JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper with Solutions and Answer Key PDF is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The question paper for JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 includes 90 questions equally divided into Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Candidates must attempt 75 questions in a 3-hour time duration. The official JEE Main 2024 paper 2 question paper for Jan 24 Shift 2 is provided in the article below.
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JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Questions with Solution
SECTION- A
PHYSICS
Question 1:
If in a G.P. of 64 terms, the sum of all terms is 7 times the sum of the odd terms, then the common ratio of the G.P. is equal to:
View Solution
In an A.P., the sixth term a₆ = 2. If the product a₁ * a₄ * a₅ is maximized, the common difference of the A.P. is equal to:
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Given functions f(x) and g(x), find the range of (f o g)(x).
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A fair die is thrown until the number 2 appears. What is the probability that 2 appears in an even number of throws?
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If z = 1/(2 - 2i) such that |z + 1| = αz + β(1 + i), where i is the imaginary unit and α, β are real numbers, then α + β is equal to:
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Evaluate the limit
lim (x → π/2) [(1/x - π/2) * ∫(0 to π/2) cos(1/t³) dt], which is equal to:
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Using L'Hôpital's Rule and the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, we find that as x approaches π/2, the given expression simplifies to 3π²/8.
Final Answer: 3π²/8
In a △ABC, suppose y = x is the equation of the bisector of angle B, and the equation of side AC is 2x - y = 2. If 2AB = BC and the points A and B are (4, 6) and (α, β), then α + 2β is equal to:
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Let a, b, and c be three non-zero vectors such that b and c are non-collinear. If a + 5b is collinear with c, b + 6c is collinear with a, and a + αb + βc = 0, then α + β is equal to:
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Let (5, a/4) be the circumcenter of a triangle with vertices A(a, -2), B(a, 6), and C(a/4, -2). Let α denote the circumradius, β the area, and γ the perimeter of the triangle. Then α + β + γ is:
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For x ∈ (-π/2, π/2), if y(x) = csc(x) + sin(x) - (1 + cos(2x)) csc(sec(x) + tan(x)), then y(π/4) is equal to:
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If α, with -π/2 < α < π/2, is the solution of 4cos(θ) + 5sin(θ) = 1, then the value of tan(α) is:
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A function y = f(x) satisfies f(x)sin(2x) + sin(x) - (1 + cos(2x))f'(x) = 0 with f(0) = 0. Then f(π/2) is equal to:
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Let O be the origin and the position vectors of A and B be (2i + 2j + k) and (2i + 4j + 4k), respectively. If the internal bisector of ∠AOB meets the line AB at C, then the length of OC is:
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Consider the function f: [1/2,1] → R defined by f(x) = √(2x³ - 3√(2x - 1)). Which of the following statements is correct?
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Let A = [ [1, 0, 0], [0, α, β], [0, β, α] ] and |2A|³ = 221, where α, β ∈ Z. Then a value of α is:
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Let PQR be a triangle with R(−1, 4, 2). Suppose M(2, 1, 2) is the midpoint of PQ. The distance of the centroid of △PQR from the point of intersection of the line (x-2)/0 = y/2 = (z+3)/-1 and (x-1)/1 = (y+3)/-3 = (z+1)/1 is:
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Let R be a relation on Z × Z defined by (a, b)R(c, d) if and only if ad - bc is divisible by 5. Then R is:
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If the value of the integral ∫ from -π/2 to π/2 of [(x² cos(x))/(1 + πx) + (1 + sin²(x))/(1 + e^(sin(x)))] dx equals π/4(π + a) - 2, then the value of a is:
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Suppose f(x) = (2x + 2^(-x)) tan(x) √(tan⁻¹(x² - x + 1)). The value of f'(0) is equal to:
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Let A be a square matrix such that AAᵀ = I. Then (1/2)A[(A + Aᵀ)² + (A - Aᵀ)²] is equal to:
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Equation of two diameters of a circle are 2x - 3y = 5 and 3x - 4y = 7. The line joining the points (-22/7, -4) and (1/7, 3) intersects the circle at only one point P(α, β). Then 17β - α is equal to:
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All the letters of the word “GTWENTY” are written in all possible ways with or without meaning, and these words are arranged as in a dictionary. The serial number of the word “GTWENTY” is:
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Let f(x) = 2x - x², x ∈ R. If m and n are respectively the number of points at which the curves y = f(x) and y = f'(x) intersect the x-axis, then the value of m + n is:
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Let f(x) = 2x - x², x ∈ R. If m and n are respectively the number of points at which the curves y = f(x) and y = f'(x) intersect the x-axis, then the value of m + n is:
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If the points of intersection of two distinct conics x² + y² = 4b and x²/16 + y²/b² = 1 lie on the curve y² = 3x², then 3√3 times the area of the rectangle formed by the intersection points is:
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The solution curve y = y(x) of the differential equation (1 + y²)(1 + log(x)) dx + x dy = 0, x > 0, passes through the point (1, 1). If y(e) = (α - tan(3/2))/(β + tan(3/2)), then α + 2β is:
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If the mean and variance of the data 65, 68, 58, 44, 48, 45, 60, α, β, 60 where α > β are 56 and 66.2 respectively, then α² + β² is equal to:
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The area (in sq. units) of the part of the circle x² + y² = 169 which is below the line 5x - y = 13 is (πα/2β) * 65² + (α/β) * sin⁻¹(12/13). The value of α + β is:
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If (11C1)(11C2) + (11C2)(11C3) + ... + (11C9)(11C10) = n/m with gcd(n, m) = 1, then n + m is equal to:
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Using combinatorial identities and summation, the series simplifies to 2035/6. Thus, n = 2035 and m = 6, giving n + m = 2041.
Final Answer: 2041
A line with direction ratios 2, 1, 2 meets the lines x = y + 2 = z and x + 2 = 2y = 2z respectively at the points P and Q. If the length of the perpendicular from the point (1, 2, 12) to the line PQ is l, then l² is:
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In the given circuit, the breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 3.0 V. What is the value of IZ?
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The electric current through a wire varies with time as I = I0 + βt, where I0 = 20 A and β = 3 A/s. The amount of electric charge that crosses through a section of the wire in 20 s is:
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Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If a capillary tube is immersed first in cold water and then in hot water, the height of capillary rise will be smaller in hot water.
Statement II: If a capillary tube is immersed first in cold water and then in hot water, the height of capillary rise will be smaller in cold water.
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A convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm forms an image that is half the size of the object. The object distance is:
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Two charges of 5Q and −2Q are situated at the points (3a, 0) and (−5a, 0) respectively. The electric flux through a sphere of radius 4a having its center at the origin is:
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A body starts moving from rest with constant acceleration and covers displacement S1 in the first (p−1) seconds and S2 in the first p seconds. The displacement S1 + S2 will be made in time:
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The potential energy function (in J) of a particle in a region of space is given as U = (2x² + 3y³ + 2z). Here x, y, and z are in meters. The magnitude of the x-component of force (in N) acting on the particle at point P (1, 2, 3) m is:
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The resistance R = V/I where V = (200± 5)V and I = (20± 0.2)A. The percentage error in the measurement of R is:
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A block of mass 100 kg slides over a distance of 10 m on a horizontal surface. If the coefficient of friction between the surfaces is 0.4, then the work done against friction (in J) is:
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Match List I with List II:
List I
A. ∮ B· dl = µ₀ic + µ₀ε₀ dΦE/dt
B. ∮ E· dl = −dΦB/dt
C. ∮ E· dA = Q/ε₀
D. ∮ B· dA = 0
List II
I. Gauss' law for electricity
II. Gauss' law for magnetism
III. Faraday's law
IV. Ampere–Maxwell law
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A corresponds to Ampere–Maxwell law, B corresponds to Faraday's law, C corresponds to Gauss' law for electricity, and D corresponds to Gauss' law for magnetism.
If the radius of curvature of the path of two particles of the same mass are in the ratio 3:4, then in order to have constant centripetal force, their velocities will be in the ratio of:
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A galvanometer having coil resistance 10 Ω shows a full scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. For it to measure a current of 8 A, the value of the shunt should be:
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The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the same as that of a photon. If the velocity of the electron is 25% of the velocity of light, then the ratio of the K.E. of the electron to the K.E. of the photon will be:
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The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer falls from 25 divisions to 5 divisions when a shunt of 24Ω is applied. The resistance of the galvanometer coil will be:
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A biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 will be:
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A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state A to an intermediate state B by a linear process as shown in the figure. Its volume is then reduced to the original value from B to C by an isobaric process. The total work done by the gas from A to B and B to C would be:
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At what distance above and below the surface of the earth a body will have the same weight (take radius of earth as R)?
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A capacitor of capacitance 100 µF is charged to a potential of 12 V and connected to a 6.4 mH inductor to produce oscillations. The maximum current in the circuit would be:
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The explosive in a Hydrogen bomb is a mixture of 1H2, 1H3, and 3Li6 in some condensed form. The chain reaction is given by:
3Li6 + 0 n1 → 2 He4 + 1 H3
1H2 + 1H3 → 2 He4 + 0 n1
During the explosion, the energy released is approximately:
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Two vessels A and B are of the same size and are at the same temperature. A contains 1 g of hydrogen and B contains 1 g of oxygen. PA and PB are the pressures of the gases in A and B respectively, then PA/PB is:
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Using the ideal gas equation and calculating the moles of hydrogen and oxygen, the ratio of their pressures is found to be 16.
When a hydrogen atom going from n = 2 to n = 1 emits a photon, its recoil speed is x/5 m/s. Where x = . (Use: mass of hydrogen atom = 1.6 × 10−27 kg)
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A ball rolls off the top of a stairway with horizontal velocity u. The steps are 0.1 m high and 0.1 m wide. The minimum velocity u with which the ball just hits the step 5 of the stairway will be √x m/s, where x = . (Use g = 10 m/s²)
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A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.7 Ω is placed vertically in the east-west plane. A uniform magnetic field of 0.20 T is set up across the plane in the northeast direction. The magnetic field is decreased to zero in 1 s at a steady rate. Then, the magnitude of induced emf is √x × 10−3 V. The value of x is .
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A cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of inclination 60°. Its acceleration during rolling down will be x√3 m/s², where x = . (Use g = 10 m/s²)
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The magnetic potential due to a magnetic dipole at a point on its axis situated at a distance of 20 cm from its center is 1.5 × 10−5 Tm. The magnetic moment of the dipole is Am². Given: µ₀ / 4π = 10−7 Tm/A
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In a double slit experiment shown in the figure, when light of wavelength 400 nm is used, a dark fringe is observed at P. If D = 0.2 m, the minimum distance between the slits S1 and S2 is mm.
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A 16 Ω wire is bent to form a square loop. A 9 V battery with internal resistance 1 Ω is connected across one of its sides. If a 4 µF capacitor is connected across one of its diagonals, the energy stored by the capacitor will be x² µJ, where x = .
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When the displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is one third of its amplitude, the ratio of total energy to the kinetic energy is x/8, where x = .
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An electron is moving under the influence of the electric field of a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet S having surface charge density +σ. The electron at t = 0 is at a distance of 1 m from S and has a speed of 1 m/s. The maximum value of σ if the electron strikes S at t = 1 s is α[mϵ₀/e] C/m². The value of α is .
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In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in a wind tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper and lower surfaces of the wings are 70 m/s and 65 m/s respectively. If the wing area is 2 m², the lift of the wing is N. Given: density of air = 1.2 kg/m³
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Given below are two statements: Assertion A: The first ionisation enthalpy decreases across a period. Reason R: The increasing nuclear charge outweighs the shielding across the period.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
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Match List I with List II
LIST-I (Substances) | LIST-II (Element Present)
A. Ziegler catalyst | I. Rhodium
B. Blood Pigment | II. Cobalt
C. Wilkinson catalyst | III. Iron
D. Vitamin B12 | IV. Titanium
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In chromyl chloride test for confirmation of Cl− ion, a yellow solution is obtained. Acidification of the solution and addition of amyl alcohol and 10% H2O2 turns organic layer blue indicating formation of chromium pentoxide. The oxidation state of chromium in that is:
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The difference in energy between the actual structure and the lowest energy resonance structure for the given compound is:
(1) electromeric energy
(2) resonance energy
(3) ionization energy
(4) hyperconjugation energy
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: The electronegativity of group 14 elements from Si to Pb gradually decreases. Statement II: Group 14 contains non-metallic, metallic, as well as metalloid elements.
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
(1) 5, 0, 0, +1/2
(2) 5, 0, 1, +1/2
(3) 5, 1, 0, +1/2
(4) 5, 1, 1, +1/2
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The major product (P) in the following reaction is:
(1) Structure 1
(2) Structure 2
(3) Structure 3
(4) Structure 4
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The arenium ion which is not involved in the bromination of Aniline is:
(1) Structure 1
(2) Structure 2
(3) Structure 3
(4) Structure 4
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Appearance of blood red colour on treatment of the sodium fusion extract of an organic compound with FeSO₄ in presence of concentrated H₂SO₄ indicates the presence of element(s):
(1) Br
(2) N
(3) N and S
(4) S
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Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: Aryl halides cannot be prepared by replacement of hydroxyl group of phenol by halogen atom. Reason R: Phenols react with halogen acids violently.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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Identify product A and product B:
(1) Product A is formed through electrophilic substitution, Product B is from radical substitution
(2) Product A is formed via nucleophilic addition, Product B through electrophilic addition
(3) Product A is a result of free radical addition, Product B via electrophilic substitution
(4) Product A is formed through a free radical mechanism, Product B through electrophilic addition
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In this reaction: Product A is formed through a free radical mechanism. Product B is formed through an electrophilic addition reaction on the alkene. The correct answer is option (4), where Product A is formed by the free radical mechanism and Product B is formed by electrophilic addition in the presence of CCl₄.
Identify the incorrect pair from the following:
(1) Fluorspar - BF₃
(2) Cryolite - Na₃AlF₆
(3) Fluoroapatite - 3Ca₃(PO₄)₂·CaF₂
(4) Carnallite - KCl·MgCl₂·6H₂O
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The interaction between π bond and lone pair of electrons present on an adjacent atom is responsible for:
(1) Hyperconjugation
(2) Inductive effect
(3) Electromeric effect
(4) Resonance effect
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KMnO₄ decomposes on heating at 513 K to form O₂ along with:
(1) MnO₂ & K₂O₂
(2) K₂MnO₄ & Mn
(3) Mn & KO₂
(4) K₂MnO₄ & MnO₂
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The decomposition reaction of potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) at 513 K is as follows: KMnO₄ ∆ → K₂MnO₄ + MnO₂ + O₂. So, the correct option is: (4).
In which one of the following metal carbonyls, CO forms a bridge between metal atoms?
(1) [Co₂(CO)₈]
(2) [Mn₂(CO)₁₀]
(3) [Os₃(CO)₁₂]
(4) [Ru₃(CO)₁₂]
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Type of amino acids obtained by hydrolysis of proteins is:
(1) β
(2) α
(3) δ
(4) γ
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The final product A formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is:
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Which of the following is not correct?
(1) ∆G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
(2) ∆G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
(3) ∆G is zero for a reversible reaction
(4) ∆G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction
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Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in alkaline medium as shown below:
aCl2(g) + bOH−(aq) → cClO−(aq) + dCl−(aq) + eH2O(l)
The values of a, b, c, and d in a balanced redox reaction are respectively:
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In alkaline medium, MnO4− oxidizes I− to:
(1) IO4−
(2) IO−
(3) I2
(4) IO3−
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Number of compounds with one lone pair of electrons on central atom amongst following is:
O₃, H₂O, SF₄, ClF₃, NH₃, BrF₅, XeF₄
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The mass of zinc produced by the electrolysis of zinc sulphate solution with a steady current of 0.015 A for 15 minutes is ×10⁻⁴ g.
(Atomic mass of zinc = 65.4 amu)
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For a reaction taking place in three steps at the same temperature, the overall rate constant K = K₁K₂ / K₃. If Eₐ₁, Eₐ₂, and Eₐ₃ are 40, 50, and 60 kJ/mol respectively, the overall Eₐ is kJ/mol.
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The overall activation energy is \( E_a = E_{a1} + E_{a2} - E_{a3} = 40 + 50 - 60 = 30 \, \text{kJ/mol} \).
For the reaction N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g), Kₚ = 0.492 atm at 300K. Kc for the reaction at the same temperature is ×10⁻².
(Given: R = 0.082 L atm mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
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A solution of H₂SO₄ is 31.4% H₂SO₄ by mass and has a density of 1.25 g/mL. The molarity of the H₂SO₄ solution is M (nearest integer).
(Given molar mass of H₂SO₄ = 98 g mol⁻¹)
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The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is 7 × 10⁵ Pa at 273 K. Osmotic pressure of the same solution at 283 K is ×10⁴ N/m².
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Number of compounds among the following which contain sulfur as a heteroatom is:
Compounds: Furan, Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine, Tyrosine
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The number of species from the following which are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to one is:
Species: H₂, He₂⁺, O₂⁺, N₂⁻, O₂²⁻, F₂, Ne₂⁺, B₂
View Solution
From the compounds given below, the number of compounds which give a positive Fehling's test is:
Compounds: Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Acetophenone, Methanal, 4-nitrobenzaldehyde, Cyclohexane carbaldehyde
View Solution
Consider the given reaction. The total number of oxygen atoms present per molecule of the product (P) is:
Reaction: CH₃ − CH = CH − CH₃ → (i) O₃, (ii) Zn/H₂O → 2CH₃ − C = O
View Solution
Also Check:
JEE Main 2024 Paper Analysis | JEE Main 2024 Answer Key |
JEE Main 2024 Cutoff | JEE Main 2024 Marks vs Rank |
JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute
Coaching Institutes | Question Paper with Solutions PDF |
---|---|
Aakash BYJUs | Download PDF |
Reliable Institute | Physics Chemistry |
Resonance | Physics Chemistry Maths |
Vedantu | Download PDF |
Sri Chaitanya | To be updated |
FIIT JEE | To be updated |
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Paper Analysis
JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.
JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern
Feature | Question Paper Pattern |
---|---|
Examination Mode | Computer-based Test |
Exam Language | 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu) |
Number of Sections | Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics |
Exam Duration | 3 hours |
Sectional Time Limit | None |
Total Marks | 300 marks |
Total Number of Questions Asked | 90 Questions |
Total Number of Questions to be Answered | 75 questions |
Type of Questions | MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions |
Section-wise Number of Questions | Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type, Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type, Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type |
Marking Scheme | +4 for each correct answer |
Negative Marking | -1 for each incorrect answer |
Read More:
- JEE Main 2024 question paper pattern and marking scheme
- Most important chapters in JEE Mains 2024, Check chapter wise weightage here
JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)
Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.
Exam Date and Shift | Question Paper PDF |
---|---|
JEE Main 24 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
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