
  • (2) Thiosulphate undergoes oxidation by bromine and reduction by iodine in these reactions
  • (3) Bromine is a stronger oxidant than iodine
  • (4) Bromine is a weaker oxidant than iodine

Question 63:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: The stability order of \(+1\) oxidation state of Ga, In, and Tl is \( \text{Ga}<\text{In}<\text{Tl} \).
Reason R: The inert pair effect stabilizes the lower oxidation state down the group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) A is true but R is false.
  • (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (4) A is false but R is true.

Question 64:

Iron (III) catalyses the reaction between iodide and persulphate ions, in which
A. \(\text{Fe}^{3+}\) oxidises the iodide ion
B. \(\text{Fe}^{3+}\) oxidises the persulphate ion
C. \(\text{Fe}^{2+}\) reduces the iodide ion
D. \(\text{Fe}^{2+}\) reduces the persulphate ion
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and C only
  • (2) B only
  • (3) A only
  • (4) A and D only

Question 65:

Which of the following are aromatic?

aromatic

  • (1) B and D only
  • (2) A and C only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) C and D only

Question 66:

Among the following halogens \(F_2, \, Cl_2, \, Br_2, \, \text{and} \, I_2\)
Which can undergo disproportionation reaction?

  • (1) Only \(I_2\)
  • (2) \(Cl_2, \, Br_2, \, \text{and} \, I_2\)
  • (3) \(F_2, \, Cl_2, \, \text{and} \, Br_2\)
  • (4) \(F_2 \, \text{and} \, Cl_2\)

Question 67:

Which among the following compounds will undergo fastest \(S_N2\) reaction?

  • (1)
    br1
  • (2)
    br2
  • (3)
    br3
  • (4)
    br4

Question 68: Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
(Molecule)
List-II
(Shape)
(A) \(NH_3\)(I) Square pyramid
(B) \(BrF_5\)(II) Tetrahedral
(C) \(PCL_5\)(III) Trigonal pyramidal
(D) \(CH_4\)(IV) Trigonal bipyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 69: Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
(Elements)
List-II
(Properties in their respective groups)
(A) Cl,S(I) Elements with highest electronegativity
(B) Ge, As(II) Elements with largest atomic size
(C) Fr, Ra(III) Elements which show properties of both metals and non metal
(D) F, O(IV) Elements with highest negative electron gain enthalpy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 70: Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
(Name of the test)
List-II
(Reaction sequence involved) [M is metal]
(A) Borax bead testICobalt nitrate test
(B) Charcoal cavity testII Flame test
(C) Cobalt nitrate testIII Borax bead test
(D) Flame testIVCharcoal cavity test

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 71:

Number of complexes with even number of electrons in \(t_{2g}\) orbitals is: \[[\text{Fe(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+}, \, [\text{Co(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+}, \, [\text{Co(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{3+}, \, [\text{Cu(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+}, \, [\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+}\]

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 5

Question 72:

For the given hypothetical reactions, the equilibrium constants are as follows:
\[ X \rightleftharpoons Y; \, K_1 = 1.0 \]
\[ Y \rightleftharpoons Z; \, K_2 = 2.0 \]
\[ Z \rightleftharpoons W; \, K_3 = 4.0 \]
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
\[ X \rightleftharpoons W\]
is:

  • (1) 6.0
  • (2) 12.0
  • (3) 8.0
  • (4) 7.0

Question 73:

An octahedral complex with the formula \(\text{CoCl}_3n\text{NH}_3\) upon reaction with excess of \(\text{AgNO}_3\) solution gives 2 moles of \(\text{AgCl}\). Consider the oxidation state of Co in the complex is \(x\). The value of "x + n" is ______.

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 5

Question 74:

In the given compound, the number of 2° carbon atom/s is _____.

compound

  • (1) Three
  • (2) One
  • (3) Two
  • (4) Four

Question 75:

Identify the major products A and B respectively in the following set of reactions.

pyridine

  • (1)
    reaction1
  • (2)
    figure2
  • (3)
    figure3
  • (4)
    figure4

Question 76:

Identify the product (P) in the following reaction:

product

  • (1)
    1br
  • (2)
    2br
  • (3)
  • (4)
    4br

Question 77:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I:

compound A
IUPAC name of Compound A is 4-chloro-1, 3-dinitrobenzene.
Statement II:
compound B
IUPAC name of Compound B is 4-ethyl-2-methylaniline.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 78:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: \(N(CH_3)_3\) and \(P(CH_3)_3\) can act as ligands to form transition metal complexes.
Statement II: As \(N\) and \(P\) are from the same group, the nature of bonding of \(N(CH_3)_3\) and \(P(CH_3)_3\) is always the same with transition metals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 79:

CHO
The incorrect statement regarding the given structure is

  • (1) Can be oxidized to a dicarboxylic acid with Br2 water
  • (2) despite the presence of – CHO does not give Schiff's test
  • (3) has 4-asymmetric carbon atom
  • (4) will coexist in equilibrium with 2 other cyclic structure

Question 80: Match List-I with List-II
List-I
(Compound)
List-II
(Colour)
(A) \(Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3.xH_2O\)(I) Violet
(B) \( [Fe(CN)_5NOS]^{4–} \)(II) Blood Red
(C) \( [Fe(SCN)]^{2+}\)(III) Prussian Blue
(D) \((NH_4)_3PO_4.12MoO_3\)(IV) Yellow

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

If 279 g of aniline is reacted with one equivalent of benzenediazonium chloride, the mximum amount of aniline yellow formed will be _____ g. (nearest integer)
(consider complete conversion)


Question 82:

Consider the following reaction
\[A + B \rightarrow C\]
The time taken for A to become 1/4th of its initial concentration is twice the time taken to become 1/2 of the same. Also, when the change of concentration of B is plotted against time, the resulting graph gives a straight line with a negative slope and a positive intercept on the concentration axis.
The overall order of the reaction is ____.


Question 83:

Major product B of the following reaction has ____ \(\pi\)-bond.

kmno4


Question 84:

A hypothetical electromagnetic wave is show below.

electromagnet
The frequency of the wave is x × 1019 Hz. x = ______ (nearest integer)


Question 85:

cylinder
Consider the figure provided. 1 mol of an ideal gas is kept in a cylinder, fitted with a piston, at the position A, at \(18^\circ \text{C}\). If the piston is moved to position B, keeping the temperature unchanged, then 'x' \(\text{L atm}\) work is done in this reversible process. \(x =\) ______ \(\text{L atm}\). (nearest integer)
\([ \text{Given: Absolute temperature} = ^\circ \text{C} + 273.15, \, R = 0.08206 \, \text{L atm mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1} ]\)


Question 86:

A solution containing \(10 \, \text{g}\) of an electrolyte \(AB_2\) in \(100 \, \text{g}\) of water boils at \(100.52^\circ \text{C}\). The degree of ionization of the electrolyte (\(\alpha\)) is _____ \(\times 10^{-1}\). (nearest integer)
\([ \text{Given: Molar mass of } AB_2 = 200 \, \text{g mol}^{-1}, \, K_b \, (\text{molal boiling point elevation const. of water}) = 0.52 \, \text{K kg mol}^{-1}, \text{ boiling point of water} = 100^\circ \text{C}; \, AB_2 \text{ ionises as } AB_2 \rightarrow A^{2+} + 2B^- ]\)


Question 87:

Number of molecules from the following which are exceptions to octet rule is ____.
\(\text{CO}_2, \, \text{NO}_2, \, \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4, \, \text{BF}_3, \, \text{CH}_4, \, \text{SiF}_4, \, \text{ClO}_2, \, \text{PCl}_5, \, \text{BeF}_2, \, \text{C}_2\text{H}_6, \, \text{CHCl}_3, \, \text{CBr}_4\)


Question 88:

The number of optical isomers in following compound is : _____.

isomers


Question 89:

The 'spin only' magnetic moment value of \(MO_4^{2-}\) is ____ \(\text{BM}\). (Where \(M\) is a metal having least metallic radii among \(\text{Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn, Zn}\)). \([ \text{Given atomic number: Sc = 21, Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Zn = 30} ]\)


Question 90:

Number of amine compounds from the following giving solids which are soluble in NaOH upon reaction with Hinsberg's reagent is _____.

amine

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

Check JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 2 for other shifts.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here

Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Vedantu Download PDF
Reliable Institute To be updated
Resonance To be updated
Sri Chaitanya To be updated
FIIT JEE To be updated

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Read More:

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper