JEE Main 3 April Shift 2 Question Paper (Available) - Download Solutions and Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - May 16, 2025

JEE Main 3 April Shift 2 Question Paper is available here for free download. JEE Main April 3 Shift 2 Exam was scheduled from 9:00 am to 12:00 pm. Students who are appearing for JEE Main upcoming shifts can check the JEE Main April 3 Shift 2 Question Paper Pdf to understand the difficulty level of the exam.

JEE Main April 3 Shift 2 was conducted by NTA in CBT mode. JEE Main B.E /B.Tech exam includes- Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. In JEE Main April 3 Shift 2 students are required to attempt 75 questions following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones. You can find JEE Main April 3 Shift 2 Answer key here.

The Memory-Based Question Paper for JEE Main April 3 Shift 2 for B.E/B. Tech Paper is available for download. 

JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions

JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 2 Question Paper Pdf Download PDF View Solution

JEE Main 2025 Question Paper April 3 Shift 2

Question 1:

Let \( f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) be a function defined by \( f(x) = ||x+2| - 2|x|| \). If m is the number of points of local maxima of f and n is the number of points of local minima of f, then m + n is

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 2:

Each of the angles \( \beta \) and \( \gamma \) that a given line makes with the positive y- and z-axes, respectively, is half the angle that this line makes with the positive x-axis. Then the sum of all possible values of the angle \( \beta \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \pi \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3\pi}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 3:

If the four distinct points \( (4, 6) \), \( (-1, 5) \), \( (0, 0) \) and \( (k, 3k) \) lie on a circle of radius \( r \), then \( 10k + r^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 33
  • (3) 34
  • (4) 35
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 4:

Let the Mean and Variance of five observations \( x_i \), \( i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 \) be 5 and 10 respectively. If three observations are \( x_1 = 1, x_2 = 3, x_3 = a \) and \( x_4 = 7, x_5 = b \) with \( a > b \), then the Variance of the observations \( n + x_n \) for \( n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 \) is

  • (1) 17
  • (2) 16.4
  • (3) 17.4
  • (4) 16
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 5:

Consider the lines \( x(3\lambda + 1) + y(7\lambda + 2) = 17\lambda + 5 \). If P is the point through which all these lines pass and the distance of L from the point \( Q(3, 6) \) is \( d \), then the distance of L from the point \( (3, 6) \) is \( d \), then the value of \( d^2 \) is

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 15
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 6:

Let \( A = \{-2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3\} \). Let \( R \) be a relation on \( A \) defined by \( (x, y) \in R \) if and only if \( |x| \le |y| \). Let \( m \) be the number of reflexive elements in \( R \) and \( n \) be the minimum number of elements required to be added in \( R \) to make it reflexive and symmetric relations, respectively. Then \( l + m + n \) is equal to

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 14
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 7:

Let the equation \( x(x+2) * (12-k) = 2 \) have equal roots. The distance of the point \( \left(k, \frac{k}{2}\right) \) from the line \( 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 \) is

  • (1) 15
  • (2) \( 5\sqrt{5} \)
  • (3) \( 15\sqrt{5} \)
  • (4) 12
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 8:

Line L1 of slope 2 and line L2 of slope \( \frac{1}{2} \) intersect at the origin O. In the first quadrant, \( P_1, P_2, \dots, P_{12} \) are 12 points on line L1 and \( Q_1, Q_2, \dots, Q_9 \) are 9 points on line L2. Then the total number of triangles that can be formed having vertices at three of the 22 points O, \( P_1, P_2, \dots, P_{12} \), \( Q_1, Q_2, \dots, Q_9 \), is:

  • (A) 1080
  • (B) 1134
  • (C) 1026
  • (D) 1188
Correct Answer: (B) 1134
View Solution

Question 9:

The integral \( \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{8x dx}{4 \cos^2 x + \sin^2 x} \) is equal to

  • (A) \( 2\pi^2 \)
  • (B) \( 4\pi^2 \)
  • (C) \( \pi^2 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3\pi^2}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 2\pi^2 \)
View Solution

Question 10:

Let \( f \) be a function such that \( f(x) + 3f\left(\frac{24}{x}\right) = 4x \), \( x \neq 0 \). Then \( f(3) + f(8) \) is equal to

  • (A) 11
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 13
Correct Answer: (A) 11
View Solution

Question 11:

The area of the region \( \{(x, y): |x - y| \le y \le 4\sqrt{x}\} \) is

  • (A) 512
  • (B) \( \frac{1024}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{512}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2048}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \frac{1024}{3} \)
View Solution

Question 12:

If the domain of the function \( f(x) = \log_7(1 - \log_4(x^2 - 9x + 18)) \) is \( (\alpha, \beta) \cup (\gamma, \delta) \), then \( \alpha + \beta + \gamma + \delta \) is equal to

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 17
  • (A) The argument of the outer logarithm must be positive: \[ 1 - \log_4(x^2 - 9x + 18) > 0 \] \[ 1 > \log_4(x^2 - 9x + 18) \] \[ 4^1 > x^2 - 9x + 18 \] \[ 4 > x^2 - 9x + 18 \] \[ 0 > x^2 - 9x + 14 \] \[ x^2 - 9x + 14 < 0 \] Factoring the quadratic: \[ (x - 2)(x - 7) < 0 \] This inequality holds for \( 2 < x < 7 \). So, \( x \in (2, 7) \). \quad ...(2)
Correct Answer: (A) 18
View Solution

Question 13:

If the probability that the random variable X takes the value x is given by \( P(X = x) = k(x + 1)3^{-x} \), \( x = 0, 1, 2, 3, \dots \), where k is a constant, then \( P(X \ge 3) \) is equal to

  • (A) \( \frac{7}{27} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{4}{9} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{8}{27} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
View Solution

Question 14:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation \( \frac{dy}{dx} + 3(\tan^2 x) y + 3y = \sec^2 x \), with \( y(0) = \frac{1}{3} + e^3 \). Then \( y\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right) \) is equal to

  • (A) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{3} + e^3 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2}{3} + e^3 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
View Solution

Question 15:

If \( z_1, z_2, z_3 \in \mathbb{C} \) are the vertices of an equilateral triangle, whose centroid is \( z_0 \), then \( \sum_{k=1}^{3} (z_k - z_0)^2 \) is equal to

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2
  • (C) \( 3i \)
  • (D) \( -i \)
Correct Answer: (A) 0
View Solution

Question 16:

The number of solutions of the equation \( (4 - \sqrt{3}) \sin x - 2\sqrt{3} \cos^2 x = \frac{-4}{1 + \sqrt{3}} \), \( x \in \left[-2\pi, \frac{5\pi}{2}\right] \) is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (D) 5
View Solution

Question 17:

Let C be the circle of minimum area enclosing the ellipse E: \( \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) with eccentricity \( \frac{1}{2} \) and foci \( (\pm 2, 0) \). Let PQR be a variable triangle, whose vertex P is on the circle C and the side QR of length 29 is parallel to the major axis and contains the point of intersection of E with the negative y-axis. Then the maximum area of the triangle PQR is:

  • (A) \( 6(3 + \sqrt{2}) \)
  • (B) \( 8(3 + \sqrt{2}) \)
  • (C) \( 6(2 + \sqrt{3}) \)
  • (D) \( 8(2 + \sqrt{3}) \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 8(2 + \sqrt{3}) \)
View Solution

Question 18:

The shortest distance between the curves \( y^2 = 8x \) and \( x^2 + y^2 + 12y + 35 = 0 \) is:

  • (A) \( 2\sqrt{3} - 1 \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) \( 3\sqrt{2} - 1 \)
  • (D) \( 2\sqrt{2} - 1 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 2\sqrt{2} - 1 \)
View Solution

Question 19:

The distance of the point (7, 10, 11) from the line \( \frac{x - 4}{1} = \frac{y - 4}{0} = \frac{z - 2}{3} \) along the line \( \frac{x - 7}{2} = \frac{y - 10}{3} = \frac{z - 11}{6} \) is

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 16
Correct Answer: (B) 14
View Solution

Question 20:

The sum \( 1 + \frac{1 + 3}{2!} + \frac{1 + 3 + 5}{3!} + \frac{1 + 3 + 5 + 7}{4!} + \dots \) upto \( \infty \) terms, is equal to

  • (A) \( 6e \)
  • (B) \( 4e \)
  • (C) \( 3e \)
  • (D) \( 2e \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 2e \)
View Solution

Question 21:

Let I be the identity matrix of order 3 × 3 and for the matrix \( A = \begin{pmatrix} \lambda & 2 & 3
4 & 5 & 6
7 & -1 & 2 \end{pmatrix} \), \( |A| = -1 \). Let B be the inverse of the matrix \( adj(A \cdot adj(A^2)) \). Then \( |(\lambda B + I)| \) is equal to _______

Correct Answer: (38)
View Solution

Question 22:

Let \( (1 + x + x^2)^{10} = a_0 + a_1 x + a_2 x^2 + \dots + a_{20} x^{20} \). If \( (a_1 + a_3 + a_5 + \dots + a_{19}) - 11a_2 = 121k \), then k is equal to _______

Correct Answer: (239)
View Solution

Question 23:

If \( \lim_{x \to 0} \left( \frac{\tan x}{x} \right)^{\frac{1}{x^2}} = p \), then \( 96 \log_e p \) is equal to _______

Correct Answer: (32)
View Solution

Question 24:

Let \( \vec{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + \hat{k} \), \( \vec{b} = 3\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \), \( \vec{c} = 2\hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k} \) and \( \vec{d} \) be a vector such that \( \vec{b} \times \vec{d} = \vec{c} \times \vec{d} \) and \( \vec{a} \cdot \vec{d} = 4 \). Then \( |\vec{a} \times \vec{d}|^2 \) is equal to _______

Correct Answer: (128)
View Solution

Question 25:

If the equation of the hyperbola with foci \( (4, 2) \) and \( (8, 2) \) is \( 3x^2 - y^2 - \alpha x + \beta y + \gamma = 0 \), then \( \alpha + \beta + \gamma \) is equal to _______

Correct Answer: (141)
View Solution

Question 26:

A magnetic dipole experiences a torque of \( 80\sqrt{3} \) N m when placed in a uniform magnetic field in such a way that the dipole moment makes an angle of \( 60^\circ \) with the magnetic field. The potential energy of the dipole is:

  • (A) 80 J
  • (B) \( -40\sqrt{3} \) J
  • (C) -60 J
  • (D) -80 J
Correct Answer: (D) -80 J
View Solution

Question 27:

In a resonance experiment, two air columns (closed at one end) of 100 cm and 120 cm long, give 15 beats per second when each one is sounding in the respective fundamental modes. The velocity of sound in the air column is :

  • (A) 335 m/s
  • (B) 370 m/s
  • (C) 340 m/s
  • (D) 360 m/s
Correct Answer: (D) 360 m/s
View Solution

Question 28:

Two cylindrical vessels of equal cross-sectional area of \( 2 \, m^2 \) contain water up to heights 10 m and 6 m, respectively. If the vessels are connected at their bottom, then the work done by the force of gravity is: (Density of water is \( 10^3 \, kg/m^3 \) and \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \))

  • (A) \( 1 \times 10^5 \, J \)
  • (B) \( 4 \times 10^4 \, J \)
  • (C) \( 6 \times 10^4 \, J \)
  • (D) \( 8 \times 10^4 \, J \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 8 \times 10^4 \, \text{J} \)
View Solution

Question 29:

Width of one of the two slits in a Young's double slit interference experiment is half of the other slit. The ratio of the maximum to the minimum intensity in the interference pattern is :

  • (A) \( (2\sqrt{2} + 1) : (2\sqrt{2} - 1) \)
  • (B) \( (3 + 2\sqrt{2}) : (3 - 2\sqrt{2}) \)
  • (C) \( 9 : 1 \)
  • (D) \( 3 : 1 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( (3 + 2\sqrt{2}) : (3 - 2\sqrt{2}) \)
View Solution

Question 30:

An ideal gas exists in a state with pressure \( P_0 \), volume \( V_0 \). It is isothermally expanded to 4 times of its initial volume \( (V_0) \), then isobarically compressed to its original volume. Finally the system is heated isochorically to bring it to its initial state. The amount of heat exchanged in this process is :

  • (A) \( P_0 V_0 (2 \ln 2 - 0.75) \)
  • (B) \( P_0 V_0 (\ln 2 - 0.75) \)
  • (C) \( P_0 V_0 (\ln 2 - 0.25) \)
  • (D) \( P_0 V_0 (2 \ln 2 - 0.25) \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( P_0 V_0 (2 \ln 2 - 0.75) \)
View Solution

Question 31:

Two monochromatic light beams have intensities in the ratio 1:9. An interference pattern is obtained by these beams. The ratio of the intensities of maximum to minimum is

  • (A) 8 : 1
  • (B) 9 : 1
  • (C) 3 : 1
  • (D) 4 : 1
Correct Answer: (D) 4 : 1
View Solution

Question 32:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : The Bohr model is applicable to hydrogen and hydrogen-like atoms only.
Reason R : The formulation of Bohr model does not include repulsive force between electrons.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) A is false but R is true.
  • (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (4) A is true but R is false.
Correct Answer: (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
View Solution

Question 33:

Using a battery, a 100 pF capacitor is charged to 60 V and then the battery is removed. After that, a second uncharged capacitor is connected to the first capacitor in parallel. If the final voltage across the second capacitor is 20 V, its capacitance is : (in pF)

  • (1) 600
  • (2) 200
  • (3) 400
  • (4) 100
Correct Answer: (200)
View Solution

Question 34:

A monochromatic light of frequency \( 5 \times 10^{14} \) Hz travelling through air, is incident on a medium of refractive index '2'. Wavelength of the refracted light will be :

  • (1) 300 nm
  • (2) 600 nm
  • (3) 400 nm
  • (4) 500 nm
Correct Answer: (1) 300 nm
View Solution

Question 35:


35.png
Consider two blocks A and B of masses \( m_1 = 10 \) kg and \( m_2 = 5 \) kg that are placed on a frictionless table. The block A moves with a constant speed \( v = 3 \) m/s towards the block B kept at rest. A spring with spring constant \( k = 3000 \) N/m is attached with the block B as shown in the figure. After the collision, suppose that the blocks A and B, along with the spring in constant compression state, move together, then the compression in the spring is, (Neglect the mass of the spring)

  • (1) 0.2 m
  • (2) 0.4 m
  • (3) 0.1 m
  • (4) 0.3 m
Correct Answer: (3) 0.1 m
View Solution

Question 36:

A particle is projected with velocity \( u \) so that its horizontal range is three times the maximum height attained by it. The horizontal range of the projectile is given as \( \frac{nu^2}{25g} \), where value of \( n \) is : (Given 'g' is the acceleration due to gravity).

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 24
Correct Answer: (4) 24
View Solution

Question 37:

A solid steel ball of diameter 3.6 mm acquired terminal velocity \( 2.45 \times 10^{-2} \) m/s while falling under gravity through an oil of density \( 925 \, kg m^{-3} \). Take density of steel as \( 7825 \, kg m^{-3} \) and \( g \) as \( 9.8 \, m/s^2 \). The viscosity of the oil in SI unit is

  • (1) 2.18
  • (2) 2.38
  • (3) 1.68
  • (4) 1.99
Correct Answer: (4) 1.99
View Solution

Question 38:

The truth table corresponding to the circuit given below is
38

  • (1) 38_1.png
  • (2) 38_2.png
  • (3) 38_3.png
  • (4) 38_4.png
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 39:

A particle moves along the x-axis and has its displacement x varying with time t according to the equation \( x = c_0 (t^2 - 2) + c (t - 2)^2 \)
where \( c_0 \) and \( c \) are constants of appropriate dimensions. Then, which of the following statements is correct?

  • (1) the acceleration of the particle is \( 2c_0 \)
  • (2) the acceleration of the particle is \( 2c \)
  • (3) the initial velocity of the particle is \( 4c \)
  • (4) the acceleration of the particle is \( 2(c + c_0) \)
Correct Answer: (4) the acceleration of the particle is \( 2(c + c_0) \)
View Solution

Question 40:

An electric bulb rated as 100 W-220 V is connected to an ac source of rms voltage 220 V. The peak value of current through the bulb is :

  • (1) 0.64 A
  • (2) 0.45 A
  • (3) 2.2 A
  • (4) 0.32 A
Correct Answer: (1) 0.64 A
View Solution

Question 41:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I                                         LIST-II 

A.   Boltzmann constant          I.   \( ML^2T^{-1} \)

B.  Coefficient of viscosity      II.  \( MLT^{-3}K^{-1} \)

C.  Planck's constant               III.  \( ML^2T^{-2}K^{-1} \)

D. Thermal conductivity          IV.  \( ML^{-1}T^{-1} \)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Question 42:

Pressure of an ideal gas, contained in a closed vessel, is increased by 0.4% when heated by \( 1^\circ C \). Its initial temperature must be :

  • (1) \( 25^\circ C \)
  • (2) \( 2500 \, K \)
  • (3) \( 250 \, K \)
  • (4) \( 250^\circ C \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 250 \, \text{K} \)
View Solution

Question 43:

A motor operating on 100 V draws a current of 1 A. If the efficiency of the motor is 91.6%, then the loss of power in units of cal/s is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 8.4
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 6.2
Correct Answer: (3) 2
View Solution

Question 44:

A block of mass 1 kg, moving along x with speed \( v_i = 10 \) m/s enters a rough region ranging from \( x = 0.1 \) m to \( x = 1.9 \) m. The retarding force acting on the block in this range is \( F_r = -kx \) N, with \( k = 10 \) N/m. Then the final speed of the block as it crosses this rough region is

  • (1) 10 m/s
  • (2) 4 m/s
  • (3) 6 m/s
  • (4) 8 m/s
Correct Answer: (4) 8 m/s
View Solution

Question 45:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : If oxygen ion (O\(^{-2}\)) and Hydrogen ion (H\(^{+}\)) enter normal to the magnetic field with equal momentum, then the path of O\(^{-2}\) ion has a smaller curvature than that of H\(^{+}\).
Reason R : A proton with same linear momentum as an electron will form a path of smaller radius of curvature on entering a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly.
In the light of the above statements,

choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) A is true but R is false
  • (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is false but R is true
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (1) A is true but R is false
View Solution

Question 46:

Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical glass surface (refractive index, \( \mu = 1.5 \) and radius of curvature \( R = 50 \) cm). The image is formed at a distance of 200 cm from the glass surface inside the glass. The magnitude of distance of the light source from the glass surface is ____________.

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 47:

The excess pressure inside a soap bubble A in air is half the excess pressure inside another soap bubble B in air. If the volume of the bubble A is \( n \) times the volume of the bubble B, then, the value of \( n \) is ___________ .

Correct Answer: (8)
View Solution

Question 48:

Two cells of emf 1V and 2V and internal resistance 2 \( \Omega \) and 1 \( \Omega \), respectively, are connected in series with an external resistance of 6 \( \Omega \). The total current in the circuit is \( I_1 \). Now the same two cells in parallel configuration are connected to the same external resistance. In this case, the total current drawn is \( I_2 \). The value of \( \left( \frac{I_1}{I_2} \right) \) is \( \frac{x}{3} \). The value of x is ____________ .

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 49:

An electron in the hydrogen atom initially in the fourth excited state makes a transition to \( n^{th} \) energy state by emitting a photon of energy 2.86 eV. The integer value of n will be ___________ .

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 50:

A physical quantity C is related to four other quantities p, q, r and s as follows \[ C = \frac{pq^2}{r^3 \sqrt{s}} \]
The percentage errors in the measurement of p, q, r and s are 1%, 2%, 3% and 2% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of C will be _______ %.

Correct Answer: (15)
View Solution

Question 51:

40 mL of a mixture of CH\(_3\)COOH and HCl (aqueous solution) is titrated against 0.1 M NaOH solution conductometrically. Which of the following statement is correct?
image

  • (1) The concentration of CH\(_3\)COOH in the original mixture is 0.005 M
  • (2) The concentration of HCl in the original mixture is 0.005 M
  • (3) CH\(_3\)COOH is neutralised first followed by neutralisation of HCl
  • (4) Point 'C' indicates the complete neutralisation HCl
Correct Answer: (2) The concentration of HCl in the original mixture is 0.005 M
View Solution

Question 52:

10 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 20 mL of 1 M HCl solution kept in a beaker. Now, 10 mL of this mixture is poured into a volumetric flask of 100 mL containing 2 moles of HCl and made the volume upto the mark with distilled water. The solution in this flask is :

  • (1) 0.2 M NaCl solution
  • (2) 20 M HCl solution
  • (3) 10 M HCl solution
  • (4) Neutral solution
Correct Answer: (2) 20 M HCl solution
View Solution

Question 53:

Fat soluble vitamins are :
A. Vitamin B\( _1 \)
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B\( _{12} \)
E. Vitamin K

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) C and D Only
  • (2) A and B Only
  • (3) B and C Only
  • (4) C and E Only
Correct Answer: (4) C and E Only
View Solution

Question 54:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

LIST-I                                            LIST-II

A. & Pnicogen (group 15)            I.   Ts

B. & Chalcogen (group 16)          II.   Og

C. & Halogen (group 17)              III.   Lv

D. & Noble gas (group 18)           IV.   Mc

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Correct Answer: (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Question 55:

For electron in '2s' and '2p' orbitals, the orbital angular momentum values, respectively are :

  • (1) \( \sqrt{2} \frac{h}{2\pi} \) and 0
  • (2) \( \frac{h}{2\pi} \) and \( \sqrt{2} \frac{h}{2\pi} \)
  • (3) 0 and \( \sqrt{6} \frac{h}{2\pi} \)
  • (4) 0 and \( \sqrt{2} \frac{h}{2\pi} \)
Correct Answer: (4) 0 and \( \sqrt{2} \frac{h}{2\pi} \)
View Solution

Question 56:

Compounds that should not be used as primary standards in titrimetric analysis are :
A. Na\( _2 \)Cr\( _2 \)O\( _7 \)
B. Oxalic acid
C. NaOH
D. FeSO\( _4 \).6H\( _2 \)O
E. Sodium tetraborate

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) B and D Only
  • (2) D and E Only
  • (3) C, D and E Only
  • (4) A, C and D Only
Correct Answer: (4) A, C and D Only
View Solution

Question 57:

The major product (P) in the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4) 
Correct Answer: (2) Ph-CH(OH)-COO\( ^- \)K\( ^+ \)
View Solution

Question 58:

In the following series of reactions identify the major products A and B respectively.
image

  • (1)
  • (2) image
  • (3) 
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 59:

The standard cell potential (E\(^\circ_{cell}\)) of a fuel cell based on the oxidation of methanol in air that has been used to power a television relay station is measured as 1.21 V. The standard half cell reduction potential for O\( _2 \)/H\( _2 \)O (E\(^\circ_{O_2/H_2O}\)) is 1.229 V. Choose the correct statement:

  • (1) The standard half cell reduction potential for the reduction of CO\( _2 \) (E\(^\circ_{CO_2/CH_3OH}\)) is 19 mV
  • (2) Oxygen is formed at the anode.
  • (3) Reactants are fed at one go to each electrode.
  • (4) Reduction of methanol takes place at the cathode.
Correct Answer: (1) The standard half cell reduction potential for the reduction of CO\( _2 \) (E\(^\circ_{CO_2/CH_3OH}\)) is 19 mV
View Solution

Question 60:

Identify the diamagnetic octahedral complex ions from below ;
A. [Mn(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
B. [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
C. [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{4-}\)
D. [Co(H\(_2\)O)\(_3\)F\(_3\)]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) B and D Only
  • (2) A and D Only
  • (3) A and C Only
  • (4) B and C Only
Correct Answer: (4) B and C Only
View Solution

Question 61:

In Dumas' method for estimation of nitrogen 0.4 g of an organic compound gave 60 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm Hg pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound is
(Given : Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm Hg)

  • (1) 15.71%
  • (2) 20.95%
  • (3) 17.46%
  • (4) 7.85%
Correct Answer: (1) 15.71%
View Solution

Question 62:

Mass of magnesium required to produce 220 mL of hydrogen gas at STP on reaction with excess of dil. HCl is
Given : Molar mass of Mg is 24 g mol\(^{-1}\).

  • (1) 235.7 g
  • (2) 0.24 mg
  • (3) 236 mg
  • (4) 2.444 g
Correct Answer: (3) 236 mg
View Solution

Question 63:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Wet cotton clothes made of cellulose based carbohydrate takes comparatively longer time to get dried than wet nylon polymer based clothes.
Statement II : Intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water molecule is more in nylon-based clothes than in the case of cotton clothes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct Answer: (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
View Solution

Question 64:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : CrO\( _3 \) is a stronger oxidizing agent than MoO\( _3 \)
Statement II : Cr(VI) is more stable than Mo(VI)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct Answer: (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
View Solution

Question 65:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Hyperconjugation is not a permanent effect.
Statement II : In general, greater the number of alkyl groups attached to a positively charged C-atom, greater is the hyperconjugation interaction and stabilization of the cation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
View Solution

Question 66:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : When a system containing ice in equilibrium with water (liquid) is heated, heat is absorbed by the system and there is no change in the temperature of the system until whole ice gets melted.
Statement II : At melting point of ice, there is absorption of heat in order to overcome intermolecular forces of attraction within the molecules of water in ice and kinetic energy of molecules is not increased at melting point.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
View Solution

Question 67:

The sequence from the following that would result in giving predominantly 3, 4, 5 -Tribromoaniline is :

  • (1) Nitrobenzene \( \xrightarrow{(i) Br_2, acetic acid} \) \( \xrightarrow{(ii) Sn, HCl} \)
  • (2) Bromobenzene \( \xrightarrow{(i) Br_2, AlBr_3} \) \( \xrightarrow{(ii) NH_3} \)
  • (3) p-Nitroaniline \( \xrightarrow{(i) Br_2 (excess), acetic acid} \) \( \xrightarrow{(ii) NaNO_2, HCl, CuBr} \) \( \xrightarrow{(iii) Sn, HCl} \)
  • (4) Aniline \( \xrightarrow{Br_2, water} \)
Correct Answer: (3) p-Nitroaniline \( \xrightarrow{\text{(i) Br}_2 \text{(excess)}, \text{acetic acid}} \) \( \xrightarrow{\text{(ii) NaNO}_2, \text{HCl}, \text{CuBr}} \) \( \xrightarrow{\text{(iii) Sn, HCl}} \)
View Solution

Question 68:

The correct orders among the following are:

  • (A) [A.] Atomic radius : B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
  • (B) [B.] Electronegativity : Al < Ga < In < Tl < B
  • (C) [C.] Density : Tl < In < Ga < Al < B
  • (D) [D.] 1st Ionisation Energy : In < Al < Ga < Tl < B
  • Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  • (1) B and D Only
  • (2) A and C Only
  • (3) C and D Only
  • (4) A and B Only
Correct Answer: (1) B and D Only
View Solution

Question 69:

What is the correct IUPAC name of

  • (1) 3-Bromo-2-hydroxy-5-nitrobenzoic acid
  • (2) 3-Bromo-4-hydroxy-1-nitrobenzoic acid
  • (3) 2-Hydroxy-3-bromo-5-nitrobenzoic acid
  • (4) 5-Nitro-3-bromo-2-hydroxybenzoic acid
Correct Answer: (1) 3-Bromo-2-hydroxy-5-nitrobenzoic acid
View Solution

Question 70:

Consider the following statements related to temperature dependence of rate constants.
Identify the correct statements,
A. The Arrhenius equation holds true only for an elementary homogeneous reaction.
B. The unit of A is same as that of k in Arrhenius equation.
C. At a given temperature, a low activation energy means a fast reaction.
D. A and Ea as used in Arrhenius equation depend on temperature.
E. When Ea >> RT. A and Ea become interdependent.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A, C and D Only
  • (2) B, D and E Only
  • (3) B and C Only
  • (4) A and B Only
Correct Answer: (3) B and C Only
View Solution

Question 71:

X g of nitrobenzene on nitration gave 4.2 g of m-dinitrobenzene.
X = \hspace{3cm g. (nearest integer)
[Given : molar mass (in g mol\(^{-1\)) C : 12, H : 1, O : 16, N : 14]

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 72:

A perfect gas (0.1 mol) having \( \bar{C}_V = 1.50 \) R (independent of temperature) undergoes the above transformation from point 1 to point 4. If each step is reversible, the total work done (w) while going from point 1 to point 4 is (\hspace{3cm) J (nearest integer)
[Given : R = 0.082 L atm K\(^{-1\)]

Correct Answer: (304)
View Solution

Question 73:

A sample of n-octane (1.14 g) was completely burnt in excess of oxygen in a bomb calorimeter, whose heat capacity is 5 kJ K\(^{-1}\). As a result of combustion, the temperature of the calorimeter increased by 5 K. The magnitude of the heat of combustion at constant volume is \hspace{3cm kJ mol\(^{-1\) (nearest integer).

Correct Answer: (2500)
View Solution

Question 74:

Among, Sc, Mn, Co and Cu, identify the element with highest enthalpy of atomisation. The spin only magnetic moment value of that element in its +2 oxidation state is \underline{\hspace{3cm BM (in nearest integer).

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 75:

The total number of structural isomers possible for the substituted benzene derivatives with the molecular formula C\( _7 \)H\( _{12} \) is \underline{\hspace{3cm .

Correct Answer: (8)
View Solution


JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 2 Question Paper With Video Solutions

The JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 2 Question Paper with Video Solution is available here. Students can match their responses with the JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 2 Answer key with Solutions. Students who are appearing for JEE Main upcoming shifts can check the JEE Main April 3 Shift 2 Question Paper and video solution to understand the difficulty level of the exam.


 

JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 2 Difficulty Level Analysis

The Mathematics Section of JEE Main April 3 shift 2 was challenging and time-consuming. The Chemistry and Physics Section of JEE Main April 3 shift 2 was easy. Important topics in JEE Main 2025 Shift 2 included- Calculus, Probability, Algebra, Organic Chemistry, Chemical Bonding. The subject-wise test analysis of the JEE Main 2025 April 3 Shift 2 Question Paper will be released shortly.

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JEE Main Marking Scheme 2025

For JEE Main Paper 1(B.E/BTech), students are required to attempt 75 questions following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones. The marking scheme is the same across Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections totaling to 300 marks.

Paper Sections Questions Marks Marking Scheme
Paper 1 Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics 75 Questions (25 Physics, 25 Chemistry, 25 Mathematics) 300 total
  • Correct Answer: +4
  • Incorrect MCQ: -1

JEE Main 2025 Marking Criteria for Wrong Questions

If a Question is found to be wrong in JEE Main 2025 Exam, NTA uses the following criteria to mark student for the Questions

For MCQs

  • If more than one Question is incorrect, then +4 marks are awarded to all those students who mark any of the two correct answers.
  • If all options are correct , then +4 marks are awarded to all who attempted the Question.
  • If all Questions are wrong then or none of the provided options are correct then +4 marks are awarded to all students who appeared for the exam whether they have attempted it or not.

For Numerical Questions

  • If the Question is incorrect, then +4 marks are awarded to all students who have attempted the question.
  • The answer to the numerical value Question shall be rounded off to the nearest value.

Once you calculate your expected marks, you can review the JEE Main Question papers to improve your preparation.

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CategoriesState
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Women800
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pwd500
Others900

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