JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 Physics question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The Physics question paper for JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the Jan 27 Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.
Related Links:
- JEE Main 2025 Question Paper pdf with solutions
- JEE Main Previous Years Question Paper with Solution PDF
JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 Physics Question Paper PDF Download
| JEE Main 2024 Physics Question Paper | JEE Main 2024 Physics Answer Key | JEE Main 2024 Physics Solution |
|---|---|---|
| Download PDF | Download PDF | Download PDF |
JEE Main 2024 27 Jan Shift 1 Physics Questions
| Question | Answer | Solution |
|---|---|---|
| 31.Position of an ant (S in metres) moving in the Y-Z plane is given by S = 2t 2ˆj + 5t ˆk (where t is in seconds). The magnitude and direction of velocity of the ant at t = 1 s will be: (1) 16 m/s in y-direction (2) 4 m/s in x-direction (3) 9 m/s in z-direction (4) 4 m/s in y-direction |
(4) 4 m/s in y-direction | Calculations involved in applying kinematic equations for both x and y components. |
|
32. Given below are two statements: Statement (I): Viscosity of gases is greater than that of liquids. Statement (II): Surface tension of a liquid decreases due to the presence of insoluble impurities. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct |
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct | For questions involving physical properties, consider intermolecular forces and interactions for accurate comparison. |
| 33. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is cot(A/2), where A is the angle of the prism, then the angle of minimum deviation will be (1) π - 2A (2) π/2 - 2A (3) π - A (4) π/2 - A |
(1) π - 2A | For prism-related problems, use the geometry of the prism and trigonometric identities to relate the angle of deviation and refractive index. |
|
34. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a region of space without any change in its velocity. If E⃗ and B⃗ represent the electric and magnetic fields respectively, then the region of space may have: Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B) and (C) only (2) (A), (C) and (D) only (3) (A), (B) and (D) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only |
(3) (A), (B) and (D) only | To determine conditions for no net force on a charged particle, consider both electric and magnetic force components and ensure they cancel out. |
| 35. The least positive integral value of α for which the angle between the vectors α i - 2 j + 2 k and α i + 2α j - 2 k is acute is: (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 |
(3) 5 | Using dot product conditions for an acute angle and solving for minimum α. |
| 36. A rectangular loop of length 2.5 m and width 2 m is placed at 60° to a magnetic field of 4 T. The loop is removed from the field in 10 s. The average emf induced in the loop during this time is: (1) -2V (2) +2V (3) +1V (4) -1V |
(3) +1V | Using Faraday's law to calculate induced emf. |
| 37. The refractive index of the material of a prism is cot(A/2), where A is the angle of the prism. The angle of minimum deviation δm is: (1) A (2) 2A (3) A/2 (4) 3A |
(1) A | Application of prism formula for minimum deviation. |
| 38. A spherometer has a circular base of radius 3.5 cm. The central screw moves 2 mm for every complete rotation. How many rotations should be given to the central screw to raise it from the base by 4.2 mm? (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 |
(1) 3 | Calculating required rotations based on height increase per rotation. |
| 39. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is projected perpendicular to a magnetic field B with speed v. The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is: (1) 2πmv/qB (2) 2mv/qB (3) 2πqB/mv (4) 2qB/πmv |
(1) 2πmv/qB | Using the formula for pitch in a helical path under magnetic influence. |
| 40. For a reaction, if the equilibrium constant at 500 K is 4, then the value of the standard Gibbs free energy ΔG° at this temperature is: (1) -1155 J (2) 1386 J (3) -1386 J (4) 1155 J |
(1) -1155 J | Applying ΔG° = -RT ln(K) to find the Gibbs free energy. |
| 41. The element with the highest first ionization enthalpy among the following is: (1) B (2) Al (3) Ga (4) In |
(1) B | Based on periodic trends in ionization enthalpy. |
| 42. For a given reaction, the rate of appearance of B is four times the rate of disappearance of A. The balanced reaction is: (1) A → 4B (2) 4A → B (3) 2A → 2B (4) 4A → 4B |
(1) A → 4B | Analyzing the rate relation to deduce the balanced reaction. |
| 43. Among the following, the most acidic compound is: (1) Benzene (2) Phenol (3) Ethanol (4) Acetylene |
(2) Phenol | Considering the acidity of functional groups and resonance stability. |
| 44. The correct order of bond angle for NH3, PH3, and AsH3 is: (1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (2) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 (3) AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (4) All have the same bond angle |
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 | Using VSEPR theory and electronegativity differences. |
| 45. Which one of the following complex ions is diamagnetic? (1) [Fe(CN)6]3- (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (3) [NiCl4]2- (4) [CuCl4]2- |
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ | Using electron configurations and ligand field theory. |
| 46. In a hypothetical reaction A → B, the rate of formation of B is 0.04 mol L^-1 s^-1. The rate of disappearance of A is: (1) 0.02 mol L^-1 s^-1 (2) 0.04 mol L^-1 s^-1 (3) 0.08 mol L^-1 s^-1 (4) 0.01 mol L^-1 s^-1 |
(2) 0.04 mol L^-1 s^-1 | Direct correlation as the reaction rate remains the same for the disappearance of A and formation of B. |
| 47. In which of the following molecules/ions does the central atom obey the octet rule? (1) BeCl2 (2) BF3 (3) SO2 (4) NO2 |
(3) SO2 | Analyzing each structure for octet fulfillment around the central atom. |
| 48. The reaction Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2 is an example of: (1) Combination reaction (2) Decomposition reaction (3) Displacement reaction (4) Redox reaction |
(4) Redox reaction | Classified based on electron transfer, indicating oxidation and reduction. |
| 49. If the boiling point of a solution containing 1 mole of glucose in 1000 g of water is 100.52°C, the ebullioscopic constant (Kb) of water is: (1) 0.52 K kg/mol (2) 1.52 K kg/mol (3) 2.52 K kg/mol (4) 3.52 K kg/mol |
(1) 0.52 K kg/mol | Using the boiling point elevation formula ΔTb = i Kb m to solve for Kb. |
| 50. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 is: (1) 1-Butanol (2) 2-Butanol (3) tert-Butanol (4) Isobutanol |
(2) 2-Butanol | Naming according to IUPAC conventions, identifying the hydroxyl group position. |
| 51. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity 5ˆi m/s and moves in x-y plane under action of a force which produces a constant acceleration of (3ˆi + 2ˆj) m/s². If the x-coordinate of the particle at that instant is 84 m, then the speed of the particle at this time is √α m/s. The value of α is: | 2 | By using kinematic equations and the given acceleration, the speed of the particle at x = 84 m is calculated, leading to α = 673. |
| 52. A thin metallic wire having cross-sectional area of 10-4 m² is used to make a ring of radius 30 cm. A positive charge of 2π C is uniformly distributed over the ring, while another positive charge of 30 pC is kept at the center of the ring. The tension in the ring is: | 3 | The tension in the wire is determined by the electrostatic force between the charges on the ring and the central charge, resulting in a tension of 48 N. |
| 53. Two coils have mutual inductance 0.002 H. The current changes in the first coil according to the relation i = i₀ sin(ωt), where i₀ = 5 A and ω = 50π rad/s. The maximum value of emf in the second coil is π. | π | The emf induced in the second coil is given by ε = M (di/dt), where M is the mutual inductance. By calculating the rate of change of current, the maximum emf is found to be π. |
| 54. Two immiscible liquids of refractive indices 8/5 and 3/2 respectively are put in a beaker as shown in the figure. The height of each column is 6 cm. A coin is placed at the bottom of the beaker. For near normal vision, the apparent depth of the coin is α 4 cm. The value of α is: | 4 | The apparent depth is determined using the refractive index of each liquid, where the final depth is found by applying the formula for the apparent depth in the presence of two refractive indices. |
| 55. In a nuclear fission process, a high mass nuclide (A ≈ 236) with binding energy 7.6 MeV/Nucleon dissociates into middle mass nuclides (A ≈ 118), having binding energy of 8.6 MeV/Nucleon. The energy released in the process would be MeV. | ΔE = 4.8 MeV | The energy released is calculated using the difference in binding energies of the nuclides before and after the fission. The energy released is 4.8 MeV. |
| 56. Four particles each of mass 1 kg are placed at four corners of a square of side 2 m. Moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its vertex is kg m². | 6 kg m² | The moment of inertia is calculated by summing the contributions of all the particles located at the corners of the square, using the parallel axis theorem. |
| 57. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position, the velocity of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of the particle from the mean position when its speed becomes 5 cm/s is √α cm, where α = ? | 25 | Using the energy conservation equation for SHM, the distance from the mean position when the speed is 5 cm/s is found to be √25 cm, hence α = 25. |
| 58. Two long, straight wires carry equal currents in opposite directions as shown in the figure. The separation between the wires is 5.0 cm. The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point P midway between the wires is µT. | 0 | The magnetic fields produced by each wire cancel each other out at the point midway between the wires because the currents are equal and opposite. |
| 59. The charge accumulated on the capacitor connected in the following circuit is µC _____ | Q = 10 µC | The charge accumulated on the capacitor is calculated using the formula Q = CV, where C is the capacitance and V is the voltage across the capacitor. |
| 60. If the average depth of an ocean is 4000 m and the bulk modulus of water is 2×109 Nm−2, then the fractional compression ∆V/V of water at the bottom of the ocean is α × 10−2. The value of α is. | 8 | The fractional compression is given by ∆V/V = P / B, where P is the pressure at the ocean's depth and B is the bulk modulus. After calculating the pressure and applying the formula, α = 8. |
Also Check:
| JEE Main 2024 Paper Analysis | JEE Main 2024 Answer Key |
| JEE Main 2024 Cutoff | JEE Main 2024 Marks vs Rank |
JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 Physics Question Paper by Coaching Institute
| Coaching Institutes | Question Paper with Solutions PDF |
|---|---|
| Aakash BYJUs | Download PDF |
| Reliable Institute | Download PDF |
| Resonance | Download PDF |
| Vedantu | Download PDF |
| Sri Chaitanya | To be updated |
| FIIT JEE | To be updated |
JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 Physics Paper Analysis
JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 Physics paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.
JEE Main 2024 Physics Question Paper Pattern
| Feature | Question Paper Pattern |
|---|---|
| Examination Mode | Computer-based Test |
| Exam Language | 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu) |
| Sectional Time Duration | None |
| Total Marks | 100 marks |
| Total Number of Questions Asked | 30 Questions |
| Total Number of Questions to be Answered | 25 questions |
| Type of Questions | MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions |
| Section-wise Number of Questions | 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type, |
| Marking Scheme | +4 for each correct answer |
| Negative Marking | -1 for each incorrect answer |
Read More:
- JEE Main 2024 question paper pattern and marking scheme
- Most important chapters in JEE Mains 2024, Check chapter wise weightage here
JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)
Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.
| Exam Date and Shift | Question Paper PDF |
|---|---|
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 24 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 27 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 27 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 30 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 30 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 31 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 31 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 2 | Check Here |
Comments