JEE Main 2023 Chemistry April 15 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here for download. Candidates can download official JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper PDF with Solution and Answer Key for April 15 Shift 1 using the link below. JEE Main Chemistry Question Paper is divided into two sections, Section A with 20 MCQs and Section B with 10 numerical type questions. Candidates are required to answer all questions from Section A and any 5 questions from section B.

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper April 15 Shift 1 PDF

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JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Apr 15 Shift 1- Download PDF

JEE Main 2023 April 15 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution PDF download iconDownload Check Solution

Question 1:

Which one of the following is not an example of calcination?

  • (1) \( CaCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaO + CO_2 \)
  • (2) \( 2PbS + 3O_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} 2PbO + 2SO_2 \)
  • (3) \( CaCO_3 \cdot MgCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaO + MgO + 2CO_2 \)
  • (4) \( Fe_2O_3 \cdot xH_2O \xrightarrow{\Delta} Fe_3O_4 + xH_2O \)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Calcination is a process in which an ore is heated to high temperature in the absence or limited supply of air. This leads to the decomposition of the ore, typically releasing volatile components such as water or carbon dioxide.


- In the reaction \( CaCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaO + CO_2 \), calcium carbonate is heated to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide, which is a classic example of calcination.

- In the reaction \( 2PbS + 3O_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} 2PbO + 2SO_2 \), lead sulfide is oxidized, which is an oxidation reaction, not calcination.

- The reaction \( CaCO_3 \cdot MgCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaO + MgO + 2CO_2 \) is a calcination reaction, as it involves heating the carbonate to produce oxides and release carbon dioxide.

- In the reaction \( Fe_2O_3 \cdot xH_2O \xrightarrow{\Delta} Fe_3O_4 + xH_2O \), water is driven off from iron ore, which is another example of calcination.


Thus, option (2) is not an example of calcination. Quick Tip: Calcination specifically refers to the thermal decomposition of an ore, often to remove water or carbon dioxide. Oxidation reactions like the one in option (2) are not classified as calcination.


Question 2:

During water-gas shift reaction

  • (1) Water is evaporated in presence of catalyst.
  • (2) Carbon monoxide is oxidized to carbon dioxide.
  • (3) Carbon is oxidized to carbon monoxide.
  • (4) Carbon dioxide is reduced to carbon monoxide.
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 3:

Consider the following sequence of reaction:



The product \( B \) is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 4:

Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R:

Assertion (A): \( BeCl_2 \) and \( MgCl_2 \) Produce characteristic flame

Reason (R): The excitation energy is high in \( BeCl_2 \) and \( MgCl_2 \)

In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) is False but (R) is true
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is true but (R) is false
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 5:

‘A’ formed in the above reaction is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 6:

For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to alumina is found to be

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4.5
  • (4) 1.5
Correct Answer: (3) 4.5
View Solution

Question 7:

Which of the following expressions is correct in case of a CaCl unit cell (edge length 'a')?

  • (1) \( r_{cs} + r_{cr} = \frac{a}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( r_{cs} + r_{cr} = a \)
  • (3) \( r_{cs} + r_{cr} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} a \)
  • (4) \( r_{cs} + r_{cr} = \frac{a}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 8:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: According to Bohr's model of hydrogen atom, the angular momentum of an electron in a given stationary state is quantised.

Statement II: The concept of electron in Bohr's orbit violates the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Correct Answer: (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
View Solution

Question 9:

In the above conversion the correct sequence of reagents to be added is:

  • (1) \( Br_2/Fe, \, (ii) Fe/H^{+}, \, (iii) KMnO_4, \, (iv) Cl_2 \)
  • (2) \( (i) Br_2/Fe, \, (ii) Fe/H^{+}, \, (iii) HONO, \, (iv) CuCl, \, (v) KMnO_4 \)
  • (3) \( (i) Fe/H^{+}, \, (ii) HONO, \, (iii) CuCl, \, (iv) KMnO_4, \, (v) Br_2 \)
  • (4) \( (i) KMnO_4, \, (ii) Br_2/Fe, \, (iii) Fe/H^{+}, \, (iv) Cl_2 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{(i) Br}_2/\text{Fe}, \, \text{(ii) Fe}/H^{+}, \, \text{(iii) HONO}, \, \text{(iv) CuCl}, \, \text{(v) KMnO}_4 \)
View Solution

Question 10:

The product formed in the following multistep reaction is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 11:

The possibility of photochemical smog formation will be minimum at:

  • (1) Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir in January
  • (2) New Delhi in August (Summer)
  • (3) Kolkata in October
  • (4) Mumbai in May
Correct Answer: (1) Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir in January
View Solution

Question 12:

Consider the following statements:

(A) NF\(_3\) molecule has a trigonal planar structure.

(B) Bond length of N\(_2\) is shorter than O\(_2\).

(C) Isoelectronic molecules or ions have identical bond order.

(D) Dipole moment of HS is higher than that of water molecule.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) are correct
  • (2) (C) and (D) are correct
  • (3) (B) and (C) are correct
  • (4) (A) and (D) are correct
Correct Answer: (3) (B) and (C) are correct
View Solution

Question 13:

The number of P–O–P bonds in H\(_4\)P\(_2\)O\(_7\), (HPO\(_3\))\(_3\), and P\(_4\)O\(_{10}\) are respectively:

  • (1) 1, 3, 6
  • (2) 0, 3, 6
  • (3) 0, 3, 4
  • (4) 1, 2, 4
Correct Answer: (1) 1, 3, 6
View Solution

Question 14:

Which is not true for arginine?

  • (1) It has high solubility in benzene
  • (2) It is associated with more than one pK\(_a\) values.
  • (3) It is a crystalline solid.
  • (4) It has a fairly high melting point.
Correct Answer: (1) It has high solubility in benzene.
View Solution

Question 15:

The complex with highest magnitude of crystal field splitting energy (\(\Delta_o\)) is

  • (1) [Mn(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
  • (2) [Fe(OH\(_2\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
  • (3) [Cr(OH\(_2\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
  • (4) [Ti(OH\(_2\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
Correct Answer: (3) [Cr(OH\(_2\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
View Solution

Question 16:

Which of the following statement is correct for paper chromatography?

  • (1) Water present in the pores of the paper forms the stationary phase.
  • (2) Water present in the mobile phase gets absorbed by the paper which then forms the stationary phase.
  • (3) Paper sheet forms the stationary phase.
  • (4) Paper and water present in its pores together form the stationary phase.
Correct Answer: (1) Water present in the pores of the paper forms the stationary phase.
View Solution

Question 17:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) The pH of 1 x 10\(^-8\) M HCl solution is 8

(B) The conjugate base of H\(_2\)PH\(_4^+\) is HPO\(_4^{2-}\)

(C) K\(_w\) increases with increase in temperature.

(D) When a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is titrated against a strong base at half neutralisation point, pH = \(\frac{1}{2}\) pK\(_a\).

  • (1) (A), (B), (C)
  • (2) (A), (D)
  • (3) (B), (C)
  • (4) (B), (C), (D)
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C), (D)
View Solution

Question 18:

The major product in the Friedel-Craft acylation of chlorobenzene is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 19:

Decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution for the following compounds is:

  • (1) \( a > d > e > b > c \)
  • (2) \( c > b > a > d > e \)
  • (3) \( e > d > a > b > c \)
  • (4) \( d > a > e > c > b \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( e > d > a > b > c \)
View Solution

Question 20:

Match List-I with List-II :






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
View Solution

Question 21:

The homoleptic and octahedral complex of \( Co^{2+} \) and \( H_2O \) has ____ unpaired electron(s) in the \( t_{2g} \) set of orbitals.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 22:

30.4 kJ of heat is required to melt one mole of sodium chloride and the entropy change at the melting point is 28.4 \( J K^{-1} mol^{-1} \) at 1 atm. The melting point of sodium chloride is ____ K. (Nearest Integer)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 23:

The total number of isoelectronic species from the given set is ___.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The given species are: \[ O^{2-}, \, F^-, \, Al^{3+}, \, Na^+, \, O^+, \, Mg, \, Al^{3+}, \, F. \]
The number of electrons in each species is as follows:

- \( O^{2-} \) has 10 electrons

- \( F^- \) has 10 electrons

- \( Al^{3+} \) has 10 electrons

- \( Na^+ \) has 10 electrons

- \( O^+ \) has 9 electrons

- \( Mg \) has 10 electrons

- \( Al^{3+} \) has 10 electrons

- \( F \) has 9 electrons


The isoelectronic species are those with the same number of electrons. The isoelectronic species in the set are:
- \( O^{2-} \), \( F^- \), \( Al^{3+} \), \( Na^+ \), \( Mg \), \( F \)


Therefore, the total number of isoelectronic species is 5. Quick Tip: Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons, but may differ in the number of protons.


Question 24:

For a reversible reaction \( A \rightleftharpoons B \), the \( \Delta H_{forward} = 20 \, kJ/mol \). The activation energy of the uncatalysed forward reaction is 300 kJ/mol. When the reaction is catalysed keeping the reactant concentration same, the rate of the catalysed forward reaction at 27°C is found to be same as that of the uncatalysed reaction at 327°C. The activation energy of the catalysed backward reaction is ____ kJ/mol.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 25:

The vapour pressure of 30% (w/v) aqueous solution of glucose is _____ mm Hg at 25°C.
[Given: The density of 30% (w/v), aqueous solutions of glucose is 1.2 g cm and vapour pressure of pure water is 24 mm Hg. ]

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 26:

In Chromyl chloride, the oxidation state of chromium is (+) ____.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 27:

The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO\textsubscript{3} required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present in 20 mL of 0.01 M solution of as silver chloride is ____.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 28:

20 mL of 0.5 M NaCl is required to coagulate 200 mL of As\textsubscript{2}S\textsubscript{3} solution in 2 hours. The coagulating value of NaCl is ___.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 29:

The total change in the oxidation state of manganese involved in the reaction of KMnO\textsubscript{4} and potassium iodide in the acidic medium is _____.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 30:

The number of correct statements from the following is \
_____.

(A) Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration for both strong and weak electrolysis.

(B) The number of ions per unit volume that carry current in a solution increases on dilution.

(C) Molar conductivity increases with decrease in concentration.

(D) The variation in molar conductivity is different for strong and weak electrolysis.

(E) For weak electrolysis, the change in molar conductivity with dilution is due to the decrease in degree of dissociation.

Correct Answer:
View Solution


JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Paper Analysis April 15 Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Paper Analysis for the exam scheduled on April 15 Shift 1 is available here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam scheduled on April 15 Shift 1 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Chemistry Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 20 MCQs + 10 Numerical Type Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 20 MCQs + 5 Numerical Type Questions
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Also Check:

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper