JEE Main 2024 29 Jan Shift 1 Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

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JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper with Solutions and Answer Key PDF is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The question paper for JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 includes 90 questions equally divided into Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Candidates must attempt 75 questions in a 3-hour time duration. The official JEE Main 2024 paper 2 question paper for Jan 24 Shift 2 is provided in the article below.
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JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Questions with Solution

SECTION- A

PHYSICS

Question 1:

If in a G.P. of 64 terms, the sum of all terms is 7 times the sum of the odd terms, then the common ratio of the G.P. is equal to:

  • (1) 7
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (4) 6
View Solution

Question 2:

In an A.P., the sixth term a₆ = 2. If the product a₁ * a₄ * a₅ is maximized, the common difference of the A.P. is equal to:

  • (1) 3/2
  • (2) 8/5
  • (3) 2/3
  • (4) 5/8
Correct Answer: (2) 8/5
View Solution

Question 3:

Given functions f(x) and g(x), find the range of (f o g)(x).

  • (1) (0,1]
  • (2) [0,3)
  • (3) [0,1]
  • (4) [0,1]
Correct Answer: (3) [0,1]
View Solution

Question 4:

A fair die is thrown until the number 2 appears. What is the probability that 2 appears in an even number of throws?

  • (1) 5/6
  • (2) 1/6
  • (3) 5/11
  • (4) 6/11
Correct Answer: (3) 5/11
View Solution

Question 5:

If z = 1/(2 - 2i) such that |z + 1| = αz + β(1 + i), where i is the imaginary unit and α, β are real numbers, then α + β is equal to:

  • (1) -4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) -1
Correct Answer: (2) 3
View Solution

Question 6:

Evaluate the limit
lim (x → π/2) [(1/x - π/2) * ∫(0 to π/2) cos(1/t³) dt], which is equal to:

  • (1) 3π/8
  • (2) 3π²/4
  • (3) 3π²/8
  • (4) 3π/4
Correct Answer: (3) 3π²/8
View Solution

Using L'Hôpital's Rule and the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, we find that as x approaches π/2, the given expression simplifies to 3π²/8.

Final Answer: 3π²/8


Question 7:

In a △ABC, suppose y = x is the equation of the bisector of angle B, and the equation of side AC is 2x - y = 2. If 2AB = BC and the points A and B are (4, 6) and (α, β), then α + 2β is equal to:

  • (1) 42
  • (2) 39
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 45
Correct Answer: (1) 42
View Solution

Question 8:

Let a, b, and c be three non-zero vectors such that b and c are non-collinear. If a + 5b is collinear with c, b + 6c is collinear with a, and a + αb + βc = 0, then α + β is equal to:

  • (1) 35
  • (2) 30
  • (3) -30
  • (4) -25
Correct Answer: (1) 35
View Solution

Question 9:

Let (5, a/4) be the circumcenter of a triangle with vertices A(a, -2), B(a, 6), and C(a/4, -2). Let α denote the circumradius, β the area, and γ the perimeter of the triangle. Then α + β + γ is:

  • (1) 60
  • (2) 53
  • (3) 62
  • (4) 30
Correct Answer: (2) 53
View Solution

Question 10:

For x ∈ (-π/2, π/2), if y(x) = csc(x) + sin(x) - (1 + cos(2x)) csc(sec(x) + tan(x)), then y(π/4) is equal to:

  • (1) tan⁻¹(1/√2)
  • (2) (1/2) tan⁻¹(1/√2)
  • (3) (1/√2) tan⁻¹(1/√2)
  • (4) (1/√2) tan⁻¹(-1/2)
Correct Answer: (4) (1/√2) tan⁻¹(-1/2)
View Solution
Question 11:

If α, with -π/2 < α < π/2, is the solution of 4cos(θ) + 5sin(θ) = 1, then the value of tan(α) is:

  • (1) (10 - √10)/6
  • (2) (10 - √10)/12
  • (3) (√10 - 10)/12
  • (4) (√10 - 10)/6
Correct Answer: (3) (√10 - 10)/12
View Solution

Question 12:

A function y = f(x) satisfies f(x)sin(2x) + sin(x) - (1 + cos(2x))f'(x) = 0 with f(0) = 0. Then f(π/2) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) -1
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (1) 1
View Solution

Question 13:

Let O be the origin and the position vectors of A and B be (2i + 2j + k) and (2i + 4j + 4k), respectively. If the internal bisector of ∠AOB meets the line AB at C, then the length of OC is:

  • (1) (2/3)√31
  • (2) (2/3)√34
  • (3) (3/4)√34
  • (4) (3/2)√31
Correct Answer: (2) (2/3)√34
View Solution

Question 14:

Consider the function f: [1/2,1] → R defined by f(x) = √(2x³ - 3√(2x - 1)). Which of the following statements is correct?

  • (1) The curve y = f(x) intersects the x-axis exactly at one point
  • (2) The curve y = f(x) intersects the x-axis at x = cos(π/12)
  • (3) Both statements (1) and (2) are correct
  • (4) Both statements (1) and (2) are incorrect
Correct Answer: (3) Both statements (1) and (2) are correct
View Solution

Question 15:

Let A = [ [1, 0, 0], [0, α, β], [0, β, α] ] and |2A|³ = 221, where α, β ∈ Z. Then a value of α is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer: (2) 5
View Solution
Question 16:

Let PQR be a triangle with R(−1, 4, 2). Suppose M(2, 1, 2) is the midpoint of PQ. The distance of the centroid of △PQR from the point of intersection of the line (x-2)/0 = y/2 = (z+3)/-1 and (x-1)/1 = (y+3)/-3 = (z+1)/1 is:

  • (1) 69
  • (2) 9
  • (3) √69
  • (4) √99
Correct Answer: (3) √69
View Solution

Question 17:

Let R be a relation on Z × Z defined by (a, b)R(c, d) if and only if ad - bc is divisible by 5. Then R is:

  • (1) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
  • (2) Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
  • (3) Reflexive, symmetric, and transitive
  • (4) Reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
Correct Answer: (1) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
View Solution

Question 18:

If the value of the integral ∫ from -π/2 to π/2 of [(x² cos(x))/(1 + πx) + (1 + sin²(x))/(1 + e^(sin(x)))] dx equals π/4(π + a) - 2, then the value of a is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) -3/2
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3/2
Correct Answer: (1) 3
View Solution

Question 19:

Suppose f(x) = (2x + 2^(-x)) tan(x) √(tan⁻¹(x² - x + 1)). The value of f'(0) is equal to:

  • (1) π
  • (2) 0
  • (3) √π
  • (4) π/2
Correct Answer: (3) √π
View Solution

Question 20:

Let A be a square matrix such that AAᵀ = I. Then (1/2)A[(A + Aᵀ)² + (A - Aᵀ)²] is equal to:

  • (1) A² + I
  • (2) A³ + I
  • (3) A² + Aᵀ
  • (4) A³ + Aᵀ
Correct Answer: (4) A³ + Aᵀ
View Solution
Question 21:

Equation of two diameters of a circle are 2x - 3y = 5 and 3x - 4y = 7. The line joining the points (-22/7, -4) and (1/7, 3) intersects the circle at only one point P(α, β). Then 17β - α is equal to:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 4
  • (4) -1
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution

Question 22:

All the letters of the word “GTWENTY” are written in all possible ways with or without meaning, and these words are arranged as in a dictionary. The serial number of the word “GTWENTY” is:

  • (1) 553
  • (2) 563
  • (3) 573
  • (4) 583
Correct Answer: (1) 553
View Solution

Question 23:

Let f(x) = 2x - x², x ∈ R. If m and n are respectively the number of points at which the curves y = f(x) and y = f'(x) intersect the x-axis, then the value of m + n is:

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (1) 5
View Solution

Question 24:

Let f(x) = 2x - x², x ∈ R. If m and n are respectively the number of points at which the curves y = f(x) and y = f'(x) intersect the x-axis, then the value of m + n is:

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (1) 5
View Solution

Question 25:

If the points of intersection of two distinct conics x² + y² = 4b and x²/16 + y²/b² = 1 lie on the curve y² = 3x², then 3√3 times the area of the rectangle formed by the intersection points is:

  • (1) 216
  • (2) 432
  • (3) 108
  • (4) 324
Correct Answer: (2) 432
View Solution

Question 26:

The solution curve y = y(x) of the differential equation (1 + y²)(1 + log(x)) dx + x dy = 0, x > 0, passes through the point (1, 1). If y(e) = (α - tan(3/2))/(β + tan(3/2)), then α + 2β is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 3
View Solution

Question 27:

If the mean and variance of the data 65, 68, 58, 44, 48, 45, 60, α, β, 60 where α > β are 56 and 66.2 respectively, then α² + β² is equal to:

  • (1) 6344
  • (2) 6450
  • (3) 6300
  • (4) 6200
Correct Answer: (1) 6344
View Solution

Question 28:

The area (in sq. units) of the part of the circle x² + y² = 169 which is below the line 5x - y = 13 is (πα/2β) * 65² + (α/β) * sin⁻¹(12/13). The value of α + β is:

  • (1) 171
  • (2) 181
  • (3) 160
  • (4) 155
Correct Answer: (1) 171
View Solution

Question 29:

If (11C1)(11C2) + (11C2)(11C3) + ... + (11C9)(11C10) = n/m with gcd(n, m) = 1, then n + m is equal to:

  • (1) 2041
  • (2) 2050
  • (3) 2000
  • (4) 2060
Correct Answer: (1) 2041
View Solution

Using combinatorial identities and summation, the series simplifies to 2035/6. Thus, n = 2035 and m = 6, giving n + m = 2041.

Final Answer: 2041


Question 30:

A line with direction ratios 2, 1, 2 meets the lines x = y + 2 = z and x + 2 = 2y = 2z respectively at the points P and Q. If the length of the perpendicular from the point (1, 2, 12) to the line PQ is l, then l² is:

  • (1) 45
  • (2) 65
  • (3) 55
  • (4) 75
Correct Answer: (2) 65
View Solution
Question 31:

In the given circuit, the breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 3.0 V. What is the value of IZ?

  • (1) 3.3 mA
  • (2) 5.5 mA
  • (3) 10 mA
  • (4) 7 mA
Correct Answer: (2) 5.5 mA
View Solution

Question 32:

The electric current through a wire varies with time as I = I0 + βt, where I0 = 20 A and β = 3 A/s. The amount of electric charge that crosses through a section of the wire in 20 s is:

  • (1) 80 C
  • (2) 1000 C
  • (3) 800 C
  • (4) 1600 C
Correct Answer: (2) 1000 C
View Solution

Question 33:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If a capillary tube is immersed first in cold water and then in hot water, the height of capillary rise will be smaller in hot water.
Statement II: If a capillary tube is immersed first in cold water and then in hot water, the height of capillary rise will be smaller in cold water.

Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
View Solution

Question 34:

A convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm forms an image that is half the size of the object. The object distance is:

  • (1) −15 cm
  • (2) 45 cm
  • (3) −45 cm
  • (4) 15 cm
Correct Answer: (1) −15 cm
View Solution

Question 35:

Two charges of 5Q and −2Q are situated at the points (3a, 0) and (−5a, 0) respectively. The electric flux through a sphere of radius 4a having its center at the origin is:

  • (1) 2Q/ε0
  • (2) 5Q/ε0
  • (3) 7Q/ε0
  • (4) 3Q/ε0
Correct Answer: (2) 5Q/ε0
View Solution

Question 36:

A body starts moving from rest with constant acceleration and covers displacement S1 in the first (p−1) seconds and S2 in the first p seconds. The displacement S1 + S2 will be made in time:

  • (1) (2p + 1) s
  • (2) √(2p² − 2p + 1) s
  • (3) (2p − 1) s
  • (4) (2p² − 2p + 1) s
Correct Answer: (2) √(2p² − 2p + 1) s
View Solution

Question 37:

The potential energy function (in J) of a particle in a region of space is given as U = (2x² + 3y³ + 2z). Here x, y, and z are in meters. The magnitude of the x-component of force (in N) acting on the particle at point P (1, 2, 3) m is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 8
Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution

Question 38:

The resistance R = V/I where V = (200± 5)V and I = (20± 0.2)A. The percentage error in the measurement of R is:

  • (1) 3.5%
  • (2) 7%
  • (3) 3%
  • (4) 5.5%
Correct Answer: (1) 3.5%
View Solution

Question 39:

A block of mass 100 kg slides over a distance of 10 m on a horizontal surface. If the coefficient of friction between the surfaces is 0.4, then the work done against friction (in J) is:

  • (1) 4200 J
  • (2) 3900 J
  • (3) 4000 J
  • (4) 4500 J
Correct Answer: (3) 4000 J
View Solution

Question 40:

Match List I with List II:
List I
A. ∮ B· dl = µ₀ic + µ₀ε₀ dΦE/dt
B. ∮ E· dl = −dΦB/dt
C. ∮ E· dA = Q/ε₀
D. ∮ B· dA = 0
List II
I. Gauss' law for electricity
II. Gauss' law for magnetism
III. Faraday's law
IV. Ampere–Maxwell law

Correct Answer: (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution

A corresponds to Ampere–Maxwell law, B corresponds to Faraday's law, C corresponds to Gauss' law for electricity, and D corresponds to Gauss' law for magnetism.


Question 41:

If the radius of curvature of the path of two particles of the same mass are in the ratio 3:4, then in order to have constant centripetal force, their velocities will be in the ratio of:

  • (1) √3 : 2
  • (2) 1 : √3
  • (3) √3 : 1
  • (4) 2 : √3
Correct Answer: (1) √3 : 2
View Solution

Question 42:

A galvanometer having coil resistance 10 Ω shows a full scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. For it to measure a current of 8 A, the value of the shunt should be:

  • (1) 3× 10⁻³ Ω
  • (2) 4.85× 10⁻³ Ω
  • (3) 3.75× 10⁻³ Ω
  • (4) 2.75× 10⁻³ Ω
Correct Answer: (3) 3.75× 10⁻³ Ω
View Solution

Question 43:

The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the same as that of a photon. If the velocity of the electron is 25% of the velocity of light, then the ratio of the K.E. of the electron to the K.E. of the photon will be:

  • (1) 1/1
  • (2) 1/8
  • (3) 8 : 1
  • (4) 1/4
Correct Answer: (2) 1/8
View Solution

Question 44:

The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer falls from 25 divisions to 5 divisions when a shunt of 24Ω is applied. The resistance of the galvanometer coil will be:

  • (1) 12 Ω
  • (2) 96 Ω
  • (3) 48 Ω
  • (4) 100 Ω
Correct Answer: (2) 96 Ω
View Solution

Question 45:

A biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 will be:

  • (1) −16 cm
  • (2) −160 cm
  • (3) +160 cm
  • (4) +16 cm
Correct Answer: (2) −160 cm
View Solution
Question 46:

A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state A to an intermediate state B by a linear process as shown in the figure. Its volume is then reduced to the original value from B to C by an isobaric process. The total work done by the gas from A to B and B to C would be:

  • (1) 33,800 J
  • (2) 2,200 J
  • (3) 600 J
  • (4) 1,200 J
Correct Answer: (BONUS) 0 J
View Solution

Question 47:

At what distance above and below the surface of the earth a body will have the same weight (take radius of earth as R)?

  • (1) √5R−R
  • (2) √5R−R/2
  • (3) R/2
  • (4) R/2(√5−1)
Correct Answer: (4) R/2(√5−1)
View Solution

Question 48:

A capacitor of capacitance 100 µF is charged to a potential of 12 V and connected to a 6.4 mH inductor to produce oscillations. The maximum current in the circuit would be:

  • (1) 3.2 A
  • (2) 1.5 A
  • (3) 2.0 A
  • (4) 1.2 A
Correct Answer: (2) 1.5 A
View Solution

Question 49:

The explosive in a Hydrogen bomb is a mixture of 1H2, 1H3, and 3Li6 in some condensed form. The chain reaction is given by:
3Li6 + 0 n1 → 2 He4 + 1 H3
1H2 + 1H3 → 2 He4 + 0 n1
During the explosion, the energy released is approximately:

  • (1) 28.12 MeV
  • (2) 12.64 MeV
  • (3) 16.48 MeV
  • (4) 22.22 MeV
Correct Answer: (4) 22.22 MeV
View Solution

Question 50:

Two vessels A and B are of the same size and are at the same temperature. A contains 1 g of hydrogen and B contains 1 g of oxygen. PA and PB are the pressures of the gases in A and B respectively, then PA/PB is:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 32
Correct Answer: (1) 16
View Solution

Using the ideal gas equation and calculating the moles of hydrogen and oxygen, the ratio of their pressures is found to be 16.


Question 51:

When a hydrogen atom going from n = 2 to n = 1 emits a photon, its recoil speed is x/5 m/s. Where x = . (Use: mass of hydrogen atom = 1.6 × 10−27 kg)

Correct Answer: (17)
View Solution

Question 52:

A ball rolls off the top of a stairway with horizontal velocity u. The steps are 0.1 m high and 0.1 m wide. The minimum velocity u with which the ball just hits the step 5 of the stairway will be √x m/s, where x = . (Use g = 10 m/s²)

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 53:

A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.7 Ω is placed vertically in the east-west plane. A uniform magnetic field of 0.20 T is set up across the plane in the northeast direction. The magnetic field is decreased to zero in 1 s at a steady rate. Then, the magnitude of induced emf is √x × 10−3 V. The value of x is .

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 54:

A cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of inclination 60°. Its acceleration during rolling down will be x√3 m/s², where x = . (Use g = 10 m/s²)

Correct Answer: (10)
View Solution

Question 55:

The magnetic potential due to a magnetic dipole at a point on its axis situated at a distance of 20 cm from its center is 1.5 × 10−5 Tm. The magnetic moment of the dipole is Am². Given: µ₀ / 4π = 10−7 Tm/A

Correct Answer: (6)
View Solution
Question 56:

In a double slit experiment shown in the figure, when light of wavelength 400 nm is used, a dark fringe is observed at P. If D = 0.2 m, the minimum distance between the slits S1 and S2 is mm.

  • (1) 33,800 J
  • (2) 2,200 J
  • (3) 600 J
  • (4) 1,200 J
Correct Answer: (0.20 mm)
View Solution

Question 57:

A 16 Ω wire is bent to form a square loop. A 9 V battery with internal resistance 1 Ω is connected across one of its sides. If a 4 µF capacitor is connected across one of its diagonals, the energy stored by the capacitor will be x² µJ, where x = .

  • (1) 3.2 A
  • (2) 1.5 A
  • (3) 2.0 A
  • (4) 1.2 A
Correct Answer: (81)
View Solution

Question 58:

When the displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is one third of its amplitude, the ratio of total energy to the kinetic energy is x/8, where x = .

  • (1) 3.5%
  • (2) 7%
  • (3) 3%
  • (4) 5.5%
Correct Answer: 9
View Solution

59:

An electron is moving under the influence of the electric field of a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet S having surface charge density +σ. The electron at t = 0 is at a distance of 1 m from S and has a speed of 1 m/s. The maximum value of σ if the electron strikes S at t = 1 s is α[mϵ₀/e] C/m². The value of α is .

  • (1) 8
Correct Answer: 8
View Solution

60:

In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in a wind tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper and lower surfaces of the wings are 70 m/s and 65 m/s respectively. If the wing area is 2 m², the lift of the wing is N. Given: density of air = 1.2 kg/m³

  • (1) 810 N
Correct Answer: 810 N
View Solution

61:

Given below are two statements: Assertion A: The first ionisation enthalpy decreases across a period. Reason R: The increasing nuclear charge outweighs the shielding across the period.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  • (3) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer: (3) A is false but R is true
View Solution

62:

Match List I with List II
LIST-I (Substances) | LIST-II (Element Present)
A. Ziegler catalyst | I. Rhodium
B. Blood Pigment | II. Cobalt
C. Wilkinson catalyst | III. Iron
D. Vitamin B12 | IV. Titanium

  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution

63:

In chromyl chloride test for confirmation of Cl− ion, a yellow solution is obtained. Acidification of the solution and addition of amyl alcohol and 10% H2O2 turns organic layer blue indicating formation of chromium pentoxide. The oxidation state of chromium in that is:

  • (1) +6
Correct Answer: (1) +6
View Solution

64:

The difference in energy between the actual structure and the lowest energy resonance structure for the given compound is:
(1) electromeric energy
(2) resonance energy
(3) ionization energy
(4) hyperconjugation energy

  • (2) Resonance energy
Correct Answer: (2) Resonance energy
View Solution

65:

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The electronegativity of group 14 elements from Si to Pb gradually decreases. Statement II: Group 14 contains non-metallic, metallic, as well as metalloid elements.
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
View Solution

66:

The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
(1) 5, 0, 0, +1/2
(2) 5, 0, 1, +1/2
(3) 5, 1, 0, +1/2
(4) 5, 1, 1, +1/2

  • (1) 5, 0, 0, +1/2
Correct Answer: (1) 5, 0, 0, +1/2
View Solution


Question 67:

The major product (P) in the following reaction is:
(1) Structure 1
(2) Structure 2
(3) Structure 3
(4) Structure 4

  • (4) Structure 4
Correct Answer: (4) Structure 4
View Solution

Question 68:

The arenium ion which is not involved in the bromination of Aniline is:
(1) Structure 1
(2) Structure 2
(3) Structure 3
(4) Structure 4

  • (3) Structure 3
Correct Answer: (3) Structure 3
View Solution

Question 69:

Appearance of blood red colour on treatment of the sodium fusion extract of an organic compound with FeSO₄ in presence of concentrated H₂SO₄ indicates the presence of element(s):
(1) Br
(2) N
(3) N and S
(4) S

  • (3) N and S
Correct Answer: (3) N and S
View Solution

Question 70:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: Aryl halides cannot be prepared by replacement of hydroxyl group of phenol by halogen atom. Reason R: Phenols react with halogen acids violently.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  • (3) A is true but R is false
Correct Answer: (3) A is true but R is false
View Solution

Question 71:

Identify product A and product B:
(1) Product A is formed through electrophilic substitution, Product B is from radical substitution
(2) Product A is formed via nucleophilic addition, Product B through electrophilic addition
(3) Product A is a result of free radical addition, Product B via electrophilic substitution
(4) Product A is formed through a free radical mechanism, Product B through electrophilic addition

  • (4) Product A is formed through a free radical mechanism, Product B through electrophilic addition
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

In this reaction: Product A is formed through a free radical mechanism. Product B is formed through an electrophilic addition reaction on the alkene. The correct answer is option (4), where Product A is formed by the free radical mechanism and Product B is formed by electrophilic addition in the presence of CCl₄.


Question 72:

Identify the incorrect pair from the following:
(1) Fluorspar - BF₃
(2) Cryolite - Na₃AlF₆
(3) Fluoroapatite - 3Ca₃(PO₄)₂·CaF₂
(4) Carnallite - KCl·MgCl₂·6H₂O

  • (1) Fluorspar - BF₃
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 73:

The interaction between π bond and lone pair of electrons present on an adjacent atom is responsible for:
(1) Hyperconjugation
(2) Inductive effect
(3) Electromeric effect
(4) Resonance effect

  • (4) Resonance effect
Correct Answer: (4) Resonance effect
View Solution

Question 74:

KMnO₄ decomposes on heating at 513 K to form O₂ along with:
(1) MnO₂ & K₂O₂
(2) K₂MnO₄ & Mn
(3) Mn & KO₂
(4) K₂MnO₄ & MnO₂

  • (4) K₂MnO₄ & MnO₂
Correct Answer: (4) K₂MnO₄ & MnO₂
View Solution

The decomposition reaction of potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) at 513 K is as follows: KMnO₄ ∆ → K₂MnO₄ + MnO₂ + O₂. So, the correct option is: (4).


Question 75:

In which one of the following metal carbonyls, CO forms a bridge between metal atoms?
(1) [Co₂(CO)₈]
(2) [Mn₂(CO)₁₀]
(3) [Os₃(CO)₁₂]
(4) [Ru₃(CO)₁₂]

  • (1) [Co₂(CO)₈]
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution


Question 76:

Type of amino acids obtained by hydrolysis of proteins is:
(1) β
(2) α
(3) δ
(4) γ

  • (2) α
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 77:

The final product A formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is:

  • (1)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 78:

Which of the following is not correct?
(1) ∆G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
(2) ∆G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
(3) ∆G is zero for a reversible reaction
(4) ∆G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction

  • (2) ∆G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 79:

Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in alkaline medium as shown below:
aCl2(g) + bOH(aq) → cClO(aq) + dCl(aq) + eH2O(l)
The values of a, b, c, and d in a balanced redox reaction are respectively:

  • (1) 1, 2, 1, and 1
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 80:

In alkaline medium, MnO4 oxidizes I to:
(1) IO4
(2) IO
(3) I2
(4) IO3

  • (4) IO3
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 81:

Number of compounds with one lone pair of electrons on central atom amongst following is:
O₃, H₂O, SF₄, ClF₃, NH₃, BrF₅, XeF₄

  • 4
Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 82:

The mass of zinc produced by the electrolysis of zinc sulphate solution with a steady current of 0.015 A for 15 minutes is ×10⁻⁴ g.
(Atomic mass of zinc = 65.4 amu)

  • 2
Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 83:

For a reaction taking place in three steps at the same temperature, the overall rate constant K = K₁K₂ / K₃. If Eₐ₁, Eₐ₂, and Eₐ₃ are 40, 50, and 60 kJ/mol respectively, the overall Eₐ is kJ/mol.

  • 3
Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

The overall activation energy is \( E_a = E_{a1} + E_{a2} - E_{a3} = 40 + 50 - 60 = 30 \, \text{kJ/mol} \).


Question 84:

For the reaction N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g), Kₚ = 0.492 atm at 300K. Kc for the reaction at the same temperature is ×10⁻².
(Given: R = 0.082 L atm mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)

  • 2
Correct Answer: 2
View Solution


Question 85:

A solution of H₂SO₄ is 31.4% H₂SO₄ by mass and has a density of 1.25 g/mL. The molarity of the H₂SO₄ solution is M (nearest integer).
(Given molar mass of H₂SO₄ = 98 g mol⁻¹)

  • (4)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 86:

The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is 7 × 10⁵ Pa at 273 K. Osmotic pressure of the same solution at 283 K is ×10⁴ N/m².

  • (2)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 87:

Number of compounds among the following which contain sulfur as a heteroatom is:
Compounds: Furan, Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine, Tyrosine

  • 2
Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 88:

The number of species from the following which are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to one is:
Species: H₂, He₂⁺, O₂⁺, N₂⁻, O₂²⁻, F₂, Ne₂⁺, B₂

  • 1
Correct Answer: 1
View Solution

Question 89:

From the compounds given below, the number of compounds which give a positive Fehling's test is:
Compounds: Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Acetophenone, Methanal, 4-nitrobenzaldehyde, Cyclohexane carbaldehyde

  • 2
Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 90:

Consider the given reaction. The total number of oxygen atoms present per molecule of the product (P) is:
Reaction: CH₃ − CH = CH − CH₃ → (i) O₃, (ii) Zn/H₂O → 2CH₃ − C = O

  • 1
Correct Answer: 1
View Solution


Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Reliable Institute Physics
Chemistry
Resonance Physics
Chemistry
Maths
Vedantu Download PDF
Sri Chaitanya To be updated
FIIT JEE To be updated

JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Read More:

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 24 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper

JEE Main Questions

  • 1.

    The maximum speed of a boat in still water is 27 km/h. Now this boat is moving downstream in a river flowing at 9 km/h. A man in the boat throws a ball vertically upwards with speed of 10 m/s. Range of the ball as observed by an observer at rest on the river bank is _________ cm. (Take \( g = 10 \, {m/s}^2 \)).


      • 2.


        • 3.
          'X' is the number of acidic oxides among $ VO_2, V_2O_3, CrO_3, V_2O_5 $ and $ Mn_2O_7 $. The primary valency of cobalt in $ [Co(H_2NCH_2CH_2NH_2)_3]_2 (SO_4)_3 $ is Y. The value of X + Y is :

            • 5
            • 4
            • 2
            • 3

          • 4.
            A 400 g solid cube having an edge of length \(10\) cm floats in water. How much volume of the cube is outside the water? (Given: density of water = \(1000 { kg/m}^3\))

              • \( 600 { cm}^3 \)
              • \( 4000 { cm}^3 \)
              • \( 1400 { cm}^3 \)
              • \( 400 { cm}^3 \)

            • 5.
              The kinetic energy of translation of the molecules in 50 g of CO\(_2\) gas at 17°C is:

                • 4102.8 J
                • 4205.5 J
                • 3986.3 J
                • 3582.7 J

              • 6.

                For $ \alpha, \beta, \gamma \in \mathbb{R} $, if $$ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^2 \sin \alpha x + (\gamma - 1)e^{x^2} - 3}{\sin 2x - \beta x} = 3, $$ then $ \beta + \gamma - \alpha $ is equal to:

                  • 7
                  • 4
                  • 6
                  • –1

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