JEE Main 2024 April 4 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on April 4, 2024, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 April 4 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2024 April 4 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Consider a hyperbola \( H \) having its centre at the origin and foci on the \( x \)-axis. Let \( C_1 \) be the circle touching the hyperbola \( H \) and having its centre at the origin. Let \( C_2 \) be the circle touching the hyperbola \( H \) at its vertex and having its centre at one of its foci. If the areas (in square units) of \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) are \( 36\pi \) and \( 4\pi \), respectively, then the length (in units) of the latus rectum of \( H \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{28}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{14}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{10}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{11}{3} \)

Question 2:

If the coefficients of \( x^4 \), \( x^5 \), and \( x^6 \) in the expansion of \( (1 + x)^n \) are in arithmetic progression, then the maximum value of \( n \) is:

  • (1) 14
  • (2) 21
  • (3) 28
  • (4) 7

Question 3:

The value of \(\frac{1 \times 2^2 + 2 \times 3^2 + \dots + 100 \times (101)^2}{1^2 \times 2 + 2^2 \times 3 + \dots + 100^2 \times 101}\) is:
 

  • (1) \( \frac{306}{305} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{305}{301} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{32}{31} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{31}{30} \)

Question 4:

If the function \( f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{72^x - 9^x - 8^x + 1}{\sqrt{2} - \sqrt{1 + \cos x}}, & x \neq 0 \\ a \log_e 2 \log_e 3, & x = 0 \end{cases} \) is continuous at \( x = 0 \), then the value of \( a^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) 968
  • (2) 1152
  • (3) 746
  • (4) 1250

Question 5:

Let \( P \) be the point of intersection of the lines \[ \frac{x - 2}{1} = \frac{y - 4}{5} = \frac{z - 2}{1} \quad \text{and} \quad \frac{x - 3}{2} = \frac{y - 2}{3} = \frac{z - 3}{2}. \] Then, the shortest distance of \( P \) from the line \( 4x = 2y = z \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{5\sqrt{14}}{7} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\sqrt{14}}{7} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3\sqrt{14}}{7} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{6\sqrt{14}}{7} \)

Question 6:

Let \( f(x) = 3\sqrt{x - 2} + \sqrt{4 - x} \) be a real-valued function. If \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are respectively the minimum and the maximum values of \( f \), then \( \alpha^2 + 2\beta^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 44
  • (2) 42
  • (3) 24
  • (4) 38

Question 7:

Let \[ f(x) = \int_{0}^{x} \left( t + \sin\left(1 - e^t\right) \right) \, dt, \, x \in \mathbb{R}. \] Then \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{f(x)}{x^3} \] is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{-1}{6} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{-2}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{3} \)

Question 8:

The area (in square units) of the region described by: \[ \{(x, y) : y^2 \leq 2x, \, \text{and} \, y \geq 4x - 1\} \] is:

  • (1) \( \frac{11}{32} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{8}{9} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{11}{12} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{9}{32} \)

Question 9:

Given the inverse trigonometric function assumes principal values only. Let \( x, y \) be any two real numbers in \( [-1, 1] \) such that \[ \cos^{-1}x - \sin^{-1}y = \alpha, \, -\frac{\pi}{2} \leq \alpha \leq \pi. \] Then, the minimum value of \( x^2 + y^2 + 2xy \sin \alpha \) is:

  • (1) -1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \( \frac{-1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

Question 10:

\[\text{If } \lambda>0, \text{ let } \theta \text{ be the angle between the vectors }\vec{a} = \hat{i} + \lambda \hat{j} - 3 \hat{k} \text{ and } \vec{b} = 3 \hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2 \hat{k}.\text{ If the vectors } \vec{a} + \vec{b} \text{ and } \vec{a} - \vec{b} \text{ are mutually perpendicular, then the value of } (14 \cos \theta)^2 \text{ is equal to.}\]

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 45
  • (4) 40

Question 11:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation: \[ (x^2 + 4)^2 \, dy + \left( 2x^3 y + 8xy - 2 \right) dx = 0. \] If \( y(0) = 0 \), then \( y(2) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{8} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{16} \)
  • (3) \( 2\pi \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{32} \)

Question 12:

If the mean of the following probability distribution of a random variable \( X \): \[ \begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|c|} \hline X & 0 & 2 & 4 & 6 & 8 \\ \hline P(X) & a & 2a & a+b & 2b & 3b \\ \hline \end{array} \] is \( \frac{46}{9} \), then the variance of the distribution is:

  • (1) \( \frac{581}{81} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{566}{81} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{173}{27} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{151}{27} \)

Question 13:

Let \( PQ \) be a chord of the parabola \( y^2 = 12x \) and the midpoint of \( PQ \) be at \( (4, 1) \). Then, which of the following points lies on the line passing through the points \( P \) and \( Q \)?

  • (1) (3, -3)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{3}{2}, -16 \right) \)
  • (3) (2, -9)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{1}{2}, -20 \right) \)

Question 14:

Let C be a circle with radius \( \sqrt{10} \) units and centre at the origin. Let the line \( x + y = 2 \) intersects the circle C at the points P and Q. Let MN be a chord of C of length 2 unit and slope \(-1\). Then, a distance (in units) between the chord PQ and the chord MN is

  • (1) \( 2 - \sqrt{3} \)
  • (2) \( 3 - \sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} - 1 \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{2} + 1 \)

Question 15:

The area (in square units) of the region \[ S = \{ z \in \mathbb{C} : |z - 1| \leq 2; (z + \bar{z}) + i (z - \bar{z}) \leq 2, \, \operatorname{Im}(z) \geq 0 \} \] is:

  • (1) \( \frac{7\pi}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3\pi}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{17\pi}{8} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7\pi}{4} \)

Question 16:

If the value of the integral \[ \int_{-1}^{1} \frac{\cos \alpha x}{1 + 3^x} \, dx = \frac{2}{\pi}, \] then a value of \( \alpha \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)

Question 17:

Let three real numbers a,b,c be in arithmetic progression and a + 1, b, c + 3 be in geometric progression. If a>10 and the arithmetic mean of a,b and c is 8, then the cube of the geometric mean of a,b and c is

  • (1) 120
  • (2) 312
  • (3) 316
  • (4) 128

Question 18:

Let a relation \( R \) on \( \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N} \) be defined as: \[(x_1, y_1) \, R \, (x_2, y_2) \text{ if and only if } x_1 \leq x_2 \text{ or } y_1 \leq y_2.\] 
Consider the two statements:
[(I)] \( R \) is reflexive but not symmetric. 
[(II)] \( R \) is transitive.
Then which one of the following is true:

  • (1) Only (II) is correct.
  • (2) Only (I) is correct.
  • (3) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
  • (4) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.

Question 19:

Let \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \) and \[B = I + \text{adj}(A) + (\text{adj}(A))^2 + \dots + (\text{adj}(A))^{10}.\]Then, the sum of all the elements of the matrix \( B \) is:

  • (1) -110
  • (2) 22
  • (3) -88
  • (4) -124

Question 20:

Let \[ \vec{a} = \hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k}, \quad \vec{b} = 2\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 5\hat{k}, \quad \text{and} \quad \vec{c} = x\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}, \, x \in \mathbb{R}. \] If \( \vec{d} \) is the unit vector in the direction of \( \vec{b} + \vec{c} \) such that \( \vec{a} \cdot \vec{d} = 1 \), then \( (\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \cdot \vec{c} \) is equal to:

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 11

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \[ S = \{ \sin^2 2\theta : (\sin^4 \theta + \cos^4 \theta)x^2 + (\sin 2\theta)x + (\sin^6 \theta + \cos^6 \theta) = 0 \, \text{has real roots} \}. \] If \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are the smallest and largest elements of the set \( S \), respectively, then \[ 3 \big((\alpha - 2)^2 + (\beta - 1)^2 \big) \] equals:


Question 22:

If \[ \int \cosec^5 x \, dx = \alpha \cot x \cosec x \left( \cosec^2 x + \frac{3}{2} \right) + \beta \log_e \left| \tan \frac{x}{2} \right| + C, \] where \( \alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{R} \) and \( C \) is the constant of integration, then the value of \( 8(\alpha + \beta) \) equals:


Question 23:

Let \( A \) be a \( 2 \times 2 \) symmetric matrix such that \[ A \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 3 \\ 7 \end{bmatrix} \] and the determinant of \( A \) be 1. If \( A^{-1} = \alpha A + \beta I \), where \( I \) is the identity matrix of order \( 2 \times 2 \), then \( \alpha + \beta \) equals \( \dots \).


Question 24:

Consider a triangle \( \triangle ABC \) having the vertices \( A(1, 2) \), \( B(\alpha, \beta) \), and \( C(\gamma, \delta) \) and angles \( \angle ABC = \frac{\pi}{6} \) and \( \angle BAC = \frac{2\pi}{3} \). If the points \( B \) and \( C \) lie on the line \( y = x + 4 \), then \( \alpha^2 + \gamma^2 \) is equal to \( \dots \).


Question 25:

In a tournament, a team plays 10 matches with probabilities of winning and losing each match as \( \frac{1}{3} \) and \( \frac{2}{3} \), respectively. Let \( x \) be the number of matches that the team wins, and \( y \) be the number of matches that the team loses. If the probability \( P(|x - y| \leq 2) \) is \( p \), then \( 3^9 p \) equals .


Question 26:

Consider the function \( f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) defined by \[ f(x) = \frac{2x}{\sqrt{1 + 9x^2}}. \] If the composition of \( f \), \[ (f \circ f \circ f \circ \dots \circ f)(x) \quad \text{(10 times)} = \frac{2^{10}x}{\sqrt{1 + 9\alpha x^2}}, \] then the value of \( \sqrt{3\alpha + 1} \) is equal to \( \dots \).


Question 27:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation \[ (x + y + 2)^2 \, dx = dy, \quad y(0) = -2. \] Let the maximum and minimum values of the function \( y = y(x) \) in \( \left[ 0, \frac{\pi}{3} \right] \) be \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \), respectively. If \[ (3\alpha + \pi)^2 + \beta^2 = \gamma + \delta\sqrt{3}, \quad \gamma, \delta \in \mathbb{Z}, \] then \( \gamma + \delta \) equals \( \dots \).


Question 28:

Let \( f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) be a thrice differentiable function such that \[ f(0) = 0, \, f(1) = 1, \, f(2) = -1, \, f(3) = 2, \, \text{and} \, f(4) = -2. \] Then, the minimum number of zeros of \( (3f' f' + f'') (x) \) is:


Question 29:

Consider a line \( L \) passing through the points \( P(1, 2, 1) \) and \( Q(2, 1, -1) \). If the mirror image of the point \( A(2, 2, 2) \) in the line \( L \) is \( (\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \), then \( \alpha + \beta + 6\gamma \) is equal to .


Question 30:

There are 4 men and 5 women in Group A, and 5 men and 4 women in Group B. If 4 persons are selected from each group, then the number of ways of selecting 4 men and 4 women is


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

Applying the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, determine which one is correct. Where \( T \) is the time period, \( G \) is the gravitational constant, \( M \) is the mass, and \( r \) is the radius of the orbit.

  • (1) \( T^2 = \frac{4\pi^2 r}{GM^2} \)
  • (2) \( T^2 = 4\pi^2 r^3 \)
  • (3) \( T^2 = \frac{4\pi^2 r^3}{GM} \)
  • (4) \( T^2 = \frac{4\pi^2 r^2}{GM} \)

Question 32:

A 2 kg brick begins to slide over a surface which is inclined at an angle of \( 45^\circ \) with respect to the horizontal axis. The coefficient of static friction between their surfaces is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (3) 0.5
  • (4) 1.7

Question 33:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Question 34:

Which of the diode circuit shows correct biasing used for the measurement of dynamic resistance of p-n junction diode :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 35:

A sample of gas at temperature \( T \) is adiabatically expanded to double its volume. Adiabatic constant for the gas is \( \gamma = \frac{3}{2} \). The work done by the gas in the process is (\( \mu = 1 \) mole):

  • (1) \( RT\left[\sqrt{2} - 2\right] \)
  • (2) \( RT\left[1 - 2\sqrt{2}\right] \)
  • (3) \( RT\left[2\sqrt{2} - 1\right] \)
  • (4) \( RT\left[2 - \sqrt{2}\right] \)

Question 36:

The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is \( 0.5 \, \text{Am}^2 \). It is suspended in a uniform magnetic field of \( 8 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{T} \). The work done in rotating it from its most stable to most unstable position is:

  • (1) \( 16 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{J} \)
  • (2) \( 8 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{J} \)
  • (3) \( 4 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{J} \)
  • (4) \( \text{Zero} \)

Question 37:

In simple harmonic motion, the total mechanical energy of the given system is \( E \). If the mass of the oscillating particle \( P \) is doubled, then the new energy of the system for the same amplitude is:

  • (1) \( \frac{E}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) E
  • (3) \( E\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 2E \)

Question 38:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Number of photons increases with increase in frequency of light.
Reason (R): Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons increases with the frequency of incident radiation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) A is correct but R is not correct.
  • (3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (4) A is not correct but R is correct.

Question 39:

A 90 kg body placed at \( 2R \) distance from the surface of the earth experiences gravitational pull of:
(\( R \) = Radius of Earth, \( g = 10 \, \text{ms}^{-2} \)).

  • (1) 300 N
  • (2) 225 N
  • (3) 120 N
  • (4) 100 N

Question 40:

According to Bohr's theory, the moment of momentum of an electron revolving in the 4th orbit of a hydrogen atom is:

  • (1) \( \frac{8h}{\pi} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{h}{\pi} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2h}{\pi} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{h}{2\pi} \)

Question 41:

A cyclist starts from the point P of a circular ground of radius 2 km and travels along its circumference to the point S. The displacement of a cyclist is :

  • (1) 6 km
  • (2) √8 km
  • (3) 4 km
  • (4) 8 km

Question 42:

A body of m kg slides from rest along the curve of vertical circle from point A to B in friction less path. The velocity of the body at B is :

(Given, \( R = 14 \, \text{m}, \, g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \, \text{and} \, \sqrt{2} = 1.4 \))

  • (1) 19.8 m/s
  • (2) 21.9 m/s
  • (3) 16.7 m/s
  • (4) 10.6 m/s

Question 43:

The width of one of the two slits in a Young's double slit experiment is 4 times that of the other slit. The ratio of the maximum of the minimum intensity in the interference pattern is :

  • (1) 9 :1
  • (2) 16 : 1
  • (3) 1 : 1
  • (4) 4 : 1

Question 44:

The translational degrees of freedom (\(f_t\)) and rotational degrees of freedom (\(f_r\)) of \( \text{CH}_4 \) molecule are:

  • (1) \( f_t = 2 \, \text{and} \, f_r = 2 \)
  • (2) \( f_t = 3 \, \text{and} \, f_r = 3 \)
  • (3) \( f_t = 3 \, \text{and} \, f_r = 2 \)
  • (4) \( f_t = 2 \, \text{and} \, f_r = 3 \)

Question 45:

A charge q is placed at the center of one of the surface of a cube. The flux linked with the cube is :-

  • (1) \( \frac{q}{4\epsilon_0} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{q}{2\epsilon_0} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{q}{8\epsilon_0} \)
  • (4) Zero

Question 46:

Correct formula for height of a satellite from earths surface is :

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{T^2 R^2 g}{4 \pi} \right)^{1/2} - R \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{T^2 R^2 g}{4 \pi^2} \right)^{1/3} - R \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{T^2 R^2}{4 \pi^2 g} \right)^{1/3} - R \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{T^2 R^2}{4 \pi^2 g} \right)^{-1/3} + R \)

Question 47:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The contact angle between a solid and a liquid is a property of the material of the solid and liquid as well.
Statement II : The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube does not depend on the inner radius of the tube.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Question 48:

An electric bulb rated 50 W – 200 V is connected across a 100 V supply. The power dissipation of the bulb is :

  • (1) 12.5 W
  • (2) 25 W
  • (3) 50 W
  • (4) 100 W

Question 49:

Arrange the following in the ascending order of wavelength:
(A) Gamma rays (\( \lambda_1 \))
(B) X-ray (\( \lambda_2 \))
(C) Infrared waves (\( \lambda_3 \))
(D) Microwaves (\( \lambda_4 \))
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \( \lambda_4<\lambda_3<\lambda_1<\lambda_2 \)
  • (2) \( \lambda_4<\lambda_3<\lambda_2<\lambda_1 \)
  • (3) \( \lambda_1<\lambda_2<\lambda_3<\lambda_4 \)
  • (4) \( \lambda_2<\lambda_1<\lambda_4<\lambda_3 \)

Question 50:

Identify the logic gate given in the circuit :

  • (1) NAND - gate
  • (2) OR - gate
  • (3) AND gate
  • (4) NOR gate

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

In a system, two particles of masses \( m_1 = 3 \, \text{kg} \) and \( m_2 = 2 \, \text{kg} \) are placed at a certain distance from each other. The particle of mass \( m_1 \) is moved towards the center of mass of the system through a distance \( 2 \, \text{cm} \). In order to keep the center of mass of the system at the original position, the particle of mass \( m_2 \) should move towards the center of mass by the distance ______ \( \, \text{cm} \).


Question 52:

Two parallel long current carrying wire separated by a distance \(2r\) are shown in the figure. The ratio of magnetic field at \(A\) to the magnetic field produced at \(C\) is \(\frac{x}{7}\). The value of \(x\) is ___.


Question 53:

A bus moving along a straight highway with speed of 72 km/h is brought to halt within 4s after applying the brakes. The distance travelled by the bus during this time (Assume the retardation is uniform) is _______m.


Question 54:

A rod of length 60 cm rotates with a uniform angular velocity \(20 \, \text{rad} \, \text{s}^{-1}\) about its perpendicular bisector, in a uniform magnetic field \(0.5 \, \text{T}\). The direction of the magnetic field is parallel to the axis of rotation. The potential difference between the two ends of the rod is _____ V.


Question 55:

The disintegration energy Q for the nuclear fission of ²³⁵U → ¹⁴⁰Ce + ⁹⁴Zr + n is _____ MeV.

Given atomic masses:
²³⁵U = 235.0439 u 
¹⁴⁰Ce = 139.9054 u 
⁹⁴Zr = 93.9063 u 
n = 1.0086 u 

Value of c² = 931 MeV/u.


Question 56:

Mercury is filled in a tube of radius \(2 \, \text{cm}\) up to a height of \(30 \, \text{cm}\). The force exerted by mercury on the bottom of the tube is ___N.
(Given, atmospheric pressure = \(10^5 \, \text{N/m}^2\), density of mercury = \(1.36 \times 10^4 \, \text{kg/m}^3\), \(g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2\), \(\pi = \frac{22}{7}\))


Question 57:

A light ray is incident on a glass slab of thickness \(4\sqrt{3}\) cm and refractive index \(\sqrt{2}\). The angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the glass slab with air. The lateral displacement of the ray after passing through the glass slab is _____ cm.
(Given \(\sin 15^\circ = 0.25\))


Question 58:

Two wires A and B are made up of the same material and have the same mass. Wire A has radius \(2.0 \, \text{mm}\) and wire B has radius \(4.0 \, \text{mm}\). The resistance of wire B is \(2 \, \Omega\). The resistance of wire A is _____ \( \Omega \).


Question 59:

The displacement of a particle executing SHM is given by \( x = 10 \sin\left(\omega t + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) \, \text{m} \). The time period of motion is \( 3.14 \, \text{s} \). The velocity of the particle at \( t = 0 \) is ______ m/s.


Question 60:

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance \( 12.5 \, \text{pF} \) is charged by a battery connected between its plates to a potential difference of \( 12.0 \, \text{V} \). The battery is now disconnected and a dielectric slab (\( \varepsilon_r = 6 \)) is inserted between the plates. The change in its potential energy after inserting the dielectric slab is ______ \( \times 10^{-12} \, \text{J} \).


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Fuel cell, using hydrogen and oxygen as fuels,
A. has been used in spaceship
B. has as efficiency of 40% to produce electricity
C. uses aluminium as catalysts
D. is eco-friendly
E. is actually a type of Galvanic cell only

  • (1) A,B,C only
  • (2) A,B,D only
  • (3) A,B,D,E only
  • (4) A,D,E only

Question 62:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 63:

If an iron (III) complex with the formula \[\left[ \text{Fe}(\text{NH}_3)_x (\text{CN})_y \right]^-\]has no electron in its \( e_g \) orbital, then the value of \( x + y \) is:

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 64:

The number of unpaired d-electrons in \([ \text{Co}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_6 ]^{3+}\) is ______

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 1

Question 65:

Correct order of stability of carbanion is

  • (1) c > b > d > a
  • (2) a > b > c > d
  • (3) d > a > c > b
  • (4) d > c > b > a

Question 66:

Product P is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 67:

The correct order of the first ionization enthalpy is

  • (1) Al > Ga > Tl
  • (2) Ga > Al > B
  • (3) B > Al > Ga
  • (4) Tl > Ga > Al

Question 68:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The correct order of first ionization enthalpy values of Li, Na, F, and Cl is \( \text{Na} < \text{Li} < \text{Cl} < \text{F} \).
Statement II: The correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy values of Li, Na, F, and Cl is \( \text{Na} < \text{Li} < \text{F} < \text{Cl} \).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 69:

For a strong electrolyte, a plot of molar conductivity against \( (\text{concentration})^{1/2} \) is a straight line, with a negative slope, the correct unit for the slope is:

  • (1) S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-3/2}\) L\(^{1/2}\)
  • (2) S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\) L\(^{1/2}\)
  • (3) S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-3/2}\) L
  • (4) S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-3/2}\) L\(^{-1/2}\)

Question 70:

When \( \text{MnO}_2 \) and \( \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \) is added to a salt (A), the greenish yellow gas liberated as salt (A) is:

  • (1) \( \text{NaBr} \)
  • (2) \( \text{CaI}_2 \)
  • (3) \( \text{KNO}_3 \)
  • (4) \( \text{NH}_4\text{Cl} \)

Question 71:

The correct statement/s about Hydrogen bonding is/are :
A. Hydrogen bonding exists when H is covalently bonded to the highly electro negative atom.
B. Intermolecular H bonding is present in o-nitro phenol
C. Intramolecular H bonding is present in HF.
D. The magnitude of H bonding depends on the physical state of the compound.
E. H-bonding has powerful effect on the structure and properties of compounds.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A only
  • (2) A, D, E only
  • (3) A, B, D only
  • (4) A, B, C only

Question 72:

Choose the Incorrect Statement about Dalton's Atomic Theory

  • (1) Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in any ratio
  • (2) All the atoms of a given element have identical properties including identical mass
  • (3) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
  • (4) Chemical reactions involve recorganization of atoms

Question 73:

Consider the above reactions, identify product B and product C.

  • (1) B = C = 2-Propanol
  • (2) B = 2-Propanol C = 1-Propanol
  • (3) B = 1-Propanol C = 2-Propanol
  • (4) B = C = 1-Propanol

Question 74:

The number of species from the following that have pyramidal geometry around the central atom is ______
\( \text{S}_2\text{O}_3^{2-}, \, \text{SO}_4^{2-}, \, \text{SO}_3^{2-}, \, \text{S}_2\text{O}_7^{2-} \)

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2

Question 75:

A first row transition metal in its +2 oxidation state has a spin-only magnetic moment value of 3.86 BM. The atomic number of the metal is

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 26
  • (3) 22
  • (4) 23

Question 76:

Common name of Benzene-1, 2-diol is

  • (1) quinol
  • (2) resorcinol
  • (3) catechol
  • (4) o-cresol

Question 77:

The equilibrium constant for the reaction
\( \text{SO}_3 \, (g) \rightleftharpoons \text{SO}_2 \, (g) + \frac{1}{2} \text{O}_2 \, (g) \)
is \( K_C = 4.9 \times 10^{-2} \). The value of \( K_C \) for the reaction given below is
\( 2 \text{SO}_2 \, (g) + \text{O}_2 \, (g) \rightleftharpoons 2 \text{SO}_3 \, (g) \) is

  • (1) 4.9
  • (2) 41.6
  • (3) 49
  • (4) 416

Question 78:

Find out the major product formed from the following reaction.\([ \text{Me: } -\text{CH}_3 ]\)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 79:

The adsorbent used in adsorption chromatography is/are
A. silica gel
B. alumina
C. quick lime
D. magnesia
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) B only
  • (2) C and D only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) A only

Question 80:

In the above chemical reaction sequence “A’’ and “B” respectively are :

  • (1) \( \text{O}_3, \, \text{Zn}/\text{H}_2\text{O} \, \text{and} \, \text{NaOH}_{(\text{alc.})}/\text{I}_2 \)
  • (2) \( \text{H}_2\text{O}, \, \text{H}^+ \, \text{and} \, \text{NaOH}_{(\text{alc.})}/\text{I}_2 \)
  • (3) \( \text{H}_2\text{O}, \, \text{H}^+ \, \text{and} \, \text{KMnO}_4 \)
  • (4) \( \text{O}_3, \, \text{Zn}/\text{H}_2\text{O} \, \text{and} \, \text{KMnO}_4 \)

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

The maximum number of orbitals which can be identified with \( n = 4 \) and \( m_l = 0 \) is ______


Question 82:

Number of compounds/species from the following with non-zero dipole moment is ______
\(\text{BeCl}_2, \, \text{BCl}_3, \, \text{NF}_3, \, \text{XeF}_4, \, \text{CCl}_4, \, \text{H}_2\text{O}, \, \text{H}_2\text{S}, \, \text{HBr}, \, \text{CO}_2, \, \text{H}_2, \, \text{HCl}\)


Question 83:

The total number of 'sigma' and 'Pi' bonds in 2-oxohex-4-ynoic acid is____.


Question 84:

From 6.55 g of aniline, the maximum amount of acetanilide that can be prepared will be ___ × \( 10^{-1} \) g.


Question 85:

2.7 Kg of each of water and acetic acid are mixed. The freezing point of the solution will be –x °C. Consider the acetic acid does not dimerise in water, nor dissociates in water. \( x = \) ______ (nearest integer).
[Given: Molar mass of water = \( 18 \, \text{g mol}^{-1} \), acetic acid = \( 60 \, \text{g mol}^{-1} \) \( K_f \, \text{H}_2\text{O} = 1.86 \, \text{K kg mol}^{-1} \) \( K_f \, \text{acetic acid} = 3.90 \, \text{K kg mol}^{-1} \) Freezing point: \( \text{H}_2\text{O} = 273 \, \text{K}, \, \text{acetic acid} = 290 \, \text{K} \)]


Question 86:

Consider the following reaction, the rate expression of which is given below:
\( \text{A} + \text{B} \to \text{C} \)
\(\text{rate} = k [\text{A}]^{1/2} [\text{B}]^{1/2}\)
The reaction is initiated by taking 1M concentration of A and B each. If the rate constant (\(k\)) is \(4.6 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{s}^{-1}\), then the time taken for A to become 0.1 M is ______ sec. (nearest integer)


Question 87:

Three moles of an ideal gas are compressed isothermally from 60 L to 20 L using constant pressure of 5 atm. Heat exchange Q for the compression is – ____ Lit. atm.


Question 88:

Vanillin compound obtained from vanilla beans, has total sum of oxygen atoms and \( \pi \) electrons is ______


Question 89:

Phthalimide is made to undergo following sequence of reactions.

Total number of \( \pi \) bonds present in product 'P' is/are ______


Question 90:

A first row transition metal with the highest enthalpy of atomisation, upon reaction with oxygen at high temperature, forms oxides of formula \( \text{M}_2\text{O}_n \) (where \( n = 3, 4, 5 \)). The 'spin-only' magnetic moment value of the amphoteric oxide from the above oxides is ___ BM (near integer).
(Given atomic number: \( \text{Sc: 21, Ti: 22, V: 23, Cr: 24, Mn: 25, Fe: 26, Co: 27, Ni: 28, Cu: 29, Zn: 30} \))

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

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JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

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JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 2 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 2 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper