JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 Chemistry question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here . NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The Chemistry question paper for JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 includes 30 questions divided into 2 sections, Section 1 with 20 MCQs and Section 2 with 10 numerical questions. Candidates must attempt any 5 numerical questions out of 10. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the Jan 30 Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.
Related Links:
- JEE Main 2025 Question Paper pdf with solutions
- JEE Main Previous Years Question Paper with Solution PDF
JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper PDF Download
| JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper | JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Answer Key | JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Solution |
|---|---|---|
| Download PDF | Download PDF | Download PDF |
JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 Chemistry Questions with Solutions
| Question | Answer | Solution |
|---|---|---|
|
61. Given below are two statements:
|
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false | The gas liberated is H₂S, which reacts with lead acetate paper to form black PbS. Statement-I is true. However, the blackening is due to lead sulphide (PbS), not lead sulphite, making Statement-II false. |
|
62. This reduction reaction is known as:
|
(1) Rosenmund reduction | The reduction of acid chlorides to aldehydes in the presence of hydrogen and palladium on barium sulfate is called the Rosenmund reduction. |
|
63. Sugar which does not give reddish brown precipitate with Fehling’s reagent is:
|
(1) Sucrose | Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar as it lacks a free aldehyde or ketone group. It does not react with Fehling’s reagent, unlike other sugars that give a reddish-brown precipitate. |
|
64. Given below are the two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
|
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) | Both statements are true, but the small increase in covalent radius from As to Bi is due to poor shielding by d- and f-electrons, not the general trend described in Reason (R). |
|
65. Which of the following molecule/species is most stable?
|
(1) Aromatic compound | Aromatic compounds are the most stable due to their delocalized π-electrons, which follow Hückel’s rule (4n+2 π-electrons). |
|
66. Diamagnetic Lanthanoid ions are:
|
(2) La³⁺ and Ce⁴⁺ | Diamagnetic ions have all electrons paired. La³⁺ and Ce⁴⁺ have no unpaired electrons, making them diamagnetic. |
|
67. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms an ion having geometry:
|
(1) Octahedral | In acidified aqueous solution, AlCl₃ forms the complex [Al(H₂O)₆]³⁺, which has an octahedral geometry. |
|
68. Given below are two statements:
|
(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false | In a hydrogen atom, all orbitals with the same principal quantum number (such as 3s, 3p, and 3d) are degenerate. Therefore, Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect. |
|
69. Example of vinylic halide is:
|
(1) CH₂=CH–Cl | A vinylic halide has a halogen attached to a carbon atom that is part of a double bond (sp² hybridized). Option (1) is a vinylic halide because the halogen is attached to a sp² carbon in a C=C double bond. |
|
70. Structure of 4-Methylpent-2-enal is:
|
(4) CH₃ - CH = CH - C = C - H | The IUPAC name "4-Methylpent-2-enal" indicates a five-carbon chain, a double bond at position 2, an aldehyde group at position 1, and a methyl group at position 4. Option (4) matches this structure. |
|
71. Match List-I with List-II:
|
(4) (A) - IV, (B) - III, (C) - I, (D) - II | Using VSEPR theory, the molecular shapes are determined based on the number of bonding and lone pairs of electrons around the central atom. - BrF₅: Square pyramidal (IV) - H₂O: Bent (III) - ClF₃: T-shape (I) - SF₄: See-saw (II) |
|
72. The final product A, formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is:
|
(1) A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–Br | In the first step, sodium acetylide (CH₃–C≡CNa) is formed. Then, it reacts with 1-bromopropane (CH₃–CH₂–CH₂Br) to give the final product CH₃–C≡C–CH₂–CH₂–CH₃. |
|
73. In the given reactions, identify the reagent A and reagent B:
|
(2) A-CrO₃, B-CrO₂Cl₂ | In the first step, sodium acetylide (CH₃–C≡CNa) is formed when the alkyne reacts with Na. In the second step, CrO₃ (Chromium trioxide) is used to oxidize the acetylide to an aldehyde. In the second reaction, CrO₂Cl₂ is used for further functionalization, leading to the final product CH₃–C≡C–CH₂–CH₂–CH₃. |
|
74. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
|
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false | CH₂=CH−CH₂−Cl is an allyl halide because the halogen is attached to the carbon adjacent to the C=C double bond (sp³ hybridized). However, the definition in Reason (R) is incorrect because allyl halides have the halogen attached to an sp³ carbon, not sp². |
|
75. What happens to the freezing point of benzene when a small quantity of naphthalene is added to benzene?
|
(4) Decreases | When a non-volatile solute like naphthalene is added to benzene, it causes a depression in the freezing point due to the lowering of the vapor pressure. |
|
76. Match List-I with List-II:
|
(1) (A) - I, (B) - II, (C) - III, (D) - IV | The electronic configurations of the ions are as follows: - Cr²⁺: 3d⁴ (I) - Mn⁺: 3d⁵4s¹ (II) - Ni²⁺: 3d⁸ (III) - V⁺: 3d³4s¹ (IV) |
|
77. Compound A formed in the following reaction reacts with B, giving the product C.
|
A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–Br | In the first reaction, sodium acetylide (CH₃–C≡CNa) is formed when the alkyne reacts with sodium metal. In the second reaction, the acetylide reacts with 1-bromopropane (CH₃–CH₂–CH₂Br) to give the final product, CH₃–C≡C–CH₂–CH₂–CH₃. |
| 78. Following is a confirmatory test for aromatic primary amines. Identify reagent (A) and (B). A: NaNO₂ + HCl, 0–5°C B: Phenol Find out A and B. |
A = NaNO₂ + HCl, B = Phenol | This is the diazotization reaction, where primary aromatic amines react with sodium nitrite (NaNO₂) in the presence of HCl to form diazonium salts. The diazonium salt then couples with phenol to form a red azo dye. |
|
79. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with dilute HNO₃ before testing for halogens because:
|
(4) Na₂S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO₃ | The Lassaigne’s test is used for detecting halogens, nitrogen, and sulfur. The extract is treated with dilute nitric acid (HNO₃) to decompose sodium cyanide (NaCN) and sodium sulfide (Na₂S), which might otherwise interfere with the halogen test. |
|
80. Choose the correct statements from the following:
|
(3) (B), (C), (D), (E) only | - (B) Metallic aluminium is produced by electrolyzing alumina in the presence of cryolite. - (C) Cyanide ion forms complexes with silver and is used in the leaching process. - (D) Phosphine acts as a ligand in the Wilkinson catalyst (used in hydrogenation reactions). - (E) The stability constants of Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ with EDTA are quite similar due to their similar ionic sizes. |
| 81. The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol·L−1·s−1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol·L−1·s−1 at 20 minutes after initiation. The half-life of the reaction is: | 24 minutes | For a first-order reaction, using the integrated rate law and the given rate data at two different times, we can find the rate constant k. Then, the half-life (t1/2) is calculated using t1/2 = 0.693/k. Substituting the values, the half-life is found to be 24 minutes. |
| 82. The pH at which Mg(OH)₂ [Ksp = 1 × 10⁻¹¹] begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10 M Mg²⁺ ions is: |
9 | Precipitation occurs when the ion product (Q) exceeds the solubility product (Ksp). Using the solubility product expression for Mg(OH)₂, we calculate the OH⁻ concentration required for precipitation. From this, the pH is calculated as 9. |
| 83. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from the point A and coming back to the same point by tracing the path A → B → C → A as shown in the diagram. The total work done in the process is: |
200 J | The total work done by the gas in a cyclic process is equal to the area enclosed by the path on the P-V diagram. The area is calculated to be 200 J. |
| 84. If the IUPAC name of an element is "Unununnium", then the element belongs to nth group of the periodic table. The value of n is: |
11 | "Unununnium" corresponds to element 111, which belongs to Group 11 of the periodic table. |
| 85. The total number of molecular orbitals formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals of a diatomic molecule is: |
8 | From the 2s and 2p atomic orbitals, we form 8 molecular orbitals in total: 2 from 2s (σ2s, σ*2s) and 6 from 2p (σ2pz, σ*2pz, π2px, π2py, π*2px, π*2py). |
| 86. On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an organic compound moved by 3.5 cm, while the solvent moved by 5 cm. The retardation factor of the organic compound is ×10−1: | 7 | The retardation factor (Rf) is calculated as the ratio of the distance traveled by the compound to the distance traveled by the solvent: Rf = (3.5 cm) / (5 cm) = 0.7 = 7 × 10−1. |
| 87. The compound formed by the reaction of ethanol with semicarbazide contains number of nitrogen atoms. |
3 | The reaction between ethanol and semicarbazide forms an imine (semicarbazone), which contains three nitrogen atoms: two from the semicarbazide group and one from the imine bond. |
| 88. A 0.05 cm thick coating of silver is deposited on a plate of 0.05 m² area. The number of silver atoms deposited on the plate is ×1023 (At. mass Ag = 108, d = 7.9 g/cm³): | 11 |
Area into cm²: 0.05 m² = 0.05 × (100 cm × 100 cm) = 0.05 × 10,000 cm² = 500 cm². Volume = Area × Thickness = 500 cm² × 0.05 cm = 25 cm³. Mass = Density × Volume = 7.9 g/cm³ × 25 cm³ = 197.5 g. Moles = Mass / Atomic mass = 197.5 g / 108 g/mol ≈ 1.83 mol. Number of atoms = Moles × Avogadro's number ≈ 1.83 × 6.022 × 10²³ ≈ 1.1 × 10²⁴ atoms. This can be expressed as 11 × 10²³ atoms. |
| 89. 2MnO₄⁻ + 6I⁻ + 4H₂O → 3I₂ + 2MnO₂ + 8OH⁻. If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of z is: |
8 | The equation is balanced by comparing the reduction and oxidation half-reactions. The value of z, representing the number of hydroxide ions produced, is 8. |
| 90. The mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) required to prepare 250 mL of 0.35 M aqueous solution is (in grams). (Molar mass of CH3COONa is 82.02 g/mol) | 7 | First, convert the volume to liters: 250 mL = 0.250 L. Moles required = Molarity × Volume = 0.35 mol/L × 0.250 L = 0.0875 mol. Mass = Moles × Molar mass = 0.0875 mol × 82.02 g/mol ≈ 7.18 g. Rounded off, this is approximately 7 g. |
Also Check:
| JEE Main 2024 Paper Analysis | JEE Main 2024 Answer Key |
| JEE Main 2024 Cutoff | JEE Main 2024 Marks vs Rank |
JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper by Coaching Institute
| Coaching Institutes | Question Paper with Solutions PDF |
|---|---|
| Aakash BYJUs | To be updated |
| Reliable Institute | To be updated |
| Resonance | To be updated |
| Vedantu | To be updated |
| Sri Chaitanya | To be updated |
| FIIT JEE | To be updated |
JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 Chemistry Paper Analysis
JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 1 Chemistry paper analysis is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.
JEE Main 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern
| Feature | Question Paper Pattern |
|---|---|
| Examination Mode | Computer-based Test |
| Exam Language | 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu) |
| Sectional Time Duration | None |
| Total Marks | 100 marks |
| Total Number of Questions Asked | 30 Questions |
| Total Number of Questions to be Answered | 25 questions |
| Type of Questions | MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions |
| Section-wise Number of Questions | 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type, |
| Marking Scheme | +4 for each correct answer |
| Negative Marking | -1 for each incorrect answer |
Read More:
- JEE Main 2024 question paper pattern and marking scheme
- Most important chapters in JEE Mains 2024, Check chapter wise weightage here
| Exam Date and Shift | Question Paper PDF |
|---|---|
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 24 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 27 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 27 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 30 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 30 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 31 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Jan 31 Shift 2 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 1 | Check Here |
| JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 2 | Check Here |










Comments