JEE Main 2022 June 24 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the second shift on June 24, 2022, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2022 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, any 5 to be attempted, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2022 June 24 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2022 June 24 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let \(x * y\) = \(x^2 + y^3\) and \((x * 1) * 1\) = \(x * (1 * 1)\). Then a value of \(2 sin^{-1}\bigg(\frac{x^4+x^2-2}{x^4+x^2+2}\bigg)\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{π}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{π}{6}\)

Question 2:

The sum of all the real roots of the equation \((e^{2x} – 4)(6e^{2x} – 5e^x + 1) = 0\) is

  • (1) \(log\;e^3\)
  • (2) \(–log\;e^3\)
  • (3) \(log\;e^6\)
  • (4) \(–log\;e^6\)

Question 3:

Let the system of linear equations
x + y + az = 2
3x + y + z = 4
x + 2z = 1
have a unique solution (x*, y*, z*). If (α, x*), (y*, α) and (x*, –y*) are collinear points, then the sum of absolute values of all possible values of α is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 1

Question 4:

Let \(x, y > 0\). If \(x^3y^2 = 2^{15}\), then the least value of \(3x + 2y\) is

  • (1) 30
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 36
  • (4) 40

Question 5:

\(f(x) =   \begin{cases}     \frac{sin(x-|x|)}{x-|x|}       & \quad {x \in(-2,-1) } \\     max{2x,3[|x|]},  & \quad \text{|x|<1}\\1 & \quad \text{,otherwise}  \end{cases}\) Where [t] denotes greatest integer t. If m is the number of points where f is not continuous and n is the number of points where f is not differentiable, then the ordered pair (m, n) is

  • (1) (3, 3)
  • (2) (2, 4)
  • (3) (2, 3)
  • (4) (3, 4)

Question 6:

The value of the integral \(∫^{ \frac{π}{2}}_{ \frac{-π}{2}} \frac{dx}{(1+e^x)(sin^6x+cos^6x)}\)  is equal to

  • (1) \(2π\)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(π\)
  • (4) \(\frac{π}{2}\)

Question 7:

A particle is moving in the xy-plane along a curve C passing through the point (3, 3). The tangent to the curve C at the point P meets the x-axis at Q. If the y-axis bisects the segment PQ, then C is a parabola with

  • (1) Length of latus rectum 3
  • (2) Length of latus rectum 6
  • (3) \(Focus \bigg(\frac{4}{3},0\bigg)\)
  • (4) \(Focus \bigg(0,\frac{3}{4}\bigg)\)

Question 8:

Let the maximum area of the triangle that can be inscribed in the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{4} = 1, a>2\), having one of its vertices at one end of the major axis of the ellipse and one of its sides parallel to the \(y\)-axis, be \(6\sqrt3\). Then the eccentricity of the ellipse is

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt3}{4}\)

Question 9:

Let the area of the triangle with vertices \(A(1, α), B(α, 0)\) and \(C(0, α)\) be \(4\) sq. units. If the points \((α, –α), (–α, α)\) and \((α^2, β)\) are collinear, then \(β\) is equal to

  • (1) 64
  • (2) -8
  • (3) -64
  • (4) 512

Question 10:

The number of distinct real roots of the equation \(x^7 – 7x – 2 = 0\) is

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 3

Question 11:
A random variable \(X\) has the following probability distribution : 
x01234
P(x)k2k4k6k8k

The value of \(P(1 < X < 4 | x ≤ 2)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Question 12:

If the shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y-2}{3} = \frac{z-3}{λ}\; and\; \frac{x-2}{1 }= \frac{y-4}{4 }= \frac{z-5}{5 }\;is\; \frac{1}{\sqrt3}\), then the sum of all possible values of \(λ\) is :

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 15

Question 13:

Let \(\hat a\) and \(\hat b\) be two unit vectors such that \(| (a+b)+2(a × b)|\) =\( 2\). If \(θ ∈ (0, π)\) is the angle between a and b, then among the statements: \((S1)\): \(2|a×b|=|a-b|\) \((S2)\): The projection of a on \((\hat a+\hat b)\) is \(\frac{1}{2}\)

  • (1) Only (S1) is true
  • (2) Only (S2) is true
  • (3) Both (S1) and (S2) are true
  • (4) Both (S1) and (S2) are false

Question 14:

\(y=tan^{-1}(sec \;x^3 - tan\; x^3), \frac{π}{2} < x^3< \frac{3π}{2},\) then

  • (1) \(xy′′ + 2y′ = 0\)
  • (2) \(x^2y''-6y+\frac{3π}{2}\)
  • (3) \(x^2y″ – 6y + 3π = 0\)
  • (4) \(xy″ – 4y′ = 0\)

Question 15:

Let \(λ^*\) be the largest value of \(λ\) for which the function \(f_λ(x) = 4λx^3 – 36λx^2 + 36x + 48\) is increasing for all \(x ∈ ℝ\). Then \(f_λ^* (1) + f_λ^* (– 1)\) is equal to :

  • (1) 36
  • (2) 48
  • (3) 64
  • (4) 72

Question 16:

\(lim _{ n → ∞}\bigg (\frac{n^2}{(n^2+1)(n+1)}+\frac{n^2}{(n^2+4)(n+2)}+\frac{n^2}{(n2+9)(n+3)}.....+ \frac{n^2}{(n^2+n^2)(n+n)}\bigg)\)is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{π}{8}+\frac{1}{4} \;log_e2\)
  • (2) \(\frac{π}{4}+\frac{1}{8}\; log_e2\)
  • (3) \(\frac{π}{4}-\frac{1}{8}\; log_e2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{π}{8}+\frac{1}{8}\; log_e\sqrt2\)

Question 17:

The number of solutions of the equation \(cos \bigg(x+\frac{π}{3}\bigg)cos\bigg(\frac{π}{3-x}\bigg)=\frac{1}{4}cos^22x,x ∈ [-3π, 3π]\) is:

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 7

Question 18:

Let the points on the plane P be equidistant from the points (–4, 2, 1) and (2, –2, 3). Then the acute angle between the plane P and the plane 2x + y + 3z = 1 is

  • (1) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5π}{12}\)

Question 19:

Consider the following statements:
A : Rishi is a judge.
B : Rishi is honest.
C : Rishi is not arrogant.
The negation of the statement “if Rishi is a judge and he is not arrogant, then he is honest” is

  • (1) B → (A ∨ C)
  • (2) (~ B) ∧ (A ∧ C)
  • (3) B → ((~ A) ∨ (~ C))
  • (4) B → (A ∧ C)

Question 20:

The slope of normal at any point \((x, y), x > 0, y > 0\) on the curve \(y = y(x)\) is given by \(\frac{x^2}{xy-x^2y2^-1}\) If the curve passes through the point (1, 1), then \(e · y(e)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{1-tan(1)}{1+tan(1)}\)
  • (2) \(tan(1)\)
  • (3) \(1\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1+tan(1)}{1-tan(1)}\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \(S = z ∈ C: |z-3| <= 1\) and \(z (4+3i)+z(4-3)≤24.\)
If α + iβ is the point in S which is closest to 4i, then 25(α + β) is equal to ______.


Question 22:

Let \(S ={  (\begin{matrix}   -1 & 0 \\   a & b \end{matrix}), a,b, ∈(1,2,3,.....100)}\) and 
let \(T_n = {A ∈ S : A^{n(n + 1)} = I}. \)
Then the number of elements in \(\bigcap_{n=1}^{100}\) \(T_n \) is


Question 23:

The number of 7-digit numbers which are multiples of 11 and are formed using all the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7 and 9 is _____.


Question 24:

The sum of all the elements of the set {α ∈ {1, 2, …, 100} : HCF(α, 24) = 1} is


Question 25:

The remainder on dividing 1 + 3 + 32 + 33 + … + 32021 by 50 ____ is


Question 26:

The area (in sq. units) of the region enclosed between the parabola y2 = 2x and the line x + y = 4 is _______.


Question 27:

Let a circle C : (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2, k > 0, touch the x-axis at (1, 0). If the line x + y = 0 intersects the circle C at P and Q such that the length of the chord PQ is 2, then the value of h + k + r is equal to ____.


Question 28:

Let the hyperbola 
\(H:\frac{x^2}{a^2}−y^2=1\)
and the ellipse
 \(E:3x^2+4y^2=12\) 
be such that the length of latus rectum of H is equal to the length of latus rectum of E. If eH and eE are the eccentricities of H and E respectively, then the value of 
\(12 (e^{2}_H+e^{2}_E)\) is equal to _____ .


Question 29:

Let P1 be a parabola with vertex (3, 2) and focus (4, 4) and P2 be its mirror image with respect to the line x + 2y = 6. Then the directrix of P2 is x + 2y = _______.


Question 30:

In an examination, there are 10 true-false type questions. Out of 10, a student can guess the answer of 4 questions correctly with probability 3/4 and the remaining 6 questions correctly with probability ¼. If the probability that the student guesses the answers of exactly 8 questions correctly out of 10 is \(\frac{27k}{4^{10}}\),then k is equal to


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

Identify the pair of physical quantities that have same dimensions :

  • (1) velocity gradient and decay constant
  • (2) wien’s constant and Stefan constant
  • (3) angular frequency and angular momentum
  • (4) wave number and Avogadro number

Question 32:

The distance between Sun and Earth is R. The duration of year if the distance between Sun and Earth becomes 3R will be :

  • (1) \(\sqrt3\) years
  • (2) 3 years
  • (3) 9 years
  • (4) 3\(\sqrt3\) years

Question 33:

A stone of mass m tied to a string is being whirled in a vertical circle with a uniform speed. The tension in the string is

  • (1) the same throughout the motion.
  • (2) minimum at the highest position of the circular path.
  • (3) minimum at the lowest position of the circular path.
  • (4) minimum when the rope is in the horizontal position.

Question 34:

Two identical charged particles each having a mass 10 g and charge \(2.0 × 10^{–7}\) C are placed on a horizontal table with a separation of L between them such that they stay in limited equilibrium. If the coefficient of friction between each particle and the table is \(0.25\), find the value of L. [Use g = \(10\) \(ms^{–2}\)]

  • (1) 12 cm
  • (2) 10 cm
  • (3) 8 cm
  • (4) 5 cm

Question 35:

Two massless springs with spring constant 2 k and 9 k, carry 50 g and 100 g masses at their free ends. These two masses oscillate vertically such that their maximum velocities are equal. Then, the ratio of their respective amplitude will be

  • (1) 1 : 2
  • (2) 3 : 2
  • (3) 3 : 1
  • (4) 2 : 3

Question 36:

What will be the most suitable combination of three resistors A = 2 Ω, B = 4 Ω, C = 6 Ω so that \((22/3)\) Ω is equivalent resistance of combination?

  • (1) Parallel combination of A and C connected in series with B.
  • (2) Parallel combination of A and B connected in series with C
  • (3) Series combination of A and C connected in parallel with B.
  • (4) Series combination of B and C connected in parallel with A.

Question 37:

The soft-iron is a suitable material for making an electromagnet. This is because soft-iron has

  • (1) Low coercivity and high retentivity
  • (2) Low coercivity and low permeability
  • (3) High permeability and low retentivity
  • (4) High permeability and high retentivity

Question 38:

A proton, a deuteron and an α-particle with same kinetic energy enter into a uniform magnetic field at right angle to magnetic field. The ratio of the radii of their respective circular paths is :

  • (1) \(1 : \sqrt2 : \sqrt2\)
  • (2) \(1 : 1 : \sqrt2\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt2 : 1 : 1\)
  • (4) \(1 : \sqrt2 : 1\)

Question 39:

Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : The reactance of an ac circuit is zero. It is possible that the circuit contains a capacitor and an inductor.
Statement-II : In ac circuit, the average power delivered by the source never becomes zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 40:

Potential energy as a function of r is given by \(U = \frac{A}{r^{10}}-\frac{B}{r^5}\), where \(r\) is the interatomic distance, A and B are positive constants. The equilibrium distance between the two atoms will be:

  • (1) \((\frac{A}{B})^{\frac{1}{5}}\)
  • (2) \((\frac{B}{A})^{\frac{1}{5}}\)
  • (3) \((\frac{2A}{B})^{\frac{1}{5}}\)
  • (4) \((\frac{2B}{A})^{\frac{1}{5}}\)

Question 41:

An object of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. The air resistance produces a constant retarding force of 10 N throughout the motion. The ratio of time of ascent to the time of descent will be equal to [Use \(g\) = \(10 \;ms^{–2}\)].

  • (1) 1 : 1
  • (2) \(\sqrt2 : \sqrt3\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt3 : \sqrt2\)
  • (4) 2 : 3

Question 42:

A fly wheel is accelerated uniformly from rest and rotates through 5 rad in the first second. The angle rotated by the fly wheel in the next second, will be:

  • (1) 7.5 rad
  • (2) 15 rad
  • (3) 20 rad
  • (4) 30 rad

Question 43:

A 100 g of iron nail is hit by a \(1.5\) \(kg\) hammer striking at a velocity of \(60 \;ms^{–1}\). What will be the rise in the temperature of the nail if one fourth of energy of the hammer goes into heating the nail?
[Specific heat capacity of iron = \(0.42\; Jg^{–1} °C^{–1}\)]

  • (1) 675°C
  • (2) 1600°C
  • (3) 16.07°C
  • (4) 6.75°C

Question 44:

If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 C, the energy stored in it increases by 44%. The original charge on the capacitor is (in C)

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 40

Question 45:

A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly distributed charge of density ρ. The radius of cylindrical volume is R. A charge particle (q) revolves around the cylinder in a circular path. The kinetic energy of the particle is:

  • (1) \(\frac{ρqR^2}{4∈_0}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{ρqR^2}{2∈_0}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{qρ}{4∈_0R^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4∈_0R^2}{qρ}\)

Question 46:

An electric bulb is rated as 200 W. What will be the peak magnetic field at 4 m distance produced by the radiations coming from this bulb? Consider this bulb as a point source with 3.5% efficiency.

  • (1) \(1.19 × 10^{–8}\;T\)
  • (2) \(1.71 × 10^{–8}\;T\)
  • (3) \(0.84 × 10^{–8}\;T\)
  • (4) \(3.36 × 10^{–8}\;T\)

Question 47:

The light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 3.8 eV and 1.4 eV respectively, illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.6 eV successively. The ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons for the two frequencies respectively will be

  • (1) 1 : 1
  • (2) 2 : 1
  • (3) 4 : 1
  • (4) 1 : 4

Question 48:

Two light beams of intensities in the ratio of 9 : 4 are allowed to interfere. The ratio of the intensity of maxima and minima will be:

  • (1) 2 : 3
  • (2) 16 : 81
  • (3) 25 : 169
  • (4) 25 : 1

Question 49:

In Bohr’s atomic model of hydrogen, let K, P and E are the kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy of the electron respectively. Choose the correct option when the electron undergoes transitions to a higher level:

  • (1) All K, P and E increase
  • (2) K decreases, P and E increase
  • (3) P decreases, K and E increase
  • (4) K increases, P and E decrease

Question 50:

A Carnot engine takes 5000 kcal of heat from a reservoir at 727°C and gives heat to a sink at 127°C. The work done by the engine is

  • (1) \(3 × 10^6\) J
  • (2) Zero
  • (3) \(12.6 × 10^6\) J
  • (4) \(8.4 × 10^6\) J

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A body is projected from the ground at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Its velocity after \(2\) \(s\) is \(20\) \(ms^{–1}\). The maximum height reached by the body during its motion is ________ m. (use \(g\) = \(10\) \(ms^{–2}\))


Question 52:

Two travelling waves of equal amplitudes and equal frequencies move in opposite directions along a string. They interfere to produce a stationary wave whose equation is given by \(y = (10 cos \ \pi x\ sin \frac {2\pi t}{T})\) cm. The amplitude of the particle at \(x = \frac 43\) cm will be _______ cm.


Question 53:

In the given circuit, the value of current \(I_L\) will be __________ mA. (When \(R_L = 1\ kΩ\))


Question 54:

A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence \(60º\) on the glass slab of refractive index \(\sqrt 3.\) After refraction, the light ray emerges out from other parallel faces and lateral shift between incident ray and emergent ray is \(4\sqrt 3.\) cm. The thickness of the glass slab is ______ cm.


Question 55:

A circular coil of \(1000\) turns each with area \(1\ m^2\) is rotated about its vertical diameter at the rate of one revolution per second in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of \(0.07\ T\). The maximum voltage generation will be _____ V.


Question 56:

A monoatomic gas performs a work of \(\frac Q4\) where \(Q\) is the heat supplied to it. The molar heat capacity of the gas will be ____ \(R\) during this transformation. Where \(R\) is the gas constant.


Question 57:

An antenna is placed in a dielectric medium of dielectric constant \(6.25\). If the maximum size of that antenna is \(5.0\) \(mm\), it can radiate a signal of minimum frequency of __________GHz. (Given \(μr\) = \(1\) for dielectric medium)


Question 58:

A potentiometer wire of length 10 m and resistance 20 Ω is connected in series with a 25 V battery and an external resistance 30 Ω. A cell of emf E in secondary circuit is balanced by 250 cm long potentiometer wire. The value of E (in volt) is \(\frac {x}{10}\). The value of \(x\) is ______.


Question 59:

A sample contains \(10^{–2}\) kg each of two substances A and B with half lives 4 s and 8 s respectively. The ratio of their atomic weights is 1 : 2. The ratio of the amounts of A and B after 16 s is \(\frac {x}{100}\). The value of \(x\) is ______.


Question 60:

In an experiment to verify Newton’s law of cooling, a graph is plotted between, the temperature difference (ΔT) of the water and surroundings and time as shown in figure. The initial temperature of water is taken as 80ºC. The value of \(t_2\) as mentioned in the graph will be ______.


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

\(120 \;g\) of an organic compound that contains only carbon and hydrogen gives \(330\) \(g\) of \(CO_2\) and \(270\) \(g\) of water on complete combustion. The percentage of carbon and hydrogen, respectively are

  • (1) 25 and 75
  • (2) 40 and 60
  • (3) 60 and 40
  • (4) 75 and 25

Question 62:

The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of wavelength \(300\) \(nm\) is (Given \(h\) = \(6.63 × 10^{–34}\)Js, \(N_A\) = \(6.02 × 10^{23}\) \(mol^{–1}\), \(c = 3 × 10^8\) \(ms^{–1}\))

  • (1) 235 kJ \(mol^{–1}\)
  • (2) 325 kJ \(mol^{–1}\)
  • (3) 399 kJ \(mol^{–1}\)
  • (4) 435 kJ \(mol^{–1}\)

Question 63:

The correct order of bond orders of \(C_2^{2-}, N_2^{2-}, O_2^{2-}\) is, respectively

  • (1) \(C_2^{2-}< N_2^{2-}< O_2^{2-}\)
  • (2) \(O_2^{2-}< N_2^{2-}< C_2^{2-}\)
  • (3) \(C_2^{2-}< O_2^{2-}< N_2^{2-}\)
  • (4) \(N_2^{2-}< C_2^{2-}< O_2^{2-}\)

Question 64:
At 25°C and 1 atm pressure,the enthalpies of combustion are as given below:
\(Substance\)\(H_2\)\(C(graphite)\)\(C_2H_6(g)\)
\(\frac{D_cH^{\theta}}{kJmol^{-1}}\)\(-286.0\)\(-394.0\)-1560.0

The enthalpy of formation of ethane is

  • (1) +54.0 kJ \(mol^{–1}\)
  • (2) –68.0 kJ \(mol^{–1}\)
  • (3) –86.0 kJ \(mol^{–1}\)
  • (4) +97.0 kJ \(mol^{–1}\)

Question 65:

For a first order reaction, the time required for completion of 90% reaction is ‘x’ times the half life of the reaction. The value of ‘x’ is (Given: In 10 = 2.303 and log 2 = 0.3010)

  • (1) 1.12
  • (2) 2.43
  • (3) 3.32
  • (4) 33.31

Question 66:

Metals generally melt at very high temperature. Amongst the following, the metal with the highest melting point will be

  • (1) Hg
  • (2) Ag
  • (3) Ga
  • (4) Cs

Question 67:

\(PCl_5\) is well known, but \(NCl_5\) is not. Because,

  • (1) nitrogen is less reactive than phosphorous
  • (2) nitrogen doesn’t have d-orbitals in its valence shell.
  • (3) catenation tendency is weaker in nitrogen than phosphorous.
  • (4) size of phosphorous is larger than nitrogen

Question 68:

Transition metal complex with highest value of crystal field splitting \((Δ_0)\) will be

  • (1) \([Cr(H_2O)_6]3^+\)
  • (2) \([Mo(H_2O)_6]3^+\)
  • (3) \([Fe(H_2O)_6]3^+\)
  • (4) \([Os(H_2O)_6]3^+\)

Question 69:

Arrange the following carbocations in decreasing order of stability.
carbocations

  • (1) A > C > B
  • (2) A > B > C
  • (3) B > A > C
  • (4) C > A > B

Question 70:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I: The presence of weaker π-bonds make alkenes less stable than alkanes.
Statement II: The strength of the double bond is greater than that of carbon-carbon single bond.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Question 71:

Which of the following reagents/reactions will convert ‘A’ to ‘B’?
 reagents/reactions

  • (1) PCC oxidation
  • (2) Ozonolysis
  • (3) \(BH_3\), \(H_2O_2\)/\(–OH\) followed by PCC oxidation
  • (4) HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by \(K_2Cr_2O_7\).

Question 72:

Hex-4-ene-2-ol on treatment with PCC gives ‘A’ on reaction with sodium hypoiodite gives ‘B’, which on further heating with soda lime gives ‘C’. The compound ‘C’ is

  • (1) 2-pentene
  • (2) Proponaldehyde
  • (3) 2-butene
  • (4) 4-methylpent-2-ene

Question 73:

The conversion of \(propan-1-ol\) to \(n-butylamine\) involves the sequential addition of reagents. The correct sequential order of reagents is

  • (1) \((i) SOCl_2 (ii) KCN (iii) H_2/Ni, Na(Hg)/C_2H_5OH\)
  • (2) \((i) HCl (ii) H_2/Ni, Na(Hg)/C_2H_5OH\)
  • (3) \((i) SOCl_2 (ii) KCN (iii) CH_3NH_2\)
  • (4) \((i) HCl (ii) CH_3NH_2\)

Question 74:

In the flame test of a mixture of salts, a green flame with blue centre was observed. Which one of the following cations may be present?

  • (1) \(Cu^{2+}\)
  • (2) \(Sr^{2+}\)
  • (3) \(Ba^{2+}\)
  • (4) \(Ca^{2+}\)

Question 75:

Which of the following chemical reactions represents Hall-Heroult Process?

  • (1) \(Cr_2O_3 + 2Al → Al_2O_3 + 2Cr\)
  • (2) \(2Al_2O_3 + 3C → 4Al + 3CO_2\)
  • (3) \(FeO + CO → Fe + CO_2\)
  • (4) \([2Au(CN)_2]-_{aq}+Zn(s)→ 2Au(s) + [Zn(CN_4)]^{2-}\)

Question 76:

In the industrial production of which of the following, molecular hydrogen is obtained as a byproduct?

  • (1) NaOH
  • (2) NaCl
  • (3) Na metal
  • (4) \(Na_2CO_3\)

Question 77:

Which one of the following compounds is used as a chemical in certain type of fire extinguishers?

  • (1) Baking soda
  • (2) Soda ash
  • (3) Washing soda
  • (4) Caustic Soda

Question 78:

Some gases are responsible for heating of atmosphere (green house effect). Identify from the following the gaseous species which does not cause it.

  • (1) \(CH_4\)
  • (2) \(O_3\)
  • (3) \(H_2O\)
  • (4) \(N_2\)

Question 79:

Which of the following is not an example of a condensation polymer?

  • (1) Nylon 6,6
  • (2) Dacron
  • (3) Buna-N
  • (4) Silicone

Question 80:

The structure shown below is of which well-known drug molecule?
drug molecule

  • (1) Ranitidine
  • (2) Seldane
  • (3) Cimetidine
  • (4) Codeine

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

A company dissolves \(‘X’\) amount of \(CO_2\) at \(298\ K\) in \(1\) litre of water to prepare soda water. \(X\) = _____ \(× 10^{–3}\) g. (nearest integer)
(Given: partial pressure of \(CO_2\) at \(298\ K = 0.835\) bar. Henry’s law constant for \(CO_2\) at \(298\ K = 1.67\) Kbar. Atomic mass of \(H\), \(C\) and \(O\) is \(1\), \(12\), and \(6\) g mol–1, respectively)


Question 82:

\(PCl_5\) dissociates as
\(PCl_5(g) ⇌ PCl_3(g)+ Cl_2(g)\)
\(5\) moles of \(PCl_5\) are placed in a \(200\) litre vessel which contains \(2\) moles of \(N_2\) and is maintained at \(600\ K\). The equilibrium pressure is \(2.46\) atm. The equilibrium constant Kp for the dissociation of \(PCl_5\) is ______ \(× 10^{–3}\). (nearest integer) 
(Given: \(R = 0.082\) L atm K–1 mol–1; Assume ideal gas behaviour)


Question 83:

The resistance of a conductivity cell containing \(0.01\) M KCl solution at \(298\ K\) is \(1750\ Ω\). If the conductivity of \(0.01\) M KCl solution at \(298\ K\) is \(0.152×10^{–3}\) S cm–1, then the cell constant of the conductivity cell is ______ \(×10^{–3}\) cm–1.


Question 84:

Manganese (VI) has ability to disproportionate in acidic solution. The difference in oxidation states of two ions it forms in acidic solution is _____.


Question 85:

0.2 g of an organic compound was subjected to estimation of nitrogen by Duma’s method in which volume of N2 evolved (at STP) was found to be 22.400 mL. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is _____. [nearest integer] 
(Given : Molar mass of N2 is 28 g mol–1, Molar volume of N2 at STP : 22.4L)


Question 86:
Fig. Reaction

Consider the above reaction. The number of π electrons present in the product ‘P’ is _____ .


Question 87:

In alanylglycylleucylalanyvaline, the number of peptide linkages is__,


Question 88:

At 300 K, a sample of 3.0 g of gas A occupies the same volume as 0.2 g of hydrogen at 200 K at the same pressure. The molar mass of gas A is _____ g mol–1. (nearest integer)
Assume that the behaviour of gases as ideal.
(Given: The molar mass of hydrogen (H2) gas is 2.0 g mol–1).


Question 89:

When 200 mL of 0.2 M acetic acid is shaken with 0.6 g of wood charcoal, the final concentration of acetic acid after adsorption is 0.1 M. The mass of acetic acid adsorbed per gram of carbon is _____ g.


Question 90:

(a) Baryte,
(b) Galena, 
(c) Zinc blende and 
(d) Copper pyrites. 
How many of these minerals are sulphide based?

JEE Main 2022 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions (75 to be attempted)
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions

JEE Main 2022 June 24 Shift 2 Difficulty Level

As per the students’ initial reaction, JEE Main 2022 Question Paper for June 24- Shift 2 was reported as moderate. The Mathematics section in JEE Main 2022 June 24- Shift 2 Question Paper was reported as difficult and lengthy, Physics as easy to moderate and Chemistry as easy.

JEE Main 2022 June 24 Shift 2 Subject-wise Memory-Based Solutions PDF

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JEE Main 2022 B.E/ B. Tech Other Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

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