JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Jan 30 Shift 1- Download PDF

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Ratnam Agarwal

Content Writer| Mechanical Engineer| Engineering Specialist | Updated 3+ months ago

JEE Main 2023 Jan 30 Shift 1 Question Paper is available for download here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2023 Jan 30 Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM for B.E./B.Tech paper. Candidates can download the memory-based JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF with Solution and Answer Key for Jan 30 Shift 1 using the link below. JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Jan 30 Shift 1 was reported to be moderate in terms of overall difficulty. Students found Physics moderate to tough, Chemistry difficult and Mathematics easy to moderate. 

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JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Jan 30 Shift 1- Download PDF

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Question 1:

Let
\[ A = \begin{bmatrix} m & n
p & q \end{bmatrix}, \, d = |A| \neq 0, \, and |A - d(Adj A)| = 0. \]
Then:

  • (1) \((1 + d)^2 = (m + q)^2\)
  • (2) \(1 + d^2 = (m + q)^2\)
  • (3) \((1 + d)^2 = m^2 + q^2\)
  • (4) \(1 + d^2 = m^2 + q^2\)
Correct Answer: (1) \((1 + d)^2 = (m + q)^2\)

View Solution

Question 2:

The line \( \ell_1 \) passes through the point \( (2, 6, 2) \) and is perpendicular to the plane \( 2x + y - 2z = 10 \). Then the shortest distance between the line \( \ell_1 \) and the line
\[ \frac{x+1}{2} = \frac{y+4}{-3} = \frac{z}{2} \]
is:

  • (1) 7
  • (2) \( \frac{19}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{19}{2} \)
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer: (4) 9

View Solution

Question 3:

If an unbiased die, marked with \( -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 \) on its faces, is thrown five times, then the probability that the product of the outcomes is positive, is:

  • (1) \( \frac{881}{2592} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{521}{2592} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{440}{2592} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{27}{288} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{521}{2592} \)

View Solution

Question 4:

Let the system of linear equations

x + y + kz = 2

2x + 3y - z = 1

3x + 4y + 2z = k

have infinitely many solutions. Then the system

(k+1)x + (2k-1)y = 7

(2k+1)x + (k+5)y = 10

has:

  • (1) infinitely many solutions
  • (2) unique solution satisfying \( x - y = 1 \)
  • (3) no solution
  • (4) unique solution satisfying \( x + y = 1 \)
Correct Answer: (4) unique solution satisfying \( x + y = 1 \)

View Solution

Question 5:

If
\[ \tan 15^\circ + \frac{1}{\tan 75^\circ} + \tan 105^\circ + \tan 195^\circ = 2a, \]
then the value of \( a + \frac{1}{a} \) is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) \( 4 - 2\sqrt{3} \)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) \( 5 - 3\sqrt{3} \)
Correct Answer: (1) 4}

View Solution

Question 6:

Suppose \( f : \mathbb{R} \to (0, \infty) \) be a differentiable function such that \( 5f(x + y) = f(x) \cdot f(y), \, \forall x, y \in \mathbb{R} \). If \( f(3) = 320 \), then \( \sum_{n=0}^{5} f(n) \) is equal to:

  • (1) 6875
  • (2) 6575
  • (3) 6825
  • (4) 6528
Correct Answer: (3) 6825

View Solution

Question 7:

If \[ a_n = \frac{-2}{4n^2 - 16n + 15}, \quad then \quad a_1 + a_2 + \dots + a_5 is equal to: \]

  • (1) \( \frac{51}{144} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{49}{138} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{50}{141} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{52}{147} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{50}{141} \)

View Solution

Question 8:

If the coefficient of \( x^{15} \) in the expansion of \[ \left(ax^3 + \frac{1}{bx^3}\right)^{15} \]
is equal to the coefficient of \( x^{-15} \) in the expansion of \[ \left(\frac{a}{x^3} - \frac{1}{bx^3}\right)^{15}, \]
where \( a \) and \( b \) are positive real numbers, then for each such ordered pair \( (a, b) \):

  • (1) \( a = b \)
  • (2) \( ab = 1 \)
  • (3) \( a = 3b \)
  • (4) \( ab = 3 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( ab = 1 \)

View Solution

Question 9:

If \( \mathbf{a}, \mathbf{b}, \mathbf{c} \) are three non-zero vectors and \( \hat{n} \) is a unit vector perpendicular to \( \mathbf{c} \) such that \[ \mathbf{a} = \alpha \mathbf{b} - \hat{n}, \quad (\alpha \neq 0) \]
and \[ \mathbf{\overrightarrow{b}} \cdot \mathbf{\overrightarrow{c}} = 12, \quad then \quad \left| \mathbf{\overrightarrow{c}} \times (\mathbf{\overrightarrow{a} } \times \mathbf{\overrightarrow{b}}) \right| \]
is equal to:

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (3) 12

View Solution

Question 10:

The number of points on the curve \[ y = 54x^5 - 135x^4 - 70x^3 + 180x^2 + 210x \]
at which the normal lines are parallel to \[ x + 90y + 2 = 0 \]
is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (3) 4

View Solution

Question 11:

Let \[ y = x + 2, \quad 4y = 3x + 6, \quad and \quad 3y = 4x + 1 \]
be three tangent lines to the circle \[ (x - h)^2 + (y - k)^2 = r^2. \]
Then \( h + k \) is equal to:

  • (1) 5
  • (2) \( 5(1 + \sqrt{2}) \)
  • (3) 6
  • (4) \( 5\sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) 5

View Solution

Question 12:

Let the solution curve \( y = y(x) \) of the differential equation \[ \frac{dy}{dx} - \frac{3x^5 \tan^{-1}(x^3)}{(1+x^6)^{3/2}} y = 2x \] \[exp \frac{x^3-\tan^{-1}x^3}{\sqrt{(1+x)^6}}\]pass through the origin. Then \( y(1) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \exp\left(\frac{4 - \pi}{4\sqrt{2}}\right) \)
  • (2) \( \exp\left(\frac{\pi - 4}{4\sqrt{2}}\right) \)
  • (3) \( \exp\left(\frac{1 - \pi}{4\sqrt{2}}\right) \)
  • (4) \( \exp\left(\frac{4 + \pi}{4\sqrt{2}}\right) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \exp\left(\frac{4 - \pi}{4\sqrt{2}}\right) \)

View Solution

Question 13:

Let a unit vector \( \overrightarrow{OP} \) make angles \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) with the positive directions of the coordinate axes \( OX, OY, OZ \) respectively, where \( \beta \in \left( 0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \), and \( \overrightarrow{OP} \) is perpendicular to the plane through points \( (1, 2, 3) \), \( (2, 3, 4) \), and \( (1, 5, 7) \). Then which one of the following is true?

  • (1) \( \alpha \in \left( \frac{\pi}{2}, \pi \right) \) and \( \gamma \in \left( \frac{\pi}{2}, \pi \right)
  • (2) \( \alpha \in \left( 0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \) and \( \gamma \in \left( 0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right)
  • (3) \( \alpha \in \left( \frac{\pi}{2}, \pi \right) \) and \( \gamma \in \left( 0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right)
  • (4) \( \alpha \in \left( 0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \) and \( \gamma \in \left( \frac{\pi}{2}, \pi \right) \)
Correct Answer: (1)} \( \alpha \in \left( \frac{\pi}{2}, \pi \right) \) and \( \gamma \in \left( \frac{\pi}{2}, \pi \right)

View Solution

Question 14:

If \([t]\) denotes the greatest integer \(\leq 1\), then the value of \[ \frac{3(e-1)^2}{e} \int_{1}^{2} x^2 e^{[x] + [x^3]} dx \]
is:

  • (1) \( e^9 - e \)
  • (2) \( e^8 - e \)
  • (3) \( e^7 - 1 \)
  • (4) \( e^8 - 1 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( e^8 - e \)

View Solution

Question 15:

If \( P(h,k) \) be a point on the parabola \( x = 4y^2 \), which is nearest to the point \( Q(0, 33) \), then the distance of \( P \) from the directrix of the parabola \( y^2 = 4(x + y) \) is equal to:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (4) 6

View Solution

Question 16:

A straight line cuts off the intercepts \( OA = a \) and \( OB = b \) on the positive directions of the \( x \)-axis and \( y \)-axis, respectively. If the perpendicular from the origin \( O \) to this line makes an angle of \( \frac{\pi}{6} \) with the positive direction of the \( y \)-axis and the area of \( \triangle OAB \) is \( \frac{98}{3} \sqrt{3} \), then \( a^2 - b^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{392}{3} \)
  • (2) \( 196 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{196}{3} \)
  • (4) \( 98 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{392}{3} \)

View Solution

Question 17:

The coefficient of \( x^{301} \) in \[ (1 + x)^{500} + x(1 + x)^{499} + x^2(1 + x)^{498} + \dots + x^{500} \]
is:

  • (1) \( ^{501}C_{302} \)
  • (2) \( ^{500}C_{301} \)
  • (3) \( ^{500}C_{300} \)
  • (4) \( ^{501}C_{200} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( ^{501}C_{200} \)

View Solution

Question 18:

Among the statements:

(S1) \( \left( (p \lor q) \Rightarrow r \right) \Leftrightarrow \left( p \Rightarrow r \right) \)

(S2) \( \left( (p \lor q) \Rightarrow r \right) \Leftrightarrow \left( (p \Rightarrow r) \lor (q \Rightarrow r) \right) \)

Which of the following is true?

  • (1) Only (S1) is a tautology
  • (2) Neither (S1) nor (S2) is a tautology
  • (3) Only (S2) is a tautology
  • (4) Both (S1) and (S2) are tautologies
Correct Answer: (2) Neither (S1) nor (S2) is a tautology

View Solution

Question 19:

The minimum number of elements that must be added to the relation \[ R = \{(a, b), (b, c)\} \]
on the set \[ \{a, b, c\} \]
so that it becomes symmetric and transitive is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (2) 7

View Solution

Question 20:

If the solution of the equation \[ \log_{\cos x} \cot x + 4 \log_{\sin x} \tan x = 1, \, x \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right), \]
is \[ \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{\alpha + \sqrt{\beta}}{2}\right), \]
where \( \alpha, \beta \) are integers, then \( \alpha + \beta \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 3 \)
  • (2) \( 5 \)
  • (3) \( 6 \)
  • (4) \( 4 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 4 \)

View Solution

Question 21:

Let \( S = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6\} \). Then the number of one-one functions \( f: S \to P(S) \), where \( P(S) \) denotes the power set of \( S \), such that \( f(n) \subset f(m) \) where \( n < m \), is ____.

Correct Answer: (3240)

View Solution

Question 22:

Let \( \alpha \) be the area of the larger region bounded by the curve \[ y^2 = 8x \]
and the lines \[ y = x \quad and \quad x = 2, \]
which lies in the first quadrant. Then the value of \( 3\alpha \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: 22

View Solution

Question 23:

\(\lambda\)\(_1\) \(<\) \(\lambda\)\(_2\) are two values of \(\lambda\) such that the angle between the planes \[ P_1 : \vec{r} \cdot (3\hat{i} - 5\hat{j} + \hat{k}) = 7 \]
and \[ P_2 : \vec{r} \cdot (\lambda \hat{i} + \hat{j} - 3\hat{k}) = 9 \]
is \(\sin^{-1} \left( \frac{2\sqrt{6}}{5} \right)\), then the square of the length of the perpendicular from the point \((38\lambda, 10\lambda, 2)\) to the plane \(P_1\) is _____.

 

Correct Answer: 315

View Solution

Question 24:

Let \( z = 1 + i \) and \( z_1 = \frac{1 + i\bar{z}}{\bar{z}(1-z) + \frac{1}{z}} \). Then \( \frac{12}{\pi} \, arg(z_1) \) is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: 9

View Solution

Question 25:

\[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{48}{x^4} \int_{0}^{x} \frac{t^3}{t^6 + 1} \, dt is equal to \_\_\_\_\_. \]

Correct Answer: 12}

View Solution

Question 26:

The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and 16, respectively. If one observation 14 is omitted and \( a \) and \( b \) are respectively the mean and variance of the remaining 6 observations, then \( a + 3b - 5 \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: 37}

View Solution

Question 27:

If the equation of the plane passing through the point \( (1, 1, 2) \) and perpendicular to the line \[ x - 3y + 2z - 1 = 0, \quad 4x - y + z = 0 \quad is \quad Ax + By + Cz = 1, \]
then \( 140(C - B + A) \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: 15

View Solution

Question 28:


Let \[ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{n^3 \big( (2n)! \big) + (2n-1)(n!)}{(n!)(2n)!} = a e + \frac{b}{e} + c, \]
where \(a, b, c \in \mathbb{Z}\) and \(e = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!}\). Then \(a^2 - b + c\) is equal to ______.

 

Correct Answer: 26}

View Solution

Question 29:

Number of 4-digit numbers (the repetition of digits is allowed) which are made using the digits 1, 2, 3, and 5 and are divisible by 15 is equal to:

Correct Answer: 21
View Solution

Question 30:

Let \[ f^1(x) = \frac{3x + 2}{2x + 3}, \quad x \in \mathbb{R}, \quad R - \left( -\frac{3}{2} \right). \]
For \( n \geq 2 \), define \( f^n(x) = f^10f^{n-1}(x) \) and if
\[
f^5(x) = \frac{ax + b{bx + a, \quad \gcd(a, b) = 1, \quad \text{then \quad a + b \text{ is equal to:

Correct Answer: 3125}

View Solution

Question 31:

The charge flowing in a conductor changes with time as \[ Q(t) = \alpha t - \beta t^2 + \gamma t^3, \]
where \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) are constants. The minimum value of current is:

  • (1) \( \alpha - \frac{3\beta^2}{\gamma} \)
  • (2) \( \alpha - \frac{\gamma^2}{3\beta} \)
  • (3) \( \beta - \frac{\alpha^2}{3\gamma} \)
  • (4) \( \alpha - \frac{\beta^2}{3\gamma} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \alpha - \frac{\beta^2}{3\gamma} \)

View Solution

Question 32:

The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation \( PT^2 = constant \). The volume expansion coefficient of the gas will be:

  • (1) \( 3T^2 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{T^2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{T^3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{T} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{3}{T} \)

View Solution

Question 33:

A person has been using spectacles of power -1.0 diopter for distant vision and a separate reading glass of power 2.0 diopters. What is the least distance of distinct vision for this person?

  • (1) 10 cm
  • (2) 40 cm
  • (3) 30 cm
  • (4) 50 cm
Correct Answer: (4) 50 cm}
View Solution

Question 34:

As per the given figure, a small ball P slides down the quadrant of a circle and hits the other ball Q of equal mass which is initially at rest. Neglecting the effect of friction and assume the collision to be elastic, the velocity of ball Q after collision will be: (g = 10 m/s\(^2\))

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) 0.25 m/s
  • (3) 2 m/s
  • (4) 4 m/s
Correct Answer: (3) 2 m/s

View Solution

Question 35:

Choose the correct relationship between Poisson ratio (\( \sigma \)), bulk modulus (\( K \)) and modulus of rigidity (\( \eta \)) of a given solid object:

  • (1) \( \sigma = \frac{3K - 2\eta}{6K + 2\eta} \)
  • (2) \( \sigma = \frac{6K + 2\eta}{3K - 2\eta} \)
  • (3) \( \sigma = \frac{3K + 2\eta}{6K + 2\eta} \)
  • (4) \( \sigma = \frac{6K - 2\eta}{3K + 2\eta} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \sigma = \frac{3K - 2\eta}{6K + 2\eta} \)

View Solution

Question 36:

The magnetic moments associated with two closely wound circular coils A and B of radius \( r_A = 10 \, cm \) and \( r_B = 20 \, cm \) respectively are equal if: (Where \( N_A, I_A \) and \( N_B, I_B \) are number of turns and current of A and B respectively)

  • (1) \( 2N_A I_A = N_B I_B \)
  • (2) \( N_A = 2N_B \)
  • (3) \( N_A I_A = 4N_B I_B \)
  • (4) \( 4N_A I_A = N_B I_B \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( N_A I_A = 4N_B I_B \)

View Solution

Question 37:

A small object at rest absorbs a light pulse of power 20 mW and duration 300 ns. Assuming speed of light as \( 3 \times 10^8 \, m/s \), the momentum of the object becomes equal to:

  • (1) \( 0.5 \times 10^{-17} \, kg m/s \)
  • (2) \( 2 \times 10^{-17} \, kg m/s \)
  • (3) \( 3 \times 10^{-17} \, kg m/s \)
  • (4) \( 1 \times 10^{-17} \, kg m/s \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 2 \times 10^{-17} \, \text{kg m/s} \)

View Solution

Question 38:

Speed of an electron in Bohr's 7\(^th\) orbit for Hydrogen atom is \( 3.6 \times 10^6 \, m/s \). The corresponding speed of the electron in the 3\(^rd\) orbit, in m/s, is:

  • (1) \( 1.8 \times 10^6 \, m/s \)
  • (2) \( 7.5 \times 10^6 \, m/s \)
  • (3) \( 3.6 \times 10^6 \, m/s \)
  • (4) \( 8.4 \times 10^6 \, m/s \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 8.4 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \)

View Solution

Question 39:

A massless square loop, of wire resistance 10 \(\Omega\), supporting a mass of 1 g, hangs vertically with one of its sides in a uniform magnetic field of \( 10^3 \, G \), directed outwards in the shaded region. A dc voltage \( V \) is applied to the loop. For what value of \( V \) will the magnetic force exactly balance the weight of the supporting mass of 1 g? (If sides of the loop = 10 cm, \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \))


  • (1) \( \frac{1}{10} \, V \)
  • (2) 100 V
  • (3) 1 V
  • (4) 10 V
Correct Answer: (4) 10 V

View Solution

Question 40:

Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii \( R \) and \( 2R \) are charged such that both have the same charge density \( \sigma \). The spheres are then connected by a thin conducting wire. If the new charge density of the bigger sphere is \( \sigma' \), the ratio \( \frac{\sigma'}{\sigma} \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{9}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{6} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{5}{6} \)

View Solution

Question 41:

Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.

A. Internal energy of the gas will decrease.

B. Internal energy of the gas will increase.

C. Internal energy of the gas will not change.

D. The gas will do positive work.

E. The gas will do negative work.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and E only
  • (2) B and D only
  • (3) C and E only
  • (4) C and D only
Correct Answer: (4) C and D only

View Solution

Question 42:

Electric field in a certain region is given by \( \mathbf{E} = \left( \frac{A}{x^2} \hat{i} + \frac{B}{y^3} \hat{j} \right) \). The SI unit of \( A \) and \( B \) are:

  • (1) \( Nm^2 C^{-1} \), \( Nm^2 C^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( Nm^2 C^{-1} \), \( Nm^3 C^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( Nm^3 C \), \( Nm^3 C \)
  • (4) \( Nm^2 C^{-1} \), \( Nm^3 C \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{Nm}^2 \text{C}^{-1} \), \( \text{Nm}^3 \text{C}^{-1} \)

View Solution

Question 43:

The output waveform of the given logical circuit for the following inputs A and B is shown below:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (4)

View Solution

Question 44:

The height of the liquid column raised in a capillary tube of certain radius when dipped in liquid A vertically is 5 cm. If the tube is dipped in a similar manner in another liquid B of surface tension and density double the values of liquid A, the height of the liquid column raised in liquid B would be:

  • (1) 0.20
  • (2) 0.5
  • (3) 0.10
  • (4) 0.05
Correct Answer: (3) 0.05

View Solution

Question 45:

A sinusoidal carrier voltage is amplitude modulated. The resultant amplitude modulated wave has maximum and minimum amplitude of 120 V and 80 V respectively. The amplitude of each sideband is:

  • (1) 15 V
  • (2) 10 V
  • (3) 20 V
  • (4) 5 V
Correct Answer: (2) 10 V

View Solution

Question 46:

In a series LR circuit with \( X_L = R \), the power factor is \( P_1 \). If a capacitor of capacitance \( C \) with \( X_C = X_L \) is added to the circuit, the power factor becomes \( P_2 \). The ratio of \( P_1 \) to \( P_2 \) will be:

  • (1) 3:1
  • (2) 1:\(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) 1:1
  • (4) 1:2
Correct Answer: (2) 1:\(\sqrt{2}\)

View Solution

Question 47:

If the gravitational field in the space is given as \( -\frac{K}{r^2} \), taking the reference point to be at \( r = 2 \, cm \) with gravitational potential \( V = 10 \, J/kg \), find the gravitational potential at \( r = 3 \, cm \) in SI units. (Given that \( K = 6 \, J cm/kg \))

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer: (2) 11

View Solution

Question 48:

A ball of mass 200 g rests on a vertical post of height 20 m. A bullet of mass 10 g, travelling in horizontal direction, hits the centre of the ball. After collision both travel independently. The ball hits the ground at a distance of 30 m and the bullet at a distance of 120 m from the foot of the post. The value of initial velocity of the bullet will be (if \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \)):

  • (1) 120 m/s
  • (2) 60 m/s
  • (3) 400 m/s
  • (4) 360 m/s
Correct Answer: (4) 360 m/s

View Solution

Question 49:

Match Column-I with Column-II:

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Correct Answer: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

View Solution

Question 50:

The figure represents the momentum time (\( p-t \)) curve for a particle moving along an axis under the influence of the force. Identify the regions on the graph where the magnitude of the force is maximum and minimum respectively? If \( t_3 - t_2 < t_1 \):

  • (1) c and a
  • (2) b and c
  • (3) c and b
  • (4) a and b
Correct Answer: (3) c and b

View Solution

Question 51:

The general displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is \( x = A \sin(\omega t) \). Let \( T \) be its time period. The slope of its potential energy (\( U \)) - time (\( t \)) curve will be maximum when \( t = \frac{T}{\beta} \). The value of \( \beta \) is:

Correct Answer: 8

View Solution

Question 52:

A capacitor of capacitance 900 µF is charged by a 100 V battery. The capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged identical capacitor such that one plate of the uncharged capacitor is connected to the positive plate and another plate of the uncharged capacitor is connected to the negative plate of the charged capacitor. The loss of energy in this process is measured as \( x \times 10^{-2} \) J. The value of \( x \) is:

Correct Answer: 225

View Solution

Question 53:

In Young's double slit experiment, two slits \( S_1 \) and \( S_2 \) are ‘d’ distance apart and the separation from slits to screen is \( D \) (as shown in figure). Now if two transparent slabs of equal thickness 0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and 1.55 are introduced in the path of beam (\( \lambda = 4000 \, Å \)) from \( S_1 \) and \( S_2 \) respectively. The central bright fringe spot will shift by ____ number of fringes.

Correct Answer: 10

View Solution

Question 54:

In the following circuit, the magnitude of current \( I_1 \) is ____ A.


Correct Answer: 2

View Solution

Question 55:

A horse rider covers half the distance with 5 m/s speed. The remaining part of the distance was travelled with speed 10 m/s for half the time and with speed 15 m/s for other half of the time. The mean speed of the rider averaged over the whole time of motion is \( \frac{x}{7} \) m/s. The value of \( x \) is:

Correct Answer: 50

View Solution

Question 56:

A point source of light is placed at the centre of curvature of a hemispherical surface. The source emits a power of 24 W. The radius of curvature of the hemisphere is 10 cm and the inner surface is completely reflecting. The force on the hemisphere due to the light falling on it is _____ × \( 10^{-8} \) N.

Correct Answer: 4

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Question 57:

As per the given figure, if \( \frac{dI}{dt} = -1 \, A/s \), then the value of \( V_{AB} \) at this instant will be ____ V.

Correct Answer: 30

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Question 58:

In a screw gauge, there are 100 divisions on the circular scale and the main scale moves by 0.5 mm on a complete rotation of the circular scale. The zero of circular scale lies 6 divisions below the line of graduation when two studs are brought in contact with each other. When a wire is placed between the studs, 4 linear scale divisions are clearly visible while the 46th division the circular scale coincide with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is ______ \( \times 10^{-2} \) mm.

Correct Answer: 220

View Solution

Question 59:

In an experiment for estimating the value of focal length of a converging mirror, image of an object placed at 40 cm from the pole of the mirror is formed at a distance 120 cm from the pole of the mirror. These distances are measured with a modified scale in which there are 20 small divisions in 1 cm. The value of error in measurement of focal length of the mirror is \( 1/K \) cm. The value of \( K \) is _____.

Correct Answer: 32

View Solution

Question 60:

A thin uniform rod of length 2m, cross-sectional area ‘A’ and density ‘d’ is rotated about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to its length with angular velocity \( \omega \). If value of \( \omega \) in terms of its rotational kinetic energy \( E \) is:
\[ E = \frac{\alpha E}{Ad} \]

Then the value of \( \alpha \) is _____.

Correct Answer: 3

View Solution

Question 61:

Which of the following compounds would give the following set of qualitative analysis?

  • (i) Fehling’s Test: Positive
  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (4) }

View Solution

Question 62:

What is the correct order of acidity of the protons marked A-D in the given compounds?

  • (1) H\(_C\) \(>\) H\(_D\) \(>\) H\(_B\) \(>\) H\(_A\)
  • (2) H\(_C\) \(>\) H\(_D\) \(>\) H\(_A\) \(>\) H\(_B\)
  • (3) H\(_D\) \(>\) H\(_C\) \(>\) H\(_B\) \(>\) H\(_A\)
  • (4) H\(_C\) \(>\) H\(_A\) \(>\) H\(_D\) \(>\) H\(_B\)
Correct Answer: (2) H\(_C\) \(>\) H\(_D\) \(>\) H\(_A\) \(>\) H\(_B\)

View Solution

Question 63:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Ketoses give Seliwanoff's test faster than Aldoses.

Reason (R): Ketoses undergo β-elimination followed by formation of furfural.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

View Solution

Question 64:

In the extraction of copper, its sulphide ore is heated in a reverberatory furnace after mixing with silica to:

  • (1) separate CuO as \(CuSiO_3\)
  • (2) remove calcium as \(CaSiO_3\)
  • (3) decrease the temperature needed for roasting of \(Cu_2\)S
  • (4) remove FeO as \(FeSiO_3\)
Correct Answer: (4) remove FeO as \(FeSiO_3\)

View Solution

Question 65:

Amongst the following compounds, which one is an antacid?

  • (1) Ranitidine
  • (2) Meprobamate
  • (3) Terfenadine
  • (4) Brompheniramine
Correct Answer: (1) Ranitidine

View Solution

Question 66:

The major products 'A' and 'B', respectively, are:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (1)

View Solution

Question 67:

Benzyl isocyanide can be obtained by:




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and D
  • (2) Only B
  • (3) A and B
  • (4) B and C
Correct Answer: (3) A and B

View Solution

Question 68:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In expensive scientific instruments, silica gel is kept in watch-glasses or in semipermeable membrane bags.

Reason (R): Silica gel adsorbs moisture from air via adsorption, thus protects the instrument from water corrosion (rusting) and/or prevents malfunctioning.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is false but (R) is true
  • (2) A is true but (R) is false
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Correct Answer: (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 69:

Match List I with List II:




  • (1) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II
  • (2) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
  • (3) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – I
  • (4) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
Correct Answer: (4) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III

View Solution

Question 70:

Caprolactam when heated at high temperature in presence of water gives:

  • (1) Teflon
  • (2) Dacron
  • (3) Nylon 6, 6
  • (4) Nylon 6
Correct Answer: (4) Nylon 6

View Solution

Question 71:

The alkaline earth metal sulphate(s) which are readily soluble in water is/are:

  • (A) BeSO\textsubscript{4}
  • (B) MgSO\textsubscript{4}
  • (C) CaSO\textsubscript{4}
  • (D) SrSO\textsubscript{4}
  • (E) BaSO\textsubscript{4}
    Choose the \textbf{correct answer} from the options given below:
  • (1) A only
  • (2) B only
  • (3) A and B
  • (4) B and C
Correct Answer: (3) A and B

View Solution

Question 72:

Which of the following is the correct order of ligand field strength?

  • (1) CO \(<\) en \(<\) NH\textsubscript{3} \(<\) C\textsubscript{2}O\textsubscript{4}\textsuperscript{2–} \(<\) S\textsuperscript{2–}
  • (2) S\textsuperscript{2–} \(<\) C\textsubscript{2}O\textsubscript{4}\textsuperscript{2–} \(<\) NH\textsubscript{3} \(<\) en \(<\) CO
  • (3) NH\textsubscript{3} \(<\) en \(<\) CO \(<\) S\textsuperscript{2–} \(<\) C\textsubscript{2}O\textsubscript{4}\textsuperscript{2–}
  • (4) S\textsuperscript{2–} \(<\) NH\textsubscript{3} \(<\) en \(<\) CO \(<\) C\textsubscript{2}O\textsubscript{4}\textsuperscript{2–}
Correct Answer: (2) S\textsuperscript{2–} \(<\) C\textsubscript{2}O\textsubscript{4}\textsuperscript{2–} \(<\) NH\textsubscript{3} \(<\) en \(<\) CO

View Solution

Question 73:

Formation of photochemical smog involves the following reaction in which A, B, and C are respectively.

  • (i) NO\textsubscript{2} \(\xrightarrow{hv}\) A + B
  • (1) O, NO, and NO\textsubscript{3}\textsuperscript{–}
  • (2) N\textsubscript{2}O and NO
  • (3) N, O\textsubscript{2}, and O\textsubscript{3}
  • (4) NO, O, and O\textsubscript{3}
Correct Answer: (4) NO, O, and O\textsubscript{3}

View Solution

Question 74:

During the qualitative analysis of SO\textsubscript{3}\textsuperscript{2–} using dilute H\textsubscript{2}SO\textsubscript{4}, SO\textsubscript{2} gas is evolved which turns K\textsubscript{2}Cr\textsubscript{2}O\textsubscript{7} solution (acidified with dilute H\textsubscript{2}SO\textsubscript{4}):

  • (1) Black
  • (2) Red
  • (3) Green
  • (4) Blue
Correct Answer: (3) Green

View Solution

Question 75:

To inhibit the growth of tumours, identify the compounds used from the following:

  • (A) EDTA
  • (B) Coordination Compounds of Pt
  • (C) D – Penicillamine
  • (D) Cis – Platin
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) B and D Only
  • (2) C and D Only
  • (3) A and B Only
  • (4) A and C Only
Correct Answer: (1) B and D Only

View Solution

Question 76:

In the wet tests for identification of various cations by precipitation, which transition element cation doesn’t belong to group IV in qualitative inorganic analysis?

  • (1) Fe\textsuperscript{3+}
  • (2) Zn\textsuperscript{2+}
  • (3) Co\textsuperscript{2+}
  • (4) Ni\textsuperscript{2+}
Correct Answer: (1) Fe\textsuperscript{3+}

View Solution

Question 77:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
  • (2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
  • (3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
  • (4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
Correct Answer: (2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I

View Solution

Question 78:

For OF\textsubscript{2} molecule consider the following:

  • (A) Number of lone pairs on oxygen is 2.
  • (B) F–O–F angle is less than 104.5° .
  • (C) Oxidation state of O is –2.
  • (D) Molecule is bent ‘V’ shaped.
  • (E) Molecular geometry is linear.
    Correct options are:
  • (1) C, D, E only
  • (2) B, E, A only
  • (3) A, C, D only
  • (4) A, B, D only
Correct Answer: (4) A, B, D only

View Solution

Question 79:

Lithium aluminium hydride can be prepared from the reaction of:

  • (1) LiCl and Al\textsubscript{2}H\textsubscript{6}
  • (2) LiH and Al\textsubscript{2}Cl\textsubscript{6}
  • (3) LiCl, Al and H\textsubscript{2}
  • (4) LiH and Al(OH)\textsubscript{3}
Correct Answer: (2) LiH and Al\textsubscript{2}Cl\textsubscript{6}

View Solution

Question 80:

Match List – I with List – II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
  • (2) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
  • (3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
  • (4) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
Correct Answer: (4) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III

View Solution

Question 81:

Consider the cell \[ Pt(s) | H_2 (g, 1 atm) | H^+ (aq, 1M) || Fe^{3+} (aq) , Fe^{2+} (aq) || Pt(s). \]
When the potential of the cell is 0.712 V at 298 K, the ratio \( \frac{[Fe^{2+}]}{[Fe^{3+}]} \) is _____. (Nearest integer)

Given: \[ Fe^{3+} + e^- \rightarrow Fe^{2+}, \quad E^\circ_{Fe^{3+}|Fe^{2+}} = 0.771 \, V. \] \[ \frac{2.303RT}{F} = 0.06 \, V. \]

Correct Answer: 10

View Solution

Question 82:

A 300 mL bottle of soft drink has 0.2 M CO\(_2\) dissolved in it. Assuming CO\(_2\) behaves as an ideal gas, the volume of the dissolved CO\(_2\) at STP is ______ mL. (Nearest integer)

Given: At STP, molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.7 L mol\(^{-1}\).

Correct Answer: 1362 mL

View Solution

Question 83:

A solution containing 2 g of a non-volatile solute in 20 g of water boils at 373.52 K. The molecular mass of the solute is ______ g mol\(^{-1}\). (Nearest integer)

Given: Water boils at 373 K, \( K_b \) for water = \( 0.52 \, K kg mol^{-1} \).

Correct Answer: 100 g mol\(^{-1}\)

View Solution

Question 84:

If compound A reacts with B following first-order kinetics with rate constant \( 2.011 \times 10^{-3} \, s^{-1} \), the time taken by A (in seconds) to reduce from 7 g to 2 g will be ______. (Nearest Integer)

Given: \[ \log 5 = 0.698, \quad \log 7 = 0.845, \quad \log 2 = 0.301. \]

Correct Answer: 623 seconds

View Solution

Question 85:

The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of frequency \( 2 \times 10^{12} \, Hz \) in J mol\(^{-1}\) is ______. (Nearest integer)

Given: \( h = 6.626 \times 10^{-34} \, Js \), \( N_A = 6.022 \times 10^{23} \, mol^{-1} \).

Correct Answer: 798 J mol\(^{-1}\)

View Solution

Question 86:

The number of electrons involved in the reduction of permanganate to manganese dioxide in acidic medium is ______.

Correct Answer: 3

View Solution

Question 87:

When 2 liters of ideal gas expands isothermally into a vacuum to a total volume of 6 liters, the change in internal energy is ______ J. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: 0 J

View Solution

Question 88:

600 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of 0.01 M H\(_2\)SO\(_4\). The pH of the mixture is ______\(\times 10^{-2}\). (Nearest integer)

Given: \[ \log 2 = 0.30, \quad \log 3 = 0.48, \quad \log 5 = 0.69, \quad \log 7 = 0.84, \quad \log 11 = 1.04. \]

Correct Answer: 186

View Solution

Question 89:

A trisubstituted compound ‘A’, \( C_{10}H_{12}O_2 \), gives neutral FeCl\(_3\) test positive. Treatment of compound ‘A’ with NaOH and CH\(_3\)Br gives \( C_{11}H_{14}O_2 \), with hydroiodic acid gives methyl iodide and with hot conc. NaOH gives a compound ‘B’, \( C_{10}H_{12}O_2 \). Compound ‘A’ also decolourises alkaline KMnO\(_4\). The number of \(\pi\) bond/s present in the compound ‘A’ is ______.

Correct Answer: 4

View Solution

Question 90:

Some amount of dichloromethane (\( CH_2Cl_2 \)) is added to 671.141 mL of chloroform (\( CHCl_3 \)) to prepare a \( 2.6 \times 10^{-3} \, M \) solution of \( CH_2Cl_2 \) (DCM). The concentration of DCM is ______ ppm (by mass).

Given: Atomic mass \( C = 12 \), \( H = 1 \), \( Cl = 35.5 \), density of \( CHCl_3 = 1.49 \, g cm^{-3} \).

Correct Answer: 148 ppm

View Solution


Also Check:

JEE Main 2023 Jan 30 Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
Vedantu Check Here

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis Jan 30 Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for the exam scheduled on January 30 Shift 1 has been updated here with overall difficulty, and section-wise difficulty. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam scheduled on January 30 Shift 1 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

Also Check:

JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper

JEE Main Questions

  • 1.
    The number of real solution(s) of the equation \( x^2 + 3x + 2 = \min \left( |x - 3|, |x + 2| \right) \) is:

      • \( 1 \)
      • \( 3 \)
      • \( 0 \)
      • \( 2 \)

    • 2.

      Let $ P_n = \alpha^n + \beta^n $, $ n \in \mathbb{N} $. If $ P_{10} = 123,\ P_9 = 76,\ P_8 = 47 $ and $ P_1 = 1 $, then the quadratic equation having roots $ \alpha $ and $ \frac{1}{\beta} $ is:

        • \( x^2 - x + 1 = 0 \) 

        • \( x^2 + x - 1 = 0 \)

        • \( x^2 - x - 1 = 0 \)

        • \( x^2 + x + 1 = 0 \)

      • 3.
        Density of 3 M NaCl solution is 1.25 g/mL. The molality of the solution is:

          • 2.79 m
          • 1.79 m
          • 3 m
          • 2 m

        • 4.
          The kinetic energy of translation of the molecules in 50 g of CO\(_2\) gas at 17°C is:

            • 4102.8 J
            • 4205.5 J
            • 3986.3 J
            • 3582.7 J

          • 5.


            In the given circuit the sliding contact is pulled outwards such that the electric current in the circuit changes at the rate of 8 A/s. At an instant when R is 12 Ω, the value of the current in the circuit will be          A.

              • 2 A
              • 4 A
              • 3 A
              • 5 A

            • 6.

              Given below are two statements I and II. 
              Statement I: Dumas method is used for estimation of "Nitrogen" in an organic compound. 
              Statement II: Dumas method involves the formation of ammonium sulfate by heating the organic compound with concentrated H\(_2\)SO\(_4\). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

                • Both Statement I and Statement II are true
                • Statement I is false but Statement II is true
                • Both Statement I and Statement II are false
                • Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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