JEE Main 2023 January 29 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on January 29, 2023, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 January 29 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 January 29 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let \(𝑦=𝑦(𝑥)\) be the solution of the differential equation \(𝑥\;𝑙𝑜𝑔_𝑒⁡𝑥\frac{𝑑𝑦}{ 𝑑𝑥} +𝑦=𝑥^2𝑙𝑜𝑔_𝑒⁡𝑥,(𝑥>1)\).  If \(𝑦(2)=2\), then \(𝑦(𝑒)\) is equal to 

  • (1) \(\frac{2+e^2}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1+e^2}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1+e^2}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4+e^2}{4}\)

Question 2:

Let R be a relation defined on N as a ⁡R⁡b if 2a+3b is a multiple of 5 ,a , b∈N. Then R is

  • (1) transitive but not symmetric
  • (2) an equivalence relation
  • (3) not reflexive
  • (4) symmetric but not transitive

Question 3:

The letters of the word OUGHT are written in all possible ways and these words are arranged as in a dictionary, in a series. Then the serial number of the word TOUGH is

  • (1) 79
  • (2) 86
  • (3) 84
  • (4) 89

Question 4:

If \(\overrightarrow a =\hat i+2\hat k,\overrightarrow b =\hat i+\hat j+\hat k,\overrightarrow c =7\hat i−3\hat j+4\hat k,r ×\hat b +\hat b ×\overrightarrow c =\overrightarrow0\) and \(\overrightarrow r .\overrightarrow a =0\). Then \(\overrightarrow r. \overrightarrow c\)  is equal to 

  • (1) 30
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 36
  • (4) 34

Question 5:

The number of 3 digit numbers, that are divisible by either 3 or 4 but not divisible by 48, is

  • (1) 507
  • (2) 432
  • (3) 472
  • (4) 400

Question 6:

Let \(𝑆={𝑤_1,𝑤_2,…….}\) be the sample space associated to a random experiment. Let \(𝑃(𝑤_𝑛)= \frac{𝑃(𝑤_{𝑛−1})}{2} ,𝑛≥2.\) Let 𝐴=\({(2𝑘+3𝑙:k,𝑙∈ℕ)}\) and \(𝐵={𝑤_𝑛:𝑛∈𝐴}\). Then 𝑃( 𝐵) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac3{64}\)
  • (2) \(\frac1{16}\)
  • (3) \(\frac1{32}\)
  • (4) \(\frac3{32}\)

Question 7:

Consider a function f:N→R, satisfying
\( f(1)+2f(2)+3f(3)+⋯+xf(x)=x(x+1)f(x);x≥2 with f(1)=1.\)
Then \(\frac{1}{f(2022)} + \frac{1}{f(2028)}\) is equal to

  • (1) 8100
  • (2) 8400
  • (3) 8000
  • (4) 8200

Question 8:

The set of all values of \(λ\) for which the equation \(cos^2⁡2x−2sin^4⁡x−2cos^2⁡x=λ\) has a real solution x, is 

  • (1) \([-1,-\frac{1}{2}]\)
  • (2) \([-\frac{3}{2},-1]\)
  • (3) \([-\frac{3}{2},-1]\)
  • (4) [-2,-1]

Question 9:

The area of the region A = \({(x,y):|cos⁡x−sin⁡x|≤y≤sin⁡x,0≤x≤\frac{π}{ 2} }\) is

  • (1) \(\sqrt 5−2\sqrt 2+1\)
  • (2) \(1-\frac{3}{\sqrt 2}+\frac{4}{\sqrt 5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt 5}-\frac{3}{\sqrt 2}+1\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt 5+2\sqrt 2−4.5\)

Question 10:

Let \(\overrightarrow 𝑎 =4\hat 𝑖+3\hat 𝑗ˆ\) and \(\overrightarrow 𝑏 =3\hat 𝑖−4\hat 𝑗\)+\(5\hat 𝑘\). If \(\overrightarrow 𝑐\)  is a vector such that \(\overrightarrow 𝑐 ⋅(\overrightarrow 𝑎 ×\overrightarrow𝑏⃗ )+25=0\), \(\overrightarrow𝑐 ⋅(\hat𝑖+\hat𝑗+ \hat𝑘)=4\), and projection of \(\overrightarrow𝑐\)  on \(\overrightarrow𝑎\)  is \(1\) , then the projection of \(\overrightarrow 𝑐\)  on \(\overrightarrow 𝑏\) equals 

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{\sqrt 2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}\)

Question 11:

The value of the integral \(\int^2_1\bigg(\frac{t^4+1}{t^6+1}\bigg)\)dt is 

  • (1) \(tan^{-1}2-\frac{1}{3}tan^{-1}8+\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (2) \(tan^{-1}2-\frac{1}{3}tan^{-1}8-\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (3) \(tan^{-1}\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}tan^{-1}8-\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (4) \(tan^{-1}\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}tan^{-1}8+\frac{\pi}{3}\)

Question 12:

Let 𝐾 be the sum of the coefficients of the odd powers of 𝑥 in the expansion of \((1+𝑥)^{99}\). Let 𝑎 be the middle term in the expansion of \((2+\frac{1}{\sqrt 2} )^{200}\). If \(\frac{⁡^{200}𝐶_{99} 𝐾}{𝑎} =\frac{2^𝑙 𝑚}{𝑛} \), where 𝑚 and 𝑛 are odd numbers, then the ordered pair (𝑙, 𝑛) is equal to

  • (1) (50,51)
  • (2) (50,101)
  • (3) (51,99)
  • (4) (51,101)

Question 13:

The value of the integral \(∫_{\frac 12}^2 \frac{tan^{-1}x}{x}dx\) is equal to

  • (1) \( \frac{π}2 log_e⁡2\)
  • (2) \( 2 log_e⁡2\)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}2 log_e⁡2\)
  • (4) \( \frac{π}4 log_e⁡2\)

Question 14:

The shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x−1}2 =\frac{y−2}1 =\frac{z−6}{-3} \) and \(\frac{x−1}2 =\frac{y+8}{-7} =\frac{z−4}{5} \) is

  • (1) \(5\sqrt 3\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt 3\)
  • (3) \(3\sqrt 3\)
  • (4) \(4\sqrt 3\)

Question 15:

Let f and g be twice differentiable functions on R such that
f''(x)=g''(x)+6x
f''(1)=4g'(1)-3=9
f(2)=3g(2)=12.
Then which of the following is NOT true?

  • (1) If \(−1<𝑥<2\), then \(|𝑓(𝑥)−𝑔(𝑥)|<8\)
  • (2) \(|𝑓'(𝑥)−𝑔'(𝑥)|<6⇒−1<𝑥<1\)
  • (3) \(𝑔(−2)−𝑓(−2)=20\)
  • (4) There exists \(𝑥_0∈(1,\frac{3}{2})\) such that \(𝑓(𝑥0)=𝑔(𝑥0)\)

Question 16:

The statement B⇒((∼A) ∨ B) is equivalent to :

  • (1) B⇒(A⇒B)
  • (2) A⇒((∼A)⇒B)
  • (3) A⇒(A⇒B)
  • (4) B⇒((∼A)⇒B)

Question 17:

The plane \(2x−y+z=4\) intersects the line segment joining the points \(A(a,−2,4)\) and \(B(2,b,−3)\) at the point C in the ratio \(2:1\) and the distance of the point C from the origin is \(\sqrt5\). If \(ab<0 \) and \(P\) is the point \((a−b,b,2b−a)\). Then \(CP^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{16}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{17}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{73}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{97}{3}\)

Question 18:

If the tangent at a point 𝑃 on the parabola \(𝑦^2=3𝑥\) is parallel to the line \(𝑥+2𝑦=1\) and the tangents at the points 𝑄 and 𝑅 on the ellipse \(\frac{𝑥^2}{ 4} +\frac{𝑦^2}{ 1} =1\) are perpendicular to the line 𝑥−𝑦=2, then the area of the triangle PQR is : 

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\sqrt 5\)
  • (2) \(5\sqrt 3\)
  • (3) \(3\sqrt 5\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{\sqrt 5}\)

Question 19:

If the lines \(\frac{x-1}{1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z+3}{1}\)  and \(\frac{x-a}{2}=\frac{y+2}{3}=\frac{z-3}{1}\) intersect at the point 𝑃, then the distance of the point 𝑃 from the plane 𝑧=𝑎 is : 

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 22
  • (3) 28
  • (4) 16

Question 20:

The set of all values of \(t∈R\), for which the matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} e^t & e^{−t}(sin⁡\ t−2cos\ ⁡t) & e^{−t}(−2sin⁡\ t−cos\ ⁡t) \\[0.3em] e^t & e^{−t}(2sin\ ⁡t+cos\ ⁡t) & e^{−t}(sin\ ⁡t−2cos\ ⁡t) \\[0.3em] e^t & e^{−tcos\ ⁡t}& e^{−tsin\ ⁡t} \end{bmatrix}\) is invertible, is

  • (1) \( \mathbb{R} \)
  • (2) \( \{(2k+1)\frac \pi2 ,k∈Z\}\)
  • (3) \(\{k\pi+\frac \pi4 ,k∈Z\}\)
  • (4) \(\{k\pi,k∈Z\}\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

The total number of 4-digit numbers whose greatest common divisor with 54 is 2 , is ____.


Question 22:

Let \(𝑋={11,12,13,…,40,41}\) and \(𝑌={61,62,63,…,90,91}\) be the two sets of observations. If \(\bar 𝑥\) and \(\bar 𝑦\) are their respective means and \(σ^2\) is the variance of all the observations in \(𝑋∪𝑌\), then \(|\bar 𝑥+\bar 𝑦−σ^2|\) is equal to ____ .


Question 23:

Let \(α=8−14𝑖\), \(𝐴=\{z∈C:\frac {αz−\bar α\bar z}{z^2−(\bar z)^2−112i }=1\}\) and \(𝐵={𝑧∈C:|𝑧+3𝑖|=4}\). Then \(∑_{𝑧∈𝐴∩𝐵 }(\text {𝑅𝑒}\ ⁡𝑧−\text {𝐼𝑚⁡}\ 𝑧)\) is equal to _____ .


Question 24:

Let \( \alpha_1, \alpha_2, \dots, \alpha_7 \) be the roots of the equation \( x^7 + 3x^5 - 13x^3 - 15x = 0 \) and \( |\alpha_1| \geq |\alpha_2| \geq \dots \geq |\alpha_7| \). Then \( \alpha_1 \alpha_2 - \alpha_3 \alpha_4 + \alpha_5 \alpha_6 \) is equal to:


Question 25:

Let \({a_k}\) and \({b_k}\), \(𝑘∈N\), be two G.P.s with common ratios \(r_1\) and \(r_2\) respectively such that \(a_1= b_1=4\) and \(r_1<r_2\). Let \(c_k=a_k+b_k\), \(k∈N\). If \(c_2=5\) and \(c_3=\frac {13}{4}\), then \( \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{∞ }c_k−(12a_6+8b_4)\) is equal to _____ .


Question 26:

Let \(A\) be a symmetric matrix such that \(|A|=2\) and \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1 \\[0.3em] 3 & \frac 32 \\[0.3em] \end{bmatrix}𝐴−\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\[0.3em] α & β \\[0.3em] \end{bmatrix}\). If the sum of the diagonal elements of \(A\) is \(s\), then \(\frac {βs}{α^2}\) is equal to ____ .


Question 27:

A circle with centre \((2,3) \) and radius \(4\) intersects the line \(𝑥+𝑦=3\) at the points \(𝑃\) and \(𝑄\). If the tangents at \(𝑃\) and \(𝑄\) intersect at the point \(S(α,β)\), then \(4α−7β\) is equal to _____ .


Question 28:

A triangle is formed by the tangents at the point \((2,2)\) on the curves \(𝑦^2=2𝑥\) and \(𝑥^2+𝑦^2=4𝑥\), and the line \(𝑥+𝑦+2=0\). If \(𝑟\) is the radius of its circumcircle, then \(𝑟^2\) is equal to ____ .


Question 29:

Let \(𝑎_1=𝑏_1=1\)and \(𝑎_𝑛=𝑎_{𝑛−1}+(𝑛−1)\), \(𝑏_𝑛=𝑏_{𝑛−1}+𝑎_{𝑛−1}\), \(∀𝑛≥2\). If \(𝑆= \displaystyle\sum_{ 𝑛=1}^{10}\frac {𝑏_𝑛}{2^𝑛}\) and \(𝑇= \displaystyle\sum_{𝑛=1}^{8} \frac {𝑛}{2^{𝑛−1}}\), then \(2^7(2𝑆−𝑇)\)  is equal to ____ .


Question 30:

If the equation of the normal to the curve \(𝑦= 𝑥−𝑎 (𝑥+𝑏)(𝑥−2)\) at the point \((1,−3)\) is \(𝑥−4𝑦=13\), then the value of \(𝑎+𝑏\) is equal to ___ .


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an \(\alpha\) particle and a proton accelerated from rest by the same potential is \(\frac {1}{\sqrt 𝑚}\) , the value of \(m\) is-

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 8

Question 32:

A force acts for 20 s on a body of mass 20 kg, starting from rest, after which the force ceases and then body describes 50 m in the next 10 s. The value of force will be:

  • (1) 40 N
  • (2) 5 N
  • (3) 20 N
  • (4) 10 N

Question 33:

The equation of a circle is given by \(𝑥^2+𝑦^2=𝑎^2\), where 𝑎 is the radius. If the equation is modified to change the origin other than (0,0) then. find out the correct dimensions of A and B in a new equation : \((𝑥−𝐴𝑡)^2+(𝑦−𝑡 𝐵 )^2 =𝑎^2\). The dimensions of 𝑡 is given as \([T^{−1}]\).

  • (1) \(A=[LT],B=[L^{−1} T^{−1}] \)
  • (2) \(A=[L^{−1} T^{−1}],B=[LT] \)
  • (3) \(A=[L^{−1} T],B=[LT^{−1}] \)
  • (4) \(A=[L^{−1} T^{−1}],B=[LT^{−1}]\)

Question 34:

A square loop of area \(25\ cm^2\) has a resistance of \(10\ Ω\). The loop is placed in uniform magnetic field of magnitude \(40.0 \ T\). The plane of loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The work done in pulling the loop out of the magnetic field slowly and uniformly in \(1.0\) sec, will be

  • (1) \(1.0×10^{-3} J \)
  • (2) \( 2.5×10^{−3} J \)
  • (3) \( 5×10^{−3} J \)
  • (4) \( 1.0×10^{−4} J \)

Question 35:

Heat energy of 184 kJ is given to ice of mass \(600 g\) at −12°C. Specific heat of ice is \( 2222.3 J kg^{−1}C^{−1}\) and latent heat of ice in \( 336 kJkg^{−1} \)
A. Final temperature of system will be 0°C.
B. Final temperature of the system will be greater than 0°C.  
C. The final system will have a mixture of ice and water in the ratio of 5:1.  
D. The final system will have a mixture of ice and water in the ratio of 1:5. 
E. The final system will have water only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and D Only
  • (2) A and E Only
  • (3) A and C Only
  • (4) B and D Only

Question 36:

Identify the correct statements from the following:
A. Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket is negative.
B. Work done by gravitational force in lifting a bucket out of a well by a rope tied to the bucket is negative.  
C. Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane is positive.  
D. Work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity in zero.  
E. Work done by the air resistance on an oscillating pendulum in negative.  
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, D and E only
  • (2) A and C Only
  • (3) 𝐵 and 𝐷 only
  • (4) 𝐵 and 𝐸 only

Question 37:

A scientist is observing a bacteria through a compound microscope. For better analysis and to improve its resolving power he should. (Select the best option)

  • (1) Increase the refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens
  • (2) Decrease the diameter of the objective lens
  • (3) Increase the wave length of the light
  • (4) Decrease the focal length of the eye piece.

Question 38:

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic field.
Statement II: The amplitude of electric field and the magnetic field in electromagnetic waves are related to each other as \(E_0 = \sqrt{\frac{\mu_0}{E_0}}B_0\).  
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 39:

The time taken by an object to slide down 45° rough inclined plane is n times as it takes to slide down a perfectly smooth 45° incline plane. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the incline plane is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{1−\frac1{𝑛_2} }\)
  • (2) \(1+ \frac{1}{𝑛_2} \)
  • (3) \(1- \frac{1}{𝑛_2} \)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{ \frac{1}{1-𝑛^2}}\)

Question 40:

For the given figures, choose the correct options:

The rms current in circuit (b) can never be larger than that in (a)

  • (1) At resonance, current in (b) is less than that in (a)
  • (2) The rms current in circuit (b) can never be larger than that in (a)
  • (3) The rms current in figure(a) is always equal to that in figure (b)
  • (4) The rms current in circuit (b) can be larger than that in (a)

Question 41:

An object moves at a constant speed along a circular path in a horizontal plane with center at the origin. When the object is at =+2 m, its velocity is \(−4\hat{j}m/s\). The object's velocity (v) and acceleration (𝑎) at 𝑥=−2 m will be

  • (1) \(𝑣=−4\hat{i}\,m/s ,\,𝑎=−8\hat{j} m/s^2\)
  • (2) \(𝑣=−4\hat{i}\,m/s ,\,𝑎=8\hat{j} m/s^2\)
  • (3) \(𝑣=4\hat{i}\,m/s ,\,𝑎=8\hat{j} m/s^2\)
  • (4) \(𝑣=−4\hat{i}\,m/s ,\,𝑎=8\hat{j} m/s^2\)

Question 42:

The time period of a satellite of earth is 24 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is decreased to one fourth of the previous value, then its new time period will become.

  • (1) 4 hours
  • (2) 6 hours
  • (3) 3 hours
  • (4) 12 hours

Question 43:

The electric current in a circular coil of four turns produces a magnetic induction 32 T at its centre. The coil is unwound and is rewound into a circular coil of single turn, the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil by the same current will be :

  • (1) 16 T
  • (2) 2 T
  • (3) 8 T
  • (4) 4 T

Question 44:

A fully loaded boeing aircraft has a mass of \(5.4×10^5 \) kg. Its total wing area is \(500 m^2\). It is in level flight with a speed of 1080 km/h. If the density of air 𝜌 is \(1.2 kg m^{−3}\), the fractional increase in the speed of the air on the upper surface of the wing relative to the lower surface in percentage will be. (\(𝑔=10 m/s^2\))

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 6

Question 45:

For the given logic gates combination, the correct truth table will be

For the given logic gates combination,the correct truth table will be

  • (1)
    ABX

    0

    0

    1

    1

    0

    1

    0

    1

    1

    0

    0

    0

  • (2)
    ABX

    0

    0

    1

    1

    0

    1

    0

    1

    0

    1

    1

    1

  • (3)
    ABX

    0

    0

    1

    1

    0

    1

    0

    1

    0

    1

    1

    0

  • (4)
    ABX

    0

    0

    1

    1

    0

    1

    0

    1

    1

    0

    1

    0


Question 46:

At \(300 K\) the rms speed of oxygen molecules is \(\sqrt {\frac {\alpha+5}{\alpha}}\) times to that of its average speed in the gas. Then, the value of \(\alpha\) will be
(used \(\pi=\frac {22}{7}\))

  • (1) 28
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 27

Question 47:

A point charge \(2×10^{−2}C\) is moved from P to S in a uniform electric field of \(30NC^{−1}\) directed along positive x-axis. If coordinates of P and S are \((1,2,0) m \) and \((0,0,0) m\) respectively, the work done by electric field will be

  • (1) 1200 mJ
  • (2) −1200 mJ
  • (3) −600 mJ
  • (4) 600 mJ

Question 48:

With the help of potentiometer, we can determine the value of emf of a given cell. The sensitivity of the potentiometer is
(A) directly proportional to the length of the potentiometer wire
(B) directly proportional to the potential gradient of the wire 
(C) inversely proportional to the potential gradient of the wire 
(D) inversely proportional to the length of the potentiometer wire
Choose the correct option for the above statements:

  • (1) A only
  • (2) C only
  • (3) A and 𝐶 only
  • (4) 𝐵 and 𝐷 only

Question 49:

Substance A has atomic mass number 16 and half-life of 1 day. Another substance 𝐵 has atomic mass number 32 and half life of \(\frac1{ 2}\) day. If both 𝐴 and 𝐵 simultaneously start undergo radio activity at the same time with initial mass 320 g each, how many total atoms of A and B combined would be left after 2 days.

  • (1) \(3.38×10^{24 }\)
  • (2) \( 1.69×10^{24 } \)
  • (3) \( 6.76×10^{24 } \)
  • (4) \( 6.76×10^{23} \)

Question 50:

The modulation index for an A.M. wave having maximum and minimum peak-to-peak voltages of 14 mV and 6 mV respectively is:

  • (1) 0.4
  • (2) 0.6
  • (3) 0.2
  • (4) 1.4

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A particle of mass 100 g is projected at time \(𝑡=0\) with a speed \(20\,ms^{−1}\) at an angle \(45°\) to the horizontal as given in the figure. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the particle about the starting point at time \(𝑡=2 s\) is found to be \(\sqrt{K}\  kgm^2/s.\) The value of \(K\) is ________. (Take \(g=10\) \(ms^{−2}\))

projectile motion


Question 52:

In an experiment of measuring the refractive index of a glass slab using travelling microscope in physics lab, a student measures real thickness of the glass slab as 5.25 mm and apparent thickness of the glass slab as 5.00 mm. Travelling microscope has 20 divisions in one cm on main scale and 50 divisions on vernier scale is equal to 49 divisions on main scale. The estimated uncertainty in the measurement of refractive index of the slab is \(\frac{𝑥}{10} ×10^{−3}\), where 𝑥 is _______.


Question 53:

An inductor of inductance \(2\mu H\) is connected in series with a resistance, a variable capacitor and an AC source of frequency \(7\ kHz\). The value of capacitance for which maximum current is drawn into the circuit is \(\frac 1x\) F, where the value of \(𝑥 \) is ______. (Take \(\pi=\frac {22}{7}\) )


Question 54:

A particle of mass 250 g executes a simple harmonic motion under a periodic force F=(−25𝑥)N. The particle attains a maximum speed of 4 m/s during its oscillation. The amplitude of the motion is ______ cm.


Question 55:

A metal block of base area \(0.20 \,m^2\) is placed on a table, as shown in figure. A liquid film of thickness \(0.25\, mm\) is inserted between the block and the table. The block is pushed by a horizontal force of 0.1 N and moves with a constant speed. If the viscosity of the liquid is \(5.0×10^{−3}Pl\), the speed of block is  ________ \(×10^{−3}m/s\)

A metal block of base area 0.20 m2 is placed on a table


Question 56:

A car is moving on a circular path of radius \(600\ m\) such that the magnitudes of the tangential acceleration and centripetal acceleration are equal. The time taken by the car to complete first quarter of revolution, if it is moving with an initial speed of \(54 \ km/hr\) is \(𝑡(1−𝑒^{−\frac \pi2})\ 𝑠\). The value of \(t\) is _____ .


Question 57:

Unpolarised light is incident on the boundary between two dielectric media, whose dielectric constants are 2.8 (medium −1 ) and 6.8 (medium −2 ), respectively. To satisfy the condition, so that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, the angle of incidence should be \( tan^{−1}(1+\frac{10}\theta )^{\frac{1} 2}\), then the value of 𝜃 is _______.
(Given for dielectric media, \( \mu_r=1\) )


Question 58:

For a charged spherical ball, electrostatic potential inside the ball varies with 𝑟 as \(V=2𝑎𝑟^2+𝑏\). Here, 𝑎 and 𝑏 are constant and r is the distance from the center. The volume charge density inside the ball is −𝜆𝑎𝜀. The value of 𝜆 is ______. 
(𝜀= permittivity of the medium)


Question 59:

When two resistances 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 connected in series and introduced into the left gap of a meter bridge and a resistance of 10Ω is introduced into the right gap, a null point is found at 60 cm from left side. When 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 are connected in parallel and introduced into the left gap, a resistance of 3Ω is introduced into the right-gap to get null point at 40 cm from left end. The product of 𝑅1𝑅2 is _______ Ω2.


Question 60:

A null point is found at 200 cm in potentiometer when cell in secondary circuit is shunted by 5Ω. When a resistance of 15Ω is used for shunting, null point moves to 300 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is _______ Ω.


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The decrease in first ionization enthalpy from B to Al is much larger than that from Al to Ga.
Statement II : The d orbitals in Ga are completely filled. In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  • (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • (2) Both the statements I and II are correct
  • (3) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

Question 62:

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Nickel is being used as the catalyst for producing syn gas and edible fats. 
Statement II : Silicon forms both electron rich and electron deficient hydrides. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
  • (2) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • (4) Both the statements I and II are correct

Question 63:

Which of the following relations are correct? 
(A) \(ΔU=q+pΔV\)
(B) \(ΔG=ΔH−TΔS\)
(C) \(ΔS=\frac{𝑞_{𝑟𝑒𝑣}}{𝑇}\)
(D) \(ΔH=ΔU−ΔnRT\)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and D Only
  • (2) A and B Only
  • (3) B and C Only
  • (4) C and D Only

Question 64:

A solution of \(C_rO_5 \) in amyl alcohol has a _____ colour.

  • (1) Yellow
  • (2) Green
  • (3) Blue
  • (4) Orange-Red

Question 65:

According to MO theory the bond orders for \(O_2^{2−},CO\,\, \text {and} \,\,NO^+\) respectively, are

  • (1) 1, 2 and 3
  • (2) 1,3 and 2
  • (3) 2,3 and 3
  • (4) 1, 3 and 3

Question 66:

When a hydrocarbon A undergoes combustion in the presence of air, it requirs 9.5 equivalents of oxygen and produces 3 equivalents of water. What is the molecular formula of A?

  • (1) \( C_9H_9 \)
  • (2) \( C_8H_6 \)
  • (3) \( C_9H6 \)
  • (4) \( C_6H_6 \)

Question 67:

The set of correct statements is :
(i) Manganese exhibits +7 oxidation state in its oxide. 
(ii) Ruthenium and Osmium exhibit +8 oxidation in their oxides. 
(iii) Sc shows +4 oxidation state which is oxidizing in nature. 
(iv) Cr shows oxidising nature in +6 oxidation state.

  • (1) (ii) and (iii)
  • (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
  • (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  • (4) (i) and (iii)

Question 68:

Correct order of spin only magnetic moment of the following complex ions is:
(Given At.no. Fe: 26, Co:27)

  • (1) \( [FeF_6]^{3−} \gt [Co(C_2O_4)_3]^{3−}\gt [CoF_6]^{3−}\)
  • (2) \( [FeF_6]^{3−}>[CoF_6]^{3−}>[Co(C_2O_4)_3]^{3−} \)
  • (3) \( [Co(C_2O_4)_3]^{3−}\gt [CoF_6]^3−\gt [FeF_6]^{3−} \)
  • (4) \( [CoF_6]^{3−}\gt [FeF_6]^{3−}\gt [Co(C_2O_4)_3]^{3−} \)

Question 69:

Reaction of propanamide with \(Br_2/KOH(aq)\) produces :

  • (1) Propylamine
  • (2) Ethylnitrile
  • (3) Propanenitrile
  • (4) Ethylamine

Question 70:
Following tetrapeptide can be represented as
tetrapeptide

(F, L, D, Y, I, Q, P are one letter codes for amino acids)

  • (1) PLDY
  • (2) FIQY
  • (3) YQLF
  • (4) FLDY

Question 71: Match List I and List II
List II List II 
A. van't Hoff factor, i I. Cryoscopic constant
B. \(k_f\) II. Isotonic solutions 
C. Solution with same  with same osmotic pressure III.  Normal molar mass /Abnormal molar mass 
D. AzeotropesIV. Solutions with same composition of  vapour above it 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 72:

The one giving maximum number of isomeric alkenes on dehydrohalogenation reaction is
(excluding rearrangement)

  • (1) 2-Bromopropane
  • (2) 2-Bromo-3,3-dimethylpentane
  • (3) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane
  • (4) 2-Bromopentane

Question 73:

An indicator ' X ' is used for studying the effect of variation in concentration of iodide : on the rate of reaction of iodide ion with \(H_2O_2 \) at room temp. The indicator ' X ' forms blue colored complex with compound ' A ' present in the solution. The indicator ' X ' and compound 'A' respectively are

  • (1) Methyl orange and \(H_2O_2\)
  • (2) Starch and iodine
  • (3) Starch and \(H_2O_2\)
  • (4) Methyl orange and iodine

Question 74:

Find out the major product for the following reaction.

Find out the major product for the following reaction.

  • (1) Find out the major product for the following reaction.
  • (2) Find out the major product for the following reaction.
  • (3) Find out the major product for the following reaction.
  • (4) Find out the major product for the following reaction.

Question 75:

Find out the major products from the following reaction sequence.

Find out the major products from the following reaction sequence

  • (1) Find out the major products from the following reaction sequence
  • (2) Find out the major products from the following reaction sequence
  • (3) Find out the major products from the following reaction sequence
  • (4) Find out the major products from the following reaction sequence

Question 76:

A doctor prescribed the drug Equanil to a patient. The patient was likely to have symptoms of which disease?

  • (1) Hyperacidity
  • (2) Anxiety and stress
  • (3) Depression and hypertension
  • (4) Stomach ulcers

Question 77: Match List I and List II
List II List II 
A. Osmosis I. Solvent molecules pass through semi permeable membrane towards solvent side.
B. Reverse osmosis II. Movement of charged colloidal particles under the influence of applied electric 
potential towards  oppositely charged electrodes.
C. Electro osmosisIII. Solvent molecules pass through semi permeable  membrane towards solution side. 
D. ElectrophoresisIV. Dispersion medium moves in an electric field. 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 78:

The major component of which of the following ore is sulphide based mineral?

  • (1) Siderite
  • (2) Sphalerite
  • (3) Malachite
  • (4) Calamine

Question 79:

The concentration of dissolved Oxygen in water for growth of fish should be more than 𝑋 ppm and Biochemical Oxygen Demand in clean water should be less than 𝑌 ppm. X and Y in ppm are, respectively.

  • (1) X Y
    4  8
  • (2) X Y
    6  5
  • (3) X Y
    4  15
  • (4) X Y
    6  12

Question 80: Match List I and List II
List II List II 
A. Elastomeric polymer  I. Urea formaldehyde resin 
B. Fibre Polymer II. Polystyrene 
C. Thermosetting Polymer III. Polyester 
D. Thermoplastic Polymer IV. Neoprene 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

The volume of HCl, containing \(73 g L^{−1}\), required to completely neutralise NaOH obtained by reacting \(0.69 g\) of metallic sodium with water, is _______ mL.( Nearest Integer)
(Given : molar Masses of Na, Cl, O, H, are 23,35.5,16 and 1 \(g mol^{−1}\) respectively)


Question 82:

The equilibrium constant for the reaction
\(Zn(s)+Sn^{2+}(aq)⇌Zn^{2+}(aq)+Sn(s)\, is\, 1×10^{20}\) at \(298 K\). 
The magnitude of standard electrode potential of \(Sn/Sn^{2+}\) if \(E^{\degree}_{ Zn^{2+}/Zn}= –0.76V \) is _______ \(×10^{−2} V\). (Nearest integer).
(Given : \(\frac{2.303RT}{ F}\) \(=0.059 V \))


Question 83:

At \(298\ K\)
\(N_2( g)+3H_2( g)⇌2NH_3( g),K_1=4×10^5\)
\(N_2( g)+O_2( g)⇌2NO(g),K_2=1.6×10^{12}\)
\(H_2( g)+1 2O_2( g)⇌H_2O(g),K_3=1.0×10^{−13}\)
Based on above equilibria, the equilibrium constant of the reaction, 
\(2NH_3( g)\)+\(\frac5 {2}\) \(O_2( g)⇌2NO(g)+3H_2O(g)\) is _______ \(×10^{−33 }\). (Nearest integer)


Question 84:

The denticity of the ligand present in the Fehling's reagent is ____ .


Question 85:

When 0.01 mol of an organic compound containing 60% carbon was burnt completely, 4.4 g of \(CO_2\) was produced. The molar mass of compound is _______ \(gmol^{−1}\). (Nearest integer).


Question 86:

Total number of acidic oxides among \(N_2O_3,NO_2, N_2O,Cl_2O_7,SO_2,CO,CaO,Na_2O\) and NO is ____ .


Question 87:

Assume that the radius of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is \(0.6Å\). The radius of the third Bohr orbit of \(He^+\)is _______ picometer. (Nearest Integer)


Question 88:

For conversion of compound \(A→B\), the rate constant of the reaction was found to be \(4.6×10^{−5} L mol^{−1} s^{−1}\). The order of the reaction is _____ .


Question 89:

A metal 𝑀 forms hexagonal close-packed structure. The total number of voids in 0.02 mol of it is _______ \(×10^{21}\). (Nearest integer).
( Given \(N_A=6.02×10^{23}\))


Question 90:

On heating, \(LiNO_3\) gives how many compounds among the following?
\(Li_2O,N_2,O_2,LiNO_2,NO_2 \)

JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

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