JEE Main 2023 April 12 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on April 12, 2023, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 April 12 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 April 12 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Two dice A and B are rolled, Let the numbers obtained on A and B be α and β respectively. If the variance of α - β is \(\frac{p}{q}\), where p and q are coprime, then the sum of the positive divisors of p is equal to

  • (1) 31
  • (2) 36
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 72

Question 2:

Let A=\(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & \frac{1}{51} \\ 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}\). If B=\(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ -1 & -1\end{bmatrix}\)A \(\begin{bmatrix} -1 & -2 \\ 1 & 1\end{bmatrix}\), then the sum of all the elements of the matrix \(\sum^{50}_{n=1}B^n\) is equal to

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 75
  • (3) 100
  • (4) 125

Question 3:

Let y = y(x), y>0, be a solution curve of the differential equation (1 + x2) dy=y (x–y)dx. If y(0)=1 and y(2√2) , = b then

  • (1) \(e β^{ − 1} = e^{-2} ( 3 + 2 √ 2 )\)
  • (2) \(e ^3 β^{ − 1} = e ( 3 + 2 √ 2 )\)
  • (3) \(e β^{ − 1} = e^{-2} ( 5+ √ 2 )\)
  • (4) \(e3 β^{ − 1} = e^{-2} ( 3+ 2√ 2 )\)

Question 4:

Let the lines l1 :  \(\frac{x+5}{3} =\frac{y+4}{1}=\frac{z−α}{−2}\)  and l2 :3x+2y+z–2=0=x–3y+2z-13 be coplanar. If the point P(a, b, c) on l1 is nearest to the point Q(-4,-3, 2), then |a| + |b|+|c| is equal to

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 14

Question 5:

The number of five-digit numbers, greater than 40000 and divis ible by 5, which can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 3, 5, 7, and 9 without repetition, is equal to:

  • (1) 120
  • (2) 132
  • (3) 72
  • (4) 96

Question 6:

Let C be the circle in the complex plane with centre z0 =\(\frac{1}{2}\) (1+3i) and radius r = 1. Let z1 = 1+ i and the complex number z2 be outside the circle C such that |z1 – z0| |z2 – z0| = 1. If z0, z1 and z2 are collinear, then the smaller value of |z2|2 is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{13}{2}\)

Question 7:

If the point \((α ,\frac{7√3}{3}) \)lies on the curve traced by the mid-points of the line segments of the lines x cosθ + y sinθ = 7, θ ∈ (0 , \(\frac{π}{2}\) )  between the coordinates axes, then α is equal to 

  • (1) -7
  • (2) -7√3
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 7√3

Question 8:

Let α,β be the roots of the quadratic equation  x2+√6x+3=0. Then  \(\frac{α^23+β^23 + α ^14 + β ^14 }{α ^15 + β ^15 + α 160 + β ^{10}}\)  is equal to

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 81
  • (4) 729

Question 9:

Let P \((\frac{2√3}{√7},\frac{6}{√7} )\), Q,R and S be four points on the ellipse 9x2 + 4y2 = 36. Let PQ and RS be mutually perpendicular and pass through the origin. If  \(\frac{1}{ ( P Q )^2}  +\frac{ 1}{ ( R S ) ^2} =\frac{ P }{q}\),  where p and q are coprime, then p + q is equal to

  • (1) 137
  • (2) 143
  • (3) 147
  • (4) 157

Question 10:

If the local maximum value of the function f( x )=\((\frac{√3e}{2 sin x} )^{ sin^2x}\) ,\(  x ∈ ( 0,\frac{π}{2} )\),  is \(\frac{k}{e}\), then \((\frac{k}{e})^8+\frac{k^8}{e^5}+k^8 \) is equal to

  • (1) e5+e6+e11
  • (2) e3+e6+e10
  • (3) e3+e5+e11
  • (4) e3+e6+e11

Question 11:

The area of the region enclosed by the curve y = x3 and its tangent at the point (-1, -1) is

  • (1) \(\frac{19}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{23}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{27}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{31}{4}\)

Question 12:

Let D be the domain of the function f(x)=sin−1(\( log_{3 x} (\frac{6+2log_3x}{−5x}\))) If the range of the function g : D → R defined by g ( x ) = x − [ x ] is the greatest integer function), is ( α , β ) , then α 2 +\(\frac{ 5}{ β}\) is equal to 

  • (1) 45
  • (2) 46
  • (3) 135
  • (4) 136

Question 13:

If \(\frac{1}{n+1}\,{}^nC_n+\frac{1}{n}\,{}^nC_{n-1}+\ldots+\frac{1}{2}\,{}^nC_1+{}^nC_0=\frac{1023}{10}\), then \(n\) is equal to :

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 8

Question 14:

Let be a sequence such that a1 + a2 +....+ an=\(\frac{n^2+3n}{(n+1) (n+2)}\) If  \(28 ∑^{10}_{k=1} \frac{1}{a_k} =  P _1 P_ 2 P _3 . . . P_ m\) , where p1, p2, …..pm are the first m prime numbers, then m is equal to

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 8

Question 15:

Among the two statements
(S1) : (p ⇒ q)∧(q ∧(~q)) is a contradiction and  
(S2) : (p∧q) v ((~p)∧q) v (p ∧ (~q)) v ((~p) ∧ (~q)) is a tautology 

  • (1) both are true
  • (2) both are false
  • (3) only (S1) is true
  • (4) only (S2) is true

Question 16:

Let a, b, c be three distinct real numbers, none equal to one. If the vectors \(a\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k},\hat{i}+b\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+c\hat{k}\) are coplanar, then \(\frac{1}{1-a}+\frac{1}{1-b}+\frac{1}{1-c}\) is equal to 

  • (1) -1
  • (2) 1
  • (3) -2
  • (4) 2

Question 17:

Let  \(λ∈Z ,→a=λ\^i+\^j =/^ k λ ∈\)  and \(\overrightarrow{ b} = 3 \^i− \^j + 2 \^k\) . be a vector such that  ( \(\overrightarrow{ a}+\overrightarrow{ b}+\overrightarrow{ c}\) ) × \(\overrightarrow{ c}=\overrightarrow{ 0},\overrightarrow{ a}.\overrightarrow{ c}\) and  \(\overrightarrow{ b}.\overrightarrow{ C}=-20\)  Then \( | \overrightarrow{c} + ( λ \^i + \^j + \^k ) |  ^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) 46
  • (2) 49
  • (3) 53
  • (4) 62

Question 18:

For the expression \((1-x)^{100}\). Then sum of coefficient of first 50 terms is:

  • (1) \(^{99}C_{49}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{^{100}C_{50}}{2}\)
  • (3) \(-^{99}C_{49}\)
  • (4) \(-^{101}C_{50}\)

Question 19:

Let the plane P : 4x – y + z = 10 be rotated by an angle \(\frac{π}{2}\) about its line of intersection with the plane x + y – z = 4. If α is the distance of the point (2, 3, -4) from the new position of the plane P, then 35α is

  • (1) 85
  • (2) 90
  • (3) 105
  • (4) 126

Question 20:

Given A, B, C represents angles of a  ⃤ AB and cosA + 2 cosB + cosC = 2 and AB = 3 and BC = 7 then cosA – cosC is?

  • (1) \(-\frac{10}{7}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{10}{7}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{7}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{5}{7}\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

let Dk=\(\begin{vmatrix} 1 & 2k& 2k-1\\ n & n^2+n+2 & n^2\\ n & n^2+n & n^2+n+2 \end{vmatrix}\) if \(∑^n_{ k=1}\) Dk=96, Then n is equal to


Question 22:

Let the digits a, b, c be in A.P. Nine-digit numbers are to be formed using each of these three digits thrice such that three consecutive digits are in A.P. at least once. How many such numbers can be formed?


Question 23:

Two circles in the first quadrant of radii r1 and r2 touch the coordinate axes. Each of them cuts off an intercept of 2 units with the line x + y = 2. Then \(r^2_1+r_2^2– r_1r_2\) is equal to_____.


Question 24:

A fair n (n>1) faces die is rolled repeatedly until a number less than n appears. If the mean of the number of tosses required is \(\frac{n}{9}\), then n is equal to_____.


Question 25:

If \(∫^{0.15}_{-0.15 }|100x^2-1|dx=\frac{k}{3000,}\)  then k is equal to____.


Question 26:

The number of relations, on the set {1,2,3} containing (1,2) and (2,3), which are reflexive and transitive but not symmetric, is______


Question 27:

Let [x] be the greatest integer ≤ x. Then the number of points in the interval (-2,1), where the function f(x) = |[x] |+\(\sqrt{x -[x] }\)is discontinuous is _____.


Question 28:

Positive numbers a1, a2, .... a5 are in geometric progression. Their mean and variance are \(\frac{31}{10}\) and \(\frac{m}{n}\) respectively. The mean of the reciprocals is \(\frac{31}{40}\), then m + n is?

  • (1) 209
  • (2) 211
  • (3) 113
  • (4) 429

Question 29:

Let I(x) = \(∫√\frac{x+7}{x} dx\) and I (9) = 12 + 7 loge 7. If I (1) = α + 7 loge (1 + 2√2), then α4 is equal to_____.


Question 30:

Let the plane x + 3y – 2z + 6 = 0 meet the co-ordinate axes at the points A,B,C. If the orthocentre of the triangle ABC is \((α,β,\frac{6}{7}),\) then 98(α + β)2 is equal to___.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A particle is executing Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM). The ratio of potential energy and kinetic energy of the particle when its displacement is half of its amplitude will be

  • (1) 1:4
  • (2) 1:3
  • (3) 2:1
  • (4) 1:1

Question 32:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A truck and a car moving with same kinetic energy are brought to rest by applying brakes which provide equal retarding forces. Both come to rest in equal distance. 
Statement II : A car moving towards east takes a turn and moves towards north, the speed remains unchanged. The acceleration of the car is zero.  
In the light of given statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 33: Match List I with List II List I List II A. Spring constant I. (T-1) B. Angular speed II. (MT-2) C. Angular momentum III. (ML2) D. Moment of Inertia IV. (ML2T-1)
 List I   List II 
ASpring constant I(T-1) 
BAngular speedII (MT-2) 
CAngular momentumIII(ML2) 
DMoment of InertiaIV(ML2T-1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Question 34:

Given below are two statement : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.  
Assertion A : EM waves used for optical communication have longer wavelengths than that of microwave, employed in Radar technology.  
Reason R : Infrared EM waves are more energetic than microwaves, (used in Radar)  
In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:  

  • (1) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) A is false but R is true

Question 35:

The ratio of escape velocity of a planet to the escape velocity of earth will be:- Given: Mass of the planet is 16 times mass of earth and radius of the planet is 4 times the radius of earth.

  • (1) 2:1
  • (2) 1:√2
  • (3) 4:1
  • (4) 1:4

Question 36:

Suppose a situation in which two planets orbits around the sun in the same orbit. If the mass of plant 1 is twice the mass of planet 2, then what do they have same?

  • (1) Potential energy
  • (2) Kinetic energy
  • (3) Total energy
  • (4) Velocity

Question 37:

Three force F1 = 10N, F2 = 8 N, F3 = 6N are acting on a particle of mass 5 kg. The forces F2 and F3 are applied perpendicular so that particle remains at rest. If the force F1 is removed, then the acceleration of the particle is

  • (1) 2 ms-2
  • (2) 7 ms-2
  • (3) 4.8 ms-2
  • (4) 0.5 ms-2

Question 38:

An ice cube has a bubble inside. When viewed from one side the apparent distance of the bubble is 12 cm. when viewed from the opposite side, the apparent distance of the bubble is observed as 4 cm. If the side of the ice cube is 24 cm, the refractive index of the ice cube is

  • (1) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 39:

A proton and an α-particle are accelerated from rest by 2V and 4V potentials, respectively. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength is

  • (1) 2:1
  • (2) 4:1
  • (3) 8:1
  • (4) 16:1

Question 40:

Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.  
Assertion A : If an electric dipole of dipole moment 30 x 10-5 Cm is enclosed by a closed surface, the net flux coming out of the surface will by zero.
Reason R : Electric dipole consists of two equal and opposite charges. 
In the light of above, statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) A is false but R is true

Question 41:

Given below are two statements:  
Statement I : The diamagnetic property depends on temperature.  
Statement II : The included magnetic dipole moment in a diamagnetic sample is always opposite to the magnetizing field.  
In the light of given statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:  

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Question 42:

A wire of resistance 160 Ω is melted and drawn in wire of one-fourth of its length. The new resistance of the wire will be

  • (1) 10 Ω
  • (2) 16 Ω
  • (3) 40 Ω
  • (4) 640 Ω

Question 43:

A particle is thrown vertically upward with initial velocity of 150 m/s. Find the ratio of its speed at t = 3 seconds and t = 5 seconds. is \(\frac{x+1}{x}\) the value of x is___. (take g = 10 m/s2)

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 10
  • (4) -5

Question 44:

If the r.m.s speed of chlorine molecule is \(490\ \mathrm{m/s}\) at \(27^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\), the r.m.s speed of argon molecules at the same temperature will be (Atomic mass of argon \(= 39.9\ \mathrm{u}\), molecular mass of chlorine \(= 70.9\ \mathrm{u}\))

  • (1) \(451.7\ \mathrm{m/s}\)
  • (2) \(751.7\ \mathrm{m/s}\)
  • (3) \(551.7\ \mathrm{m/s}\)
  • (4) \(651.7\ \mathrm{m/s}\)

Question 45:

A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. The number of spectral lines emitted will be

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 46:

Given below are two statements :  
Statement I : When the frequency of an a.c. source in a series LCR circuit increases, the current in the circuit first increases, attains a maximum value and then decreases.  
Statement II : In a series LCR circuit, the value of power factor at resonance is one. 
In the light of given statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

Question 47:

In an n-p-n common emitter (CE) transistor the collector current changes from 5 mA to 16 mA for the change in base current from 100 μA and 200 μA, respectively. The current gain of transistor is______.

  • (1) 0.9
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 110
  • (4) 210

Question 48:

An engine operating between the boiling and freezing points of water will have 
A. efficiency more than 27%  
B. efficiency less than the efficiency a Carnot engine operating between the same two temperatures.  
C. efficiency equal to 27%  
D. efficiency less than 27% 

  • (1) B and C only
  • (2) B and D only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) B, C and D only

Question 49:

an body cools down from 80°C to 60°C in 5 minutes The temperature pf the surrounding is 20°C. The time taken to cool from 60°C to 40°C is

  • (1) \(\frac{25}{3}s\)
  • (2) 500 s
  • (3) 450 s
  • (4) 420 s

Question 50:

The amplitude of 15sin(1000πt) is modulated by 10sin(4πt) signal. The amplitude modulated signal contains frequency(ies) of
(A) 500 Hz 
(B) 2 Hz  
(C) 250 Hz  
(D) 498 Hz  
(E) 502 Hz 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

  • (1) A, D and E only
  • (2) A and B only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) A and D only

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

To maintain a speed of 80 km/h by a bus of mass 500 kg on a plane rough road for 4 km distance, the work done by the engine of the bus will be ____KJ. [The coefficient of friction between tyre of bus and road is 0.04].


Question 52:

64 identical balls made of conducting material each having a potential of 10 mV are joined to form a bigger ball. The potential of a bigger ball is?


Question 53:

For a rolling spherical shell, the ratio of rotational kinetic energy and total kinetic energy is \(\frac{x}{5}\). The value of x is____.


Question 54:

The current flowing through a conductor connected across a source is 2A and 1.2 A at 0°C and 100°C respectively. The current flowing through the conductor at 50°C will be ______x102 mA.


Question 55:

Glycerine of density 1.25 × 103 kg m-3 is flowing through the conical section of pipe. The area of cross-section of the pipe at its ends is 10 cm2 and 5 cm2 and pressure drop across its length is 3 Nm-2. The rate of flow of glycerine through the pipe is x x10-5 m3 s-1. The value of x is____.


Question 56:

Two convex lenses of focal length 20 cm each are placed coaxially with a separation of 60 cm between them. The image of the distant object formed by the combination is at cm from the first lens.


Question 57:

For a certain organ pipe, the first three resonance frequencies are in the ratio of 1:3:5 respectively. If the frequency of fifth harmonic is 405 Hz and the speed of sound in air is 324 ms-1 the length of the organ pipe is ___ m.


Question 58:

A common example of alpha decay is 
 

A common example of alpha decay is

Question 59:

A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. Somehow, the radus of the loop starts expanding at a constant rate of 1 mm/s. The magnitude of induced emf in the loop at an instant when the radius of the loop is 2 cm will be ___μV


Question 60:

A compass needle of oscillation magnetometer oscillates 20 times per minute at a place P of dip 30°. The number of oscillations per minute become 10 at another place Q of 60° dip. The ratio of the total magnetic field at the two places respectively is \(\frac{4}{√x}\) The value of x is 


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Boron is extremely hard indicating its high lattice energy 
Statement II: Boron has highest melting and boiling point compared to its other group members. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II is correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 62: Match List-I with List-II
 List-I-Complex  List-II-CFSE
A [Cu(NH3​)6​]2+I-0.6
B[Ti(H2​O)6​]3+II-2.0
C[Fe(CN)6​]3− III -1.2 
D [NiF6​]4-IV-0.4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 63:

2 hexne 03h20
The two products formed in above reaction are

  • (1) Butanoic acid and acetic acid
  • (2) Butanal and acetaldehyde
  • (3) Butanoic acid and acetaldehyde
  • (4) Butanal and acetic acid

Question 64:

The bond order and magnetic property of acetylide ion are same as that of

  • (1) \(O^+_2\)
  • (2) \(N^+_2\)
  • (3) \(NO^+\)
  • (4) \(O^-_2\)

Question 65:

A in the above reaction is: me ch3 OET  A major products
A in the above reaction is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 66:

Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: 5f electrons can participate in bonding to a far greater extent than 4f electrons 
Reason R: 5f orbitals are not as buried as 4f orbitals 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) A is false but R is true

Question 67:

A metal chloride contains 55.0% of chlorine by weight. 100 mL vapours of the metal chloride at STP weigh 0.57 g. The molecular formula of the metal chloride is (Given: Atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5u)

  • (1) MCL
  • (2) MCL2
  • (3) MCL3
  • (4) MCL4

Question 68:

Correct statements for the given reaction are:

A. Compound 'B' is aromatic 
B. The completion of above reaction is very slow 
C. 'A' shows tautomerism 
D. The bond lengths C-C in compound B are found to be same 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) A, B and C only
  • (2) B, C and D only
  • (3) A, C and D only
  • (4) A, B and D only

Question 69:

The incorrect statement regarding the reaction given below is
NaNO2 +HX-'B'

  • (1) The product 'B' formed in the above reaction is p-nitroso compound at low temperature.
  • (2) The reaction occurs at low temperature
  • (3) The electrophile involved in the reaction is NO+
  • (4) 'B' is N-nitroso ammonium compound

Question 70:

For lead storage battery pick the the correct statements.
A. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on anode is converted into PbO2 
B. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on cathode is converted into PbO2 
C. Lead storage battery, consists of grid of lead packed with PbO2 as anode 
D. Lead storage battery has ~ 38% solution of sulphuric acid as an electrolyte 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, D only
  • (2) B, D only
  • (3) B, C only
  • (4) B, C, D only

Question 71:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I: SbCI, is more covalent than SbCI3
Statement II: The higher oxides of halogens also tend to be more stable than the lower ones. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 

  • (1) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 72:

In the following reaction
In the following reaction A is
A is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 73:

The major products ‘P’ formed in the following sequence of reaction is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 74:

The density of the alkali metals is in the order:

  • (1) K<Na<Rb<Cs
  • (2) Na<K<Cs<Rb
  • (3) K<Cs<Na<Rb
  • (4) NavRb<K<Cs

Question 75:
Match List I with List II
 List I -Type of Hydride  List II-Example 
AElectron deficient hydrideIMgH2
BElectron rich hydrideIIHF
CElectron precise hydride IIIB2H6
DSaline hydrideIVCH4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 76:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: In the Ellingham diagram, a sharp change in slope of the line is observed for Mg → MgO at ~ 1120°C 
Reason R: There is a large change of entropy associated with the change of state. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) A is false but R is true

Question 77: Match List-I with List-II
 List-I  List-II
ANitrogen oxides in airIEutrophication
BMethane in airIIpH of rain water becomes 5.6
CCarbon dioxideIIIGlobal warming
D Phosphate fertilisers in waterIVAcid rain

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 78:

Four gases A, B, C and D have critical temperatures 5.3, 33.2, 126.0 and 154.3K respectively. For their adsorption on fixed amount of charcoal, the correct order is :

  • (1) D > C > B > A
  • (2) D > C > A > B
  • (3) C > D > B > A
  • (4) C > B > D > A

Question 79:
Match List I with List II
 List I-Examples  List II-Type
A2-Chloro-1, 3-butadiene INylon 2-nylon 6
BNylon 2-nylon 6IISynthetic Rubber
C PolyacrylonitrileIIIPolyester
D DacronIVAddition Polymer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Question 80:

Consider the following reaction sequence: \([CaCl_2 + Na_2CO_3 → X+Y] → Z\)

  • (1) X: CaCO3, Y: NaCI, Z: NCI
  • (2) X: CaO, Y: NaCI + CO2, Z: KCl
  • (3) X: CaO, Y: NaCI + CO2, Z: NaCI
  • (4) X: CaCO3, Y: NaCI, Z: KCI

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

In an oligopeptide named Alanylglycylphenyl alanyl isoleucine, the number of sp2 hybridised carbons is_____.


Question 82:

80 mole percent of MgCl2 is dissociated in aqueous solution. The vapour pressure of 1.0 molal aqueous solution of MgCl2 at 38°C is ____mm Hg. (Nearest integer)
Given : Vapour pressure of water at 38°C is 50 mm Hg.


Question 83:
Values of work function (Wo) for a few metals are given below
Metal LiNaKMgCuAg
 Wo/eV2.422.32.253.74.84.3

The number of metals which will show photoelectric effect when light of wavelength 400nm falls on it is____ 

Given: h = 6.6 × 10-34 J s 
c = 3 x 108 m s-1 
e = 1.6 x 10-19 C


Question 84:

Three organic compounds A, B and C were allowed to run in thin layer chromatography using hexane and gave the following result (see figure). The Rf value of the most polar compound is ____ x 10-2.


Question 85:

The value of x compound ‘D’ is
The value of x compound ‘D’ is  H5C2OCHNH4CLKCNH2SO4H


Question 86:

The mass of NH3 produced when 131.8 kg of cyclohexanecarbaldehyde undergoes Tollen's test is ___ kg. (Nearest Integer)
Molar Mass of C = 12g/mol 
N = 14g/mol 
0 = 16g/mol


Question 87:

The reaction 2NO + Br2 → 2NOBr 
takes places through the mechanism given below : 
NO + Br2 ⇔ NOBr2 (fast)  
NOBr2 + NO → 2NOBr (slow) 
The overall order of the reaction is_____.


Question 88:

pH of 1 litre of HCL solution is 1. How much water (in litres) is added to make pH=2?


Question 89:

One mole of an ideal gas at 350K is in a 2.0 L vessel of thermally conducting walls, which are in contact with the surroundings. It undergoes isothermal reversible expansion from 2.0L to 3.0L against a constant pressure of 4 atm. The change in entropy of the surroundings (ΔS) is JK (Nearest integer) Given: R = 8.314 J K-1 Mol-1.


Question 90:

At 600K, the root mean square (rms) speed of gas X (molar mass = 40) is equal to the most probable speed of gas Y at 90K. The molar mass of the gas Y is ____ g mol-1. (Nearest integer)

JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 12 April 2023 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key: Coaching Institute PDF

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JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis 12 April Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for the exam scheduled on 12 April Shift 1 is available here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam scheduled on 12 April Shift 1 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

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JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

JEE Main aspirants can practice and check their exam prep level by attempting the question papers from the January Session. The table below shows JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF for Session 1 to practice.

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