JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 2- Download PDF

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Shivam Yadav

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JEE Main 2023 Feb 1 Shift 2 Question Paper has been updated here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2023 Feb 1 Shift 2 from 3 PM to 6 PM for B.E./B.Tech paper. Candidates can download the memory-based JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF with Solution and Answer Key for Feb 1 Shift 2 using the link below.
 

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JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 2- Download PDF

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JEE Main 2023 Feb 1 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution

Question 1:


The sum \( \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2n^2 + 3n + 4}{(2n)!} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{11e}{2} + \frac{7}{2e} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{13e}{4} + \frac{5}{4e} - 4 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{11e}{2} + \frac{7}{2e} - 4 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{13e}{4} + \frac{5}{4e} \)
Correct Answer:(2) \( \frac{13e}{4} + \frac{5}{4e} - 4 \)
View Solution




Provided sum is: \[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2n^2 + 3n + 4}{(2n)!}. \]

Step 1: Split the Terms of the Numerator

Rewrite the numerator \( 2n^2 + 3n + 4 \) as: \[ 2n^2 + 3n + 4 = 2n(2n-1) + 8n + 8. \]
Therefore, the sum becomes: \[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2n^2 + 3n + 4}{(2n)!} = \frac{1}{2} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2n(2n-1)}{(2n)!} + 2 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n}{(2n-1)!} + 4 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2n)!}. \]

Step 2: Simplify Each Term Using Series Expansions

For the first term: \[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2n(2n-1)}{(2n)!} = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2n-2)!}. \]
This is the series expansion of \( e + \frac{1}{e} \), so: \[ \frac{1}{2} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2n(2n-1)}{(2n)!} = \frac{e + \frac{1}{e}}{2}. \]

For the second term: \[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2n-1)!} = e - \frac{1}{e}. \]
Therefore: \[ 2 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n}{(2n-1)!} = e - \frac{1}{e}. \]

For the third term: \[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2n)!} = \frac{e + \frac{1}{e}}{2}. \]
Therefore: \[ 4 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2n)!} = 2 \left(e + \frac{1}{e}\right). \]

Step 3: Combine All Terms

Combine all terms: \[ \frac{1}{2} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2n(2n-1)}{(2n)!} + 2 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n}{(2n-1)!} + 4 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2n)!} = \frac{e + \frac{1}{e}}{4} + e - \frac{1}{e} + 2 \left(e + \frac{1}{e}\right). \]

Simplify: \[ Sum = \frac{e + \frac{1}{e}}{4} + e - \frac{1}{e} + 2e + \frac{2}{e}. \]

Combine terms: \[ Sum = \frac{13e}{4} + \frac{5}{4e} - 4. \]



Conclusive Answer: The sum is \( \frac{13e}{4} + \frac{5}{4e} - 4 \) (Option 2). Quick Tip: For sums involving factorials, try to decompose the terms into known series expansions like \( e^x \) or related expressions. This makes it easier to compute and simplify the results.


Question 2:


Let \( S = \{x \in \mathbb{R} : 0 < x < 1 and 2 \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right) = \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}\right)\} \). If \( n(S) \) denotes the number of elements in \( S \), then:

  • (1) \( n(S) = 2 \) and only one element in \( S \) is less than \( \frac{1}{2} \).
  • (2) \( n(S) = 1 \) and the element in \( S \) is more than \( \frac{1}{2} \).
  • (3) \( n(S) = 1 \) and the element in \( S \) is less than \( \frac{1}{2} \).
  • (4) \( n(S) = 0 \).
Correct Answer:
(3) \( n(S) = 1 \) and the element in \( S \) is less than \( \frac{1}{2} \).
View Solution

Question 3:


Let \( \vec{a} = 2\hat{i} - 7\hat{j} + 5\hat{k} \), \( \vec{b} = \hat{i} + \hat{k} \), and \( \vec{c} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 3\hat{k} \) be three given vectors. If \( \vec{r} \) is a vector such that \( \vec{r} \times \vec{a} = \vec{c} \times \vec{a} \) and \( \vec{r} \cdot \vec{b} = 0 \), then \( |\vec{r}| \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{11}{7} \sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{11}{7} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{11}{5} \sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\sqrt{914}}{7} \)
Correct Answer:
(1) \( \frac{11}{7} \sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

Question 4:


If \( A = \frac{1}{2} \begin{bmatrix} 1 & \sqrt{3}
-\sqrt{3} & 1 \end{bmatrix} \), then:

  • (1) \( A^{30} - A^{25} = 2I \)
  • (2) \( A^{30} + A^{25} + A = I \)
  • (3) \( A^{30} + A^{25} - A = I \)
  • (4) \( A^{30} = A^{25} \)
Correct Answer:
(3) \( A^{30} + A^{25} - A = I \)
View Solution

Question 5:


Two dice are thrown independently. Let \( A \) be the event that the number appeared on the 1st die is less than the number appeared on the 2nd die, \( B \) be the event that the number appeared on the 1st die is even and that on the 2nd die is odd, and \( C \) be the event that the number appeared on the 1st die is odd and that on the 2nd die is even. Then:

  • (1) The number of favourable cases of the event \( (A \cup B) \cap C \) is 6.
  • (2) \( A \) and \( B \) are mutually exclusive.
  • (3) The number of favourable cases of the events \( A, B, and C \) are 15, 6, and 6 respectively.
  • (4) \( B \) and \( C \) are independent.
Correct Answer:
(1) The number of favourable cases of the event \( (A \cup B) \cap C \) is 6.
View Solution

Question 6:


Which of the following statements is a tautology?

  • (1) \( p \to (p \land (p \to q)) \)
  • (2) \( (p \land q) \to \sim (p \to q) \)
  • (3) \( (p \land (p \to q)) \to \sim q \)
  • (4) \( p \lor (p \land q) \)
Correct Answer:
(2) \( (p \land q) \to \sim (p \to q) \)
View Solution

Question 7:


The number of integral values of \( k \), for which one root of the equation \( 2x^2 - 8x + k = 0 \) lies in the interval \( (1, 2) \) and its other root lies in the interval \( (2, 3) \), is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer:
(3) 1
View Solution

Question 8:


Let \( f : \mathbb{R} - \{0, 1\} \to \mathbb{R} \) be a function such that \( f(x) + f\left(\frac{1}{1-x}\right) = 1 + x \). Then \( f(2) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{9}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{9}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{7}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7}{3} \)
Correct Answer:
(2) \( \frac{9}{4} \)
View Solution

Question 9:


Let the plane \( P \) pass through the intersection of the planes \( 2x + 3y - z = 2 \) and \( x + 2y + 3z = 6 \), and be perpendicular to the plane \( 2x + y - z + 1 = 0 \). If \( d \) is the distance of \( P \) from the point \((-7, 1, 1)\), then \( d^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{250}{83} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{15}{53} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{25}{83} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{250}{82} \)
Correct Answer:
(1) \( \frac{250}{83} \)
View Solution

Question 10:


Let \( a, b \) be two real numbers such that \( ab < 0 \). If the complex number \( \frac{1 + ai}{b + i} \) is of unit modulus and \( a + ib \) lies on the circle \( |z - 1| = |2z| \), then a possible value of \( \frac{1 + \lfloor a \rfloor}{4b} \), where \( \lfloor t \rfloor \) is the greatest integer function, is:

  • (1) \( -\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) \( -1 \)
  • (3) \( 1 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
Correct Answer:
No Answer Matches (Question Dropped)
View Solution

Question 11:


The sum of the absolute maximum and minimum values of the function \( f(x) = |x^2 - 5x + 6| - 3x + 2 \) in the interval \([-1, 3]\) is equal to:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 13
  • (4) 24
Correct Answer:
(1) 10
View Solution

Question 12:


Let \( P(S) \) denote the power set of \( S = \{1, 2, 3, \dots, 10\} \). Define the relations \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \) on \( P(S) \) as \( A R_1 B \) if \[ (A \cap B^c) \cup (B \cap A^c) = \varnothing, \]
and \( A R_2 B \) if \[ A \cup B^c = B \cup A^c, \]
for all \( A, B \in P(S) \). Then:

  • (1) Both \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \) are equivalence relations.
  • (2) Only \( R_1 \) is an equivalence relation.
  • (3) Only \( R_2 \) is an equivalence relation.
  • (4) Both \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \) are not equivalence relations.
Correct Answer:
(1) Both \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \) are equivalence relations.
View Solution

Question 13:


The area of the region given by \(\{(x, y) : xy \leq 8, \, 1 \leq y \leq x^2\}\) is:

  • (1) \( 8 \ln_e 2 - \frac{13}{3} \)
  • (2) \( 16 \ln_e 2 - \frac{14}{3} \)
  • (3) \( 8 \ln_e 2 + \frac{7}{6} \)
  • (4) \( 16 \ln_e 2 + \frac{7}{3} \)
Correct Answer:
(2) \( 16 \ln_e 2 - \frac{14}{3} \)
View Solution

Question 14:


Let \( \alpha x = \exp(x^\beta y^\gamma) \) be the solution of the differential equation \( 2x^2 y \, dy - (1 - xy^2) \, dx = 0 \), \( x > 0 \), \( y(2) = \sqrt{\ln_e 2} \). Then \( \alpha + \beta - \gamma \) equals:

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( -1 \)
  • (3) \( 0 \)
  • (4) \( 3 \)
Correct Answer:
(1) \( 1 \)
View Solution

Question 15:


The value of the integral \[ \int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{x + \frac{\pi}{4}}{2 - \cos 2x} \, dx is: \]

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi^2}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi^2}{12 \sqrt{3}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi^2}{3 \sqrt{3}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi^2}{6 \sqrt{3}} \)
Correct Answer:
(4) \( \frac{\pi^2}{6 \sqrt{3}} \)
View Solution

Question 16:


Let \( 9 = x_1 < x_2 < \dots < x_7 \) be in an A.P. with common difference \( d \). If the standard deviation of \( x_1, x_2, \dots, x_7 \) is \( 4 \) and the mean is \( \overline{x} \), then \( \overline{x} + x_6 \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 18 \left( 1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \right) \)
  • (2) \( 34 \)
  • (3) \( 2 \left( 9 + \frac{8}{\sqrt{7}} \right) \)
  • (4) \( 25 \)
Correct Answer:
(2) \( 34 \)
View Solution

Question 17:


For the system of linear equations \( ax + y + z = 1 \), \( x + ay + z = 1 \), \( x + y + az = \beta \), which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  • (1) It has infinitely many solutions if \( \alpha = 2 \) and \( \beta = -1 \).
  • (2) It has no solution if \( \alpha = -2 \) and \( \beta = 1 \).
  • (3) \( x + y + z = \frac{3}{4} \) if \( \alpha = 2 \) and \( \beta = 1 \).
  • (4) It has infinitely many solutions if \( \alpha = 1 \) and \( \beta = 1 \).
Correct Answer:
(1) It has infinitely many solutions if \( \alpha = 2 \) and \( \beta = -1 \).
View Solution

Question 18:


Let \( \vec{a} = 5\hat{i} - \hat{j} - 3\hat{k} \) and \( \vec{b} = \hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 5\hat{k} \) be two vectors. Then which one of the following statements is TRUE?

  • (1) Projection of \( \vec{a} \) on \( \vec{b} \) is \( \frac{17}{\sqrt{35}} \) and the direction of the projection vector is the same as \( \vec{b} \).
  • (2) Projection of \( \vec{a} \) on \( \vec{b} \) is \( \frac{-17}{\sqrt{35}} \) and the direction of the projection vector is opposite to \( \vec{b} \).
  • (3) Projection of \( \vec{a} \) on \( \vec{b} \) is \( \frac{17}{\sqrt{35}} \) and the direction of the projection vector is opposite to \( \vec{b} \).
  • (4) Projection of \( \vec{a} \) on \( \vec{b} \) is \( \frac{-17}{\sqrt{35}} \) and the direction of the projection vector is opposite to \( \vec{b} \).
Correct Answer:
Drop

View Solution

Question 19:


Let \( P(x_0, y_0) \) be the point on the hyperbola \( 3x^2 - 4y^2 = 36 \), which is nearest to the line \( 3x + 2y = 1 \). Then \( \sqrt{2} \, (y_0 - x_0) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \(-3\)
  • (2) \(9\)
  • (3) \(-9\)
  • (4) \(3\)
Correct Answer:
(3) \(-9\)
View Solution

Question 20:

If \( y(x) = x^x, \, x > 0 \), then \( y''(2) - 2y'(2) \) is equal to:
 

  • (1) \( 8 \log_e 2 - 2 \)
  • (2) \( 4 \log_e 2 + 2 \)
  • (3) \( 4 (\log_e 2)^2 - 2 \)
  • (4) \( 4 (\log_e 2)^2 + 2 \)
Correct Answer:
(3) \( 4 (\log_e 2)^2 - 2 \)
View Solution

Question 21:


The total number of six-digit numbers, formed using the digits \(4, 5, 9\) only and divisible by 6, is ____.


Question 22:


Number of integral solutions to the equation \( x + y + z = 21 \), where \( x \geq 1, y \geq 3, z \geq 4 \), is ____.


Question 23:


The line \( x = 8 \) is the directrix of the ellipse \( E: \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) with the corresponding focus \( (2, 0) \). If the tangent to \( E \) at the point \( P \) in the first quadrant passes through the point \( \left( 0, 4\sqrt{3} \right) \) and intersects the \( x \)-axis at \( Q \), then \( (3PQ)^2 \) is equal to ____.


Question 24:

If the x-intercept of a focal chord of the parabola \( y^2 = 8x + 4y + 4 \) is \( 3 \), then the length of this chord is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: } \( 16 \)
View Solution

Question 25:

If \( \int_0^\pi \frac{5^{\cos x} (1 + \cos x \cos 3x + \cos^2 x + \cos^3 x \cos 3x)}{1 + 5^{\cos x}} dx = \frac{k \pi}{16}, \) then \( k \) is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: } \( 13 \)
View Solution

Question 26:

Let the sixth term in the binomial expansion of \[ \left( \sqrt{2^{\log_2(10 - 3^x)}} + 5 \cdot \sqrt{2^{(x-2)\log_2 3}} \right)^m, \]
in the increasing powers of \( 2^{(x-2)\log_2 3} \), be 21. If the binomial coefficients of the second, third, and fourth terms in the expansion are respectively the first, third, and fifth terms of an A.P., then the sum of the squares of all possible values of \( x \) is ____.

Correct Answer: } \( 4 \)
View Solution

Question 27:


If the term without \(x\) in the expansion of \[ \left( x^{\frac{2}{3}} + \frac{\alpha}{x^3} \right)^{22} \]
is \(7315\), then \(|\alpha|\) is equal to ____.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 28:


The sum of the common terms of the following three arithmetic progressions:

- \( 3, 7, 11, 15, \dots, 399 \),

- \( 2, 5, 8, 11, \dots, 359 \),

- \( 2, 7, 12, 17, \dots, 197 \),


is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: } \( 321 \)
View Solution

Question 29:


Let \( \alpha x + \beta y + yz = 1 \) be the equation of a plane passing through the point \((3, -2, 5)\) and perpendicular to the line joining the points \((1, 2, 3)\) and \((-2, 3, 5)\). Then the value of \( \alpha \beta y \) is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: } \( 6 \)
View Solution

Question 30:


The point of intersection \(C\) of the plane \(8x + y + 2z = 0\) and the line joining the points \(A(-3, -6, 1)\) and \(B(2, 4, -3)\) divides the line segment \(AB\) internally in the ratio \(k:1\). If \(a, b, c\) (\(|a|, |b|, |c|\) are coprime) are the direction ratios of the perpendicular from the point \(C\) on the line \(\frac{1 - x}{1} = \frac{y + 4}{2} = \frac{z + 2}{3}\), then \(|a + b + c|\) is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: } \(10\)
View Solution

Question 31:

A Carnot engine operating between two reservoirs has efficiency \( \frac{1}{3} \). When the temperature of the cold reservoir is raised by x, its efficiency decreases to \( \frac{1}{6} \). The value of x, if the temperature of the hot reservoir is 99\(^\circ\)C, will be:

  • (1) 16.5 K
  • (2) 33 K
  • (3) 66 K
  • (4) 62 K
Correct Answer:
(4) 62 K
View Solution

Question 32:

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Two metallic spheres are charged to the same potential. One of them is hollow and another is solid, and both have the same radii. Solid sphere will have lower charge than the hollow one.

Reason R: Capacitance of metallic spheres depend on the radii of spheres.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) A is false but R is true
  • (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer:
(1) A is false but R is true
View Solution

Question 33:

As shown in the figure, a long straight conductor with a semicircular arc of radius \( \frac{\pi}{10} \) m is carrying current I = 3A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the center O of the arc is:
(The permeability of the vacuum = \(4\pi \times 10^{-7} NA^{-2}\))


  • (1) 6µT
  • (2) 1µT
  • (3) 4µT
  • (4) 3µT
Correct Answer:
(4) 3µT
View Solution

Question 34:

A coil is placed in a magnetic field such that the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. The magnetic flux through a coil can be changed:

A. By changing the magnitude of the magnetic field within the coil.

B. By changing the area of the coil within the magnetic field.

C. By changing the angle between the direction of magnetic field and the plane of the coil.

D. By reversing the magnetic field direction abruptly without changing its magnitude.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) A, B and C only
  • (3) A, B and D only
  • (4) A and C only
Correct Answer:
(2) A, B and C only
View Solution

Question 35:

In an amplitude modulation, a modulating signal having amplitude of X V is superimposed with a carrier signal of amplitude Y V in the first case. Then, in the second case, the same modulating signal is superimposed with a different carrier signal of amplitude 2Y V. The ratio of modulation index in the two cases respectively will be:

  • (1) 1 : 2
  • (2) 1 : 1
  • (3) 2 : 1
  • (4) 4 : 1
Correct Answer:
(3) 2 : 1
View Solution

Question 36:

For a body projected at an angle with the horizontal from the ground, choose the correct statement.

  • (1) Gravitational potential energy is maximum at the highest point.
  • (2) The horizontal component of velocity is zero at the highest point.
  • (3) The vertical component of momentum is maximum at the highest point.
  • (4) The kinetic energy (K.E.) is zero at the highest point of projectile motion.
Correct Answer:
(1) Gravitational potential energy is maximum at the highest point.
View Solution

Question 37:

Two objects A and B are placed at 15 cm and 25 cm from the pole in front of a concave mirror having radius of curvature 40 cm. The distance between images formed by the mirror is:

  • (1) 40 cm
  • (2) 60 cm
  • (3) 160 cm
  • (4) 100 cm
Correct Answer:
(3) 160 cm
View Solution

Question 38:

The Young's modulus of a steel wire of length 6 m and cross-sectional area 3 mm\(^{2}\), is \(2 \times 10^{11}\) N/m\(^{2}\). The wire is suspended from its support on a given planet. A block of mass 4 kg is attached to the free end of the wire. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet is \( \frac{1}{4} \) of its value on the earth. The elongation of wire is (Take g on the earth = 10 m/s\(^{2}\)):

  • (1) 1 cm
  • (2) 1 mm
  • (3) 0.1 mm
  • (4) 0.1 cm
Correct Answer:
(3) 0.1 mm
View Solution

Question 39:

Equivalent resistance between the adjacent corners of a regular n-sided polygon of uniform wire of resistance R would be:

  • (1) \(\frac{(n-1)R}{n^2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{(n-1)R}{2n-1}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{n^2 R}{n-1}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{(n-1)R}{n}\)
Correct Answer:
(1) \(\frac{(n-1)R}{n^2}\)
View Solution

Question 40:

As shown in the figure, a block of mass 10 kg lying on a horizontal surface is pulled by a force F acting at an angle 30\(^\circ\) with horizontal. For \(\mu_s = 0.25\), the block will just start to move for the value of F:
[Given g = 10 ms\(^{-2}\)]

  • (1) 33.3 N
  • (2) 25.2 N
  • (3) 20 N
  • (4) 35.7 N
Correct Answer:
(2) 25.2 N
View Solution

Question 41:

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: For measuring the potential difference across a resistance of 600 \(\Omega\), the voltmeter with resistance 1000 \(\Omega\) will be preferred over voltmeter with resistance 4000 \(\Omega\).

Reason R: Voltmeter with higher resistance will draw smaller current than voltmeter with lower resistance.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (3) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (4) A is correct but R is not correct
Correct Answer:
(1) A is not correct but R is correct
View Solution

Question 42:

Choose the correct statement about Zener diode:

  • (1) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and behaves like simple pn junction diode in forward bias.
  • (2) It works as a voltage regulator in both forward and reverse bias.
  • (3) It works a voltage regulator only in forward bias.
  • (4) It works as a voltage regulator in forward bias and behaves like simple pn junction diode in reverse bias.
Correct Answer:
(1) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and behaves like simple pn junction diode in forward bias.
View Solution

Question 43:

Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time period (T\(^{2}\)) graph for a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic motion.

Correct Answer:
The correct graph is a straight line passing through the origin, which is option
(3).
View Solution

Question 44:

The escape velocities of two planets A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2. If the ratio of their radii respectively is 1 : 3, then the ratio of acceleration due to gravity of planet A to the acceleration due to gravity of planet B will be:

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
Correct Answer:
(4) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
View Solution

Question 45:

An electron of a hydrogen-like atom, having Z = 4, jumps from 4\(^{th}\) energy state to 2\(^{nd}\) energy state. The energy released in this process, will be:
(Given Rch = 13.6 eV)
Where R = Rydberg constant

c = Speed of light in vacuum

h = Planck's constant

  • (1) 13.6 eV
  • (2) 10.5 eV
  • (3) 3.4 eV
  • (4) 40.8 eV
Correct Answer:
(4) 40.8 eV
View Solution

Question 46:

Figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) show variation of force with time. The impulse is highest in figure:

  • (1) Fig (c)
  • (2) Fig (b)
  • (3) Fig (a)
  • (4) Fig (d)
Correct Answer:
(2) Fig (b)
View Solution

Question 47:

If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational constant G and Planck's constant h are chosen as fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass in the new system is:

  • (1) \( [h^{\frac{1}{2}} c^{-\frac{1}{2}} G^{1}] \)
  • (2) \( [h^{1} c^{-1} G^{-1}] \)
  • (3) \( [h^{-\frac{1}{2}} c^{\frac{1}{2}} G^{\frac{1}{2}}] \)
  • (4) \( [h^{\frac{1}{2}} c^{\frac{1}{2}} G^{-\frac{1}{2}}] \)
Correct Answer:
(4) \( [h^{\frac{1}{2}} c^{\frac{1}{2}} G^{-\frac{1}{2}}] \)
View Solution

Question 48:

For three low density gases A, B, C pressure versus temperature graphs are plotted while keeping them at constant volume, as shown in the figure.


The temperature corresponding to the point 'K' is:

  • (1) -273\(^\circ\)C
  • (2) -100\(^\circ\)C
  • (3) -373\(^\circ\)C
  • (4) -40\(^\circ\)C
Correct Answer:
(1) -273\(^\circ\)C
View Solution

Question 49:

The ratio of average electric energy density and total average energy density of electromagnetic wave is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 3
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer:
(4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
View Solution

Question 50:

The threshold frequency of metal is \(f_0\). When the light of frequency \(2f_0\) is incident on the metal plate, the maximum velocity of photoelectron is \(v_1\). When the frequency of incident radiation is increased to \(5f_0\), the maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted is \(v_2\). The ratio of \(v_1\) to \(v_2\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{1}{8}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{1}{16}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{1}{4}\)
Correct Answer:
(1) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{1}{2}\)
View Solution

Question 51:

For a train engine moving with a speed of 20 ms\(^{-1}\), the driver must apply brakes at a distance of 500 m before the station for the train to come to rest at the station. If the brakes were applied at half of this distance, the train engine would cross the station with speed \(\sqrt{x}\) ms\(^{-1}\). The value of x is ____________.
(Assuming the same retardation is produced by brakes)

Correct Answer:200
View Solution

Question 52:

A force F = (5 + 3y\(^{2}\)) acts on a particle in the y-direction, where F is newton and y is in meter. The work done by the force during a displacement from y = 2m to y = 5m is ____________ J.

Correct Answer:132
View Solution

Question 53:

Moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius 'R' about any of its diameter is \(\frac{MR^2}{4}\). The moment of inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a point on its edge will be, \(\frac{x}{2} MR^2\). The value of x is ____________.

Correct Answer:3
View Solution

Question 54:

Nucleus A having Z = 17 and equal number of protons and neutrons has 1.2 MeV binding energy per nucleon. Another nucleus B of Z = 12 has total 26 nucleons and 1.8 MeV binding energy per nucleons. The difference of binding energy of B and A will be ____________ MeV.

Correct Answer:
6
View Solution

Question 55:

A square shaped coil of area 70 cm\(^{2}\) having 600 turns rotates in a magnetic field of 0.4 wbm\(^{-2}\), about an axis which is parallel to one of the side of the coil and perpendicular to the direction of field. If the coil completes 500 revolution in a minute, the instantaneous emf when the plane of the coil is inclined at 60\(^\circ\) with the field, will be ____________ V. (Take \(\pi = \frac{22}{7}\))

Correct Answer:44
View Solution

Question 56:

A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The block is pulled to a distance x = 10 cm from its equilibrium position (at x = 0) on a frictionless surface from rest. The energy of the block at x = 5 cm is 0.25 J. The spring constant of the spring is ____________ Nm\(^{-1}\).

Correct Answer:67
View Solution

Question 57:

In the given circuit the value of \( \left| \frac{I_1 + I_3}{I_2} \right| \) is ____________.

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 58:

As shown in the figure, in Young's double slit experiment, a thin plate of thickness t = 10 \(\mu\)m and refractive index \(\mu\) = 1.2 is inserted in front of slit \(S_1\). The experiment is conducted in air (\(\mu\) = 1) and uses a monochromatic light of wavelength \(\lambda\) = 500 nm. Due to the insertion of the plate, central maxima is shifted by a distance of \(x\beta_0\). \(\beta_0\) is the fringe-width before the insertion of the plate. The value of the x is ____________.
 

Correct Answer:4
View Solution

Question 59:

A cubical volume is bounded by the surfaces x = 0, x = a, y = 0, y = a, z = 0, z = a. The electric field in the region is given by \(\vec{E} = E_0 x \hat{i}\). Where \(E_0 = 4 \times 10^4\) NC\(^{-1}\) m\(^{-1}\). If a = 2 cm, the charge contained in the cubical volume is \(Q \times 10^{-14}\) C. The value of Q is ____________.
(Take \(\epsilon_0 = 9 \times 10^{-12}\) C\(^{2}\)/Nm\(^{2}\))

Correct Answer:288
View Solution

Question 60:

The surface of water in a water tank of cross section area 750 cm\(^{2}\) on the top of a house is h m. above the tap level. The speed of water coming out through the tap of cross section area 500 mm\(^{2}\) is 30 cm/s. At that instant, \(\frac{dh}{dt}\) is \(x \times 10^{-3}\) m/s. The value of x will be ____________.

Correct Answer:2
View Solution

Question 61 :
In a reaction,
reagents 'X' and 'Y' respectively are :

  • (1) (CH\(_{3}\)CO)\(_{2}\)O/H\(+ \) and CH\(_{3}\)OH/H\(+ \), \(\Delta\)
  • (2) (CH\(_{3}\)CO)\(_{2}\)O/H\(+ \) and (CH\(_{3}\)CO)\(_{2}\)O/H\(+ \)
  • (3) CH\(_{3}\)OH/H\(+ \), \(\Delta\) and CH\(_{3}\)OH/H\(+ \), \(\Delta\)
  • (4) CH\(_{3}\)OH/H\(+ \) \(\Delta\) and (CH\(_{3}\)CO)\(_{2}\)O/H\(+ \)
Correct Answer:
(1) (CH\(_{3}\)CO)\(_{2}\)O/H\(+ \) and CH\(_{3}\)OH/H\(+ \), \(\Delta\)
View Solution

Question 62:

The correct order of bond enthalpy (kJ mol\(^{-1}\)) is:

  • (1) Si -- Si \(>\) C -- C \(>\) Sn -- Sn \(>\) Ge -- Ge
  • (2) Si -- Si \(>\) C -- C \(>\) Ge -- Ge \(>\) Sn -- Sn
  • (3) C -- C \(>\) Si -- Si \(>\) Sn -- Sn \(>\) Ge -- Ge
  • (4) C -- C \(>\) Si -- Si \(>\) Ge -- Ge \(>\) Sn -- Sn
Correct Answer:
(4) C -- C \(>\) Si -- Si \(>\) Ge -- Ge \(>\) Sn -- Sn
View Solution

Question 63:

All structures given below are of vitamin C. Most stable of them is :


Correct Answer:
(1)

View Solution

Question 64:

The graph which represents the following reaction is:
\[ (C_6H_5)_3C-Cl \xrightarrow[Pyridine]{OH^-} (C_6H_5)_3C-OH \]

Correct Answer:
(3)

View Solution

Question 65:


Correct Answer:
(1)
View Solution




Reactants

The reactants are tetrahydrofuran (THF) and 2-methylpropene. The reaction is catalyzed by HF and takes place under heat.


Reaction Mechanism

This reaction is an electrophilic addition of THF to the alkene. HF protonates the alkene to form a carbocation. The oxygen in THF acts as a nucleophile and attacks the carbocation. Finally, deprotonation occurs to yield the product.


Major Product

The major product is determined by Markovnikov's rule, which states that the proton adds to the carbon of the double bond with more hydrogens. In this case, the carbocation will form on the more substituted carbon of 2-methylpropene, leading to product (1).




Conclusion: The major product 'X' is represented by structure (1). Quick Tip: Remember Markovnikov's rule for electrophilic addition reactions. The most stable carbocation intermediate leads to the major product.


Question 66:

The complex cation which has two isomers is:

  • (1) [Co(H\(_{2}\)O)\(_{6}\)]\(^{3+}\)
  • (2) [Co(NH\(_{3}\))\(_{5}\)Cl]\(^{2+}\)
  • (3) [Co(NH\(_{3}\))\(_{5}\)NO\(_{2}\)]\(^{2+}\)
  • (4) [Co(NH\(_{3}\))\(_{5}\)Cl]\(^{+}\)
Correct Answer:
  • (3) [Co(NH\(_{3}\))\(_{5}\)NO\(_{2}\)]\(^{2+}\)
View Solution

Question 67:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Sulphanilic acid gives esterification test for carboxyl group.

Statement II : Sulphanilic acid gives red colour in Lassaigne's test for extra element detection.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Correct Answer:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
View Solution

Question 68:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Gypsum is used for making fireproof wall boards.

Reason (R) : Gypsum is unstable at high temperatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Correct Answer:
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Question 69:

Which element is not present in Nessler's reagent ?

  • (1) Mercury
  • (2) Potassium
  • (3) Iodine
  • (4) Oxygen
Correct Answer:
(4) Oxygen
View Solution

Question 70:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : \(\alpha\)-halocarboxylic acid on reaction with dil. NH\(_{3}\) gives good yield of \(\alpha\)-amino carboxylic acid whereas the yield of amines is very low when prepared from alkyl halides.

Reason (R) : Amino acids exist in zwitter ion form in aqueous medium.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Correct Answer:
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Question 71:

The industrial activity held least responsible for global warming is :

  • (1) manufacturing of cement
  • (2) steel manufacturing
  • (3) Electricity generation in thermal power plants.
  • (4) Industrial production of urea
Correct Answer:
(4) Industrial production of urea
View Solution

Question 72:

The structures of major products A, B and C in the following reaction are sequence.

Correct Answer:
(4)

View Solution

Question 73:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Cu\(^{2+}\) in water is more stable than Cu\(+ \).

Reason (R) : Enthalpy of hydration for Cu\(^{2+}\) is much less than that of Cu\(+ \).


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (3) (1) is not correct but (R) is correct.
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Correct Answer:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Question 74:

The starting material for convenient preparation of deuterated hydrogen peroxide (D\(_{2}\)O\(_{2}\)) in laboratory is:

  • (1) K\(_{2}\)S\(_{2}\)O\(_{8}\)
  • (2) 2-ethylanthraquinol
  • (3) BaO\(_{2}\)
  • (4) BaO
Correct Answer:
(1) K\(_{2}\)S\(_{2}\)O\(_{8}\)
View Solution

Question 75:

In figure, a straight line is given for Freundrich Adsorption (\(y = 3x + 2.505\)). The value of \(\frac{1}{n}\) and log K are respectively.
 

  • (1) 0.3 and log 2.505
  • (2) 0.3 and 0.7033
  • (3) 3 and 2.505
  • (4) 3 and 0.7033
Correct Answer:
(3) 3 and 2.505
View Solution

Question 76:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : An aqueous solution of KOH when for volumetric analysis, its concentration should be checked before the use.

Reason (R) : On aging, KOH solution absorbs atmospheric CO\(_{2}\).

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Correct Answer:
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
View Solution

Question 77:

Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
(Given : Atomic Number : F :9, Cl : 17, Na = 11, Mg = 12, Al = 13, K = 19, Ca = 20, Sc = 21)

  • (1) (Li\(+ \), Na\(+ \), Mg\(^{2+}\), Ca\(^{2+}\))
  • (2) (Ba\(^{2+}\), Sr\(^{2+}\), K\(+ \), Ca\(^{2+}\))
  • (3) (N\(^{3-}\), O\(^{2-}\), F\(- \), S\(^{2-}\))
  • (4) (K\(^+ \), Cl\(^- \), Ca\(^{2+}\), Sc\(^{3+}\))
Correct Answer:
(4) (K\(^+ \), Cl\(^- \), Ca\(^{2+}\), Sc\(^{3+}\))
View Solution

Question 78:

The effect of addition of helium gas to the following reaction in equilibrium state, is :
\[ PCl_5(g) \rightleftharpoons PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g) \]

  • (1) the equilibrium will shift in the forward direction and more of Cl\(_{2}\) and PCl\(_{3}\) gases will be produced.
  • (2) the equilibrium will go backward due to suppression of dissociation of PCl\(_{5}\).
  • (3) helium will deactivate PCl\(_{5}\) and reaction will stop.
  • (4) addition of helium will not affect the equilibrium.
Correct Answer:
(1) the equilibrium will shift in the forward direction and more of Cl\(_{2}\) and PCl\(_{3}\) gases will be produced.
View Solution

Question 79:

For electron gain enthalpies of the elements denoted as \(\Delta_{eg}H\), the incorrect option is :

  • (1) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (Cl) \(<\) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (F)
  • (2) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (Se) \(<\) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (S)
  • (3) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (I) \(<\) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (At)
  • (4) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (Te) \(<\) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (Po)
Correct Answer:
(2) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (Se) \(<\) \(\Delta_{eg}H\) (S)
View Solution

Question 80:

O-O bond length in H\(_{2}\)O\(_{2}\) is _X_ than the O-O bond length in F\(_{2}\)O\(_{2}\). The O -- H bond length in H\(_{2}\)O\(_{2}\) is ___Y__ than that of the O-F bond in F\(_{2}\)O\(_{2}\). Choose the correct option for _X_ and _Y_ from the given below.

  • (1) X -- shorter, \quad Y -- shorter
  • (2) X -- shorter, \quad Y -- longer
  • (3) X -- longer, \quad Y -- longer
  • (4) X -- longer, \quad Y -- shorter
Correct Answer:
(4) X -- longer, \quad Y -- shorter
View Solution

Question 81:

0.3 g of ethane undergoes combustion at 27\(^\circ\)C in a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of calorimeter system (including the water) is found to rise by 0.5\(^\circ\)C. The heat evolved during combustion of ethane at constant pressure is _____ kJ mol\(^{-1}\). (Nearest integer)

[Given : The heat capacity of the calorimeter system is 20 kJ K\(^{-1}\), R = 8.3 JK\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\). Assume ideal gas behaviour. Atomic mass of C and H are 12 and 1 g mol\(^{-1}\) respectively]


Question 82:

Among following compounds, the number of those present in copper matte is ____________.

A. CuCO\(_{3}\)

B. Cu\(_{2}\)S

C. Cu\(_{2}\)O

D. FeO

Correct Answer:1
View Solution

Question 83:

Among the following, the number of tranquilizer/s is/are ____________.

A. Chlordiazepoxide

B. Veronal

C. Valium

D. Salvarsan

Correct Answer:3
View Solution

Question 84:

A \(\rightarrow\) B

The above reaction is of zero order. Half life of this reaction is 50 min. The time taken for the concentration of A to reduce to one-fourth of its initial value is ____ min. (Nearest integer)


Question 85:

20% of acetic acid is dissociated when its 5 g is added to 500 mL of water. The depression in freezing point of such water is ____ \(\times 10^{-3} \, ^\circ C\). Atomic mass of C, H and O are 12, 1 and 16 a.m.u. respectively.


[Given : Molal depression constant and density of water are 1.86 K kg mol\(^{-1}\) and 1 g cm\(^{-3}\) respectively.]


Question 86:

The molality of a 10% (v/v) solution of di-bromine solution in CCl\(_4\) (carbon tetrachloride) is 'x'. x = ____ \( \times 10^{-2} \) M. (Nearest integer)

Given:

Molar mass of Br\(_2\) = 160 g mol\(^{-1}\)
Atomic mass of C = 12 g mol\(^{-1}\)
Atomic mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol\(^{-1}\)
Density of dibromine = 3.2 g cm\(^{-3}\)
Density of CCl\(_4\) = 1.6 g cm\(^{-3}\)


Question 87:

1 \( \times 10^{-5} \) M AgNO\(_3\) is added to 1 L of saturated solution of AgBr. The conductivity of this solution at 298 K is ____ \( \times 10^{-8} \) S m\(^{-1}\).

Given:

K\(_{sp}\)(AgBr) = 4.9 \( \times 10^{-13} \) at 298K
\(\lambda^0_{Ag^+}\) = 6 \( \times 10^{-3} \) Sm\(^{2}\) mol\(^{-1}\)
\(\lambda^0_{Br^-}\) = 8 \( \times 10^{-3} \) Sm\(^{2}\) mol\(^{-1}\)
\(\lambda^0_{NO_3^-}\) = 7 \( \times 10^{-3} \) Sm\(^{2}\) mol\(^{-1}\)


Question 88:

Testosterone, which is a steroidal hormone, has the following structure.

The total number of asymmetric carbon atom/s in testosterone is ______


Question 89:

The spin only magnetic moment of [Mn(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{2+}\) complexes is _____ B.M. (Nearest integer)

Given: Atomic no. of Mn is 25


Question 90:

A metal M crystallizes into two lattices: face centred cubic (fcc) and body centred cubic (bcc) with unit cell edge length of 2.0 and 2.5 \(\AA\) respectively. The ratio of densities of lattices fcc to bcc for the metal M is ______. (Nearest integer)




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JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for the exam scheduled on February 1 Shift 2 has been updated here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam scheduled on February 1 Shift 2 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

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JEE Main Questions

  • 1.
    A compound 'X' absorbs 2 moles of hydrogen and 'X' upon oxidation with KMnO4 - H⁺ gives the following products:
    A compound 'X' absorbs 2 moles of hydrogen and 'X' upon oxidation with KMnO4
    The total number of \(\sigma\) bonds present in the compound 'X' is ----.


      • 2.
        'X' is the number of acidic oxides among $ VO_2, V_2O_3, CrO_3, V_2O_5 $ and $ Mn_2O_7 $. The primary valency of cobalt in $ [Co(H_2NCH_2CH_2NH_2)_3]_2 (SO_4)_3 $ is Y. The value of X + Y is :

          • 5
          • 4
          • 2
          • 3

        • 3.

          The least acidic compound, among the following is

            • D
            • A
            • B
            • C

          • 4.

            A bead of mass \( m \) slides without friction on the wall of a vertical circular hoop of radius \( R \) as shown in figure. The bead moves under the combined action of gravity and a massless spring \( k \) attached to the bottom of the hoop. The equilibrium length of the spring is \( R \). If the bead is released from the top of the hoop with (negligible) zero initial speed, the velocity of the bead, when the length of spring becomes \( R \), would be (spring constant is \( k \), \( g \) is acceleration due to gravity): 

              • \( \sqrt{\frac{3Rg + kR^2}{m}} \)
              • \( \sqrt{\frac{2Rg + kR^2}{m}} \)
              • \( \sqrt{\frac{2gR + kR^2}{m}} \)
              • \( \sqrt{\frac{2Rg + 4kR^2}{m}} \)

            • 5.

              The motion of an airplane is represented by the velocity-time graph as shown below. The distance covered by the airplane in the first 30.5 seconds is                km.

                • 9
                • 6
                • 3
                • 12

              • 6.

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