JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF: Download PDF with Solutions for 10 April Shift 1

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Ratnam Agarwal

Content Writer| Mechanical Engineer| Engineering Specialist | Updated 3+ months ago

JEE Main 2023 10 April Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions and Answer Key is available now! The National Testing Agency (NTA) held this exam from 9 AM to 12 PM, with a moderate to challenging difficulty level based on student reviews. Candidates can download the official JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF for April 10 Shift 1, including detailed solutions, using the link below. Boost your IIT JEE 2025 preparation with this essential study resource!

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JEE Main 2023 Question Paper With Solutions

Mathematics

Question 1:

An arc PQ of a circle subtends a right angle at its centre O. The midpoint of the arc PQ is R. If →O P = →u, O→R = →v and →OQ = →αu+ →βv, then α, β2 are the roots of the equation:

  1. 3x2 − 2x − 1 = 0
  2. 3x2 + 2x − 1 = 0
  3. x2 − x − 2 = 0
  4. x2 + x − 2 = 0
Correct Answer: (3) x2 − x − 2 = 0
View Solution

Question 2:

A square piece of tin of side 30 cm is to be made into a box without top by cutting a square from each corner and folding up the flaps to form a box. If the volume of the box is maximum, then its surface area (in cm2) is equal to:

  1. 800
  2. 1025
  3. 900
  4. 675
Correct Answer: (1) 800
View Solution

Question 3:

Let O be the origin and the position vector of the point P be −̂i−2ĵ+3k̂. If the position vectors of A, B, and C are −2̂i+ ĵ−3k̂, 2̂i+4ĵ−2k̂, and −4̂i+2ĵ−k̂ respectively, then the projection of vector O⃗P on a vector perpendicular to vectors A⃗B and A⃗C is:

  1. 103
  2. 83
  3. 73
  4. 3
Correct Answer: (4) 3
View Solution

Question 4:

If A is a 3×3 matrix and |A| = 2, then |3adj(|3A|A2)| is equal to:

  1. 312 × 610
  2. 311 × 610
  3. 312 × 611
  4. 310 × 611
Correct Answer: (2) 311 × 610
View Solution

Question 5:

Let two vertices of a triangle ABC be (2, 4, 6) and (0,−2,−5), and its centroid be (2, 1,−1). If the image of the third vertex in the plane x + 2y + 4z = 11 is (α, β, γ), then αβ + βγ + γα is equal to:

  1. 76
  2. 74
  3. 70
  4. 72
Correct Answer: (2) 74
View Solution

Question 6:

The negation of the statement (p ∨ q) ∧ (q ∨ (∼ r)) is:

  1. ((∼ p) ∨ r) ∧ (∼ q)
  2. ((∼ p) ∨ (∼ q)) ∧ (∼ r)
  3. ((∼ p) ∨ (∼ q)) ∨ (∼ r)
  4. (p ∨ r) ∧ (∼ q)
Correct Answer: (1) ((∼ p) ∨ r) ∧ (∼ q)
View Solution

Question 7:

The shortest distance between the lines x + 2 / 1 = y / −2 = z − 5 / 2 and x − 4 / 1 = y − 1 / 2 = z + 3 / 0 is:

  1. 8
  2. 7
  3. 6
  4. 9
Correct Answer: (4) 9
View Solution

Question 8:

If the coefficient of x7 in (ax − 1 / bx2)13 and the coefficient of x−5 in (ax + 1 / bx2)13 are equal, then a4b4 is equal to:

  1. 22
  2. 44
  3. 11
  4. 33
Correct Answer: (1) 22
View Solution

Question 9:

A line segment AB of length λ moves such that the points A and B remain on the periphery of a circle of radius γ. Then the locus of the point, that divides the line segment AB in the ratio 2 : 3, is a circle of radius:

  1. 2λ / 3
  2. √19λ / 7
  3. 3λ / 5
  4. √19λ / 5
Correct Answer: (4) √19λ / 5
View Solution

Question 10:

For the system of linear equations 2x − y + 3z = 5, 3x + 2y − z = 7, 4x + 5y + αz = β, which of the following is NOT correct?

  1. The system is inconsistent for α = −5 and β = 8
  2. The system has infinitely many solutions for α = −6 and β = 9
  3. The system has a unique solution for α ≠ −5 and β = 8
  4. The system has infinitely many solutions for α = −5 and β = 9
Correct Answer: (2) The system has infinitely many solutions for α = −6 and β = 9
View Solution

Question 11:

Let the first term a and the common ratio r of a geometric progression be positive integers. If the sum of squares of its first three terms is 33033, then the sum of these terms is equal to:

  1. 210
  2. 220
  3. 231
  4. 241
Correct Answer: (3) 231
View Solution

Question 12:

Let P be the point of intersection of the line x+3/3 = y+2/1 = 1−z/2 and the plane x + y + z = 2. If the distance of the point P from the plane 3x − 4y + 12z = 32 is q, then q and 2q are the roots of the equation:

  1. x² + 18x − 72 = 0
  2. x² + 18x + 72 = 0
  3. x² − 18x − 72 = 0
  4. x² − 18x + 72 = 0
Correct Answer: (4) x² − 18x + 72 = 0
View Solution

Question 13:

Let f be a differentiable function such that x²f(x) − x = 4∫₀ˣ tf(t) dt, f(1) = 2/3. Then 18f(3) is equal to:

  1. 180
  2. 150
  3. 210
  4. 160
Correct Answer: (4) 160
View Solution

Question 14:

Let N denote the sum of the numbers obtained when two dice are rolled. If the probability that 2N < N! is m/n, where m and n are coprime, then 4m − 3n is equal to:

  1. 12
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 6
Correct Answer: (2) 8
View Solution

Question 15:

If I(x) = ∫esin²xcosx(sin2x − sinx)dx and I(0) = 1, then I(π/3) is equal to:

  1. e³⁄₄
  2. e³⁄₄
  3. 1/2e³⁄₄
  4. 1/2e³⁄₄
Correct Answer: (3) 1/2e³⁄₄ View Solution
Question 16:

96 cos(π/33) cos(2π/33) cos(4π/33) cos(8π/33) cos(16π/33) is equal to:

  1. 4
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 1
Correct Answer: (3) 3
View Solution

Question 17:

Let the complex number z = x + iy be such that (2z − 3i) / (2z + i) is purely imaginary. If x + y2 = 0, then y4 + y2 − y is equal to:

  1. 3/2
  2. 2/3
  3. 4/3
  4. 3/4
Correct Answer: (4) 3/4
View Solution

Question 18:

If f(x) = [(tan 1°)x + loge(123)] / [x loge(1234) − (tan 1°)], x > 0, then the least value of f(f(x)) + f(f(4/x)) is:

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 8
  4. 0
Correct Answer: (2) 4
View Solution

Question 19:

The slope of the tangent at any point (x, y) on a curve y = y(x) is (x2 + y2) / (2xy), x > 0. If y(2) = 0, then a value of y(8) is:

  1. 4√3
  2. −4√2
  3. −2√3
  4. 2√3
Correct Answer: (1) 4√3
View Solution

Question 20:

Let the ellipse E: x2 + 9y2 = 9 intersect the positive x- and y-axes at the points A and B respectively. Let the major axis of E be a diameter of the circle C. Let the line passing through A and B meet the circle C at the point P. If the area of the triangle with vertices A, P, and the origin O is m/n, where m and n are coprime, then m − n is equal to:

  1. 16
  2. 15
  3. 18
  4. 17
Correct Answer: (4) 17
View Solution

Question 21:

Some couples participated in a mixed doubles badminton tournament. If the number of matches played, so that no couple is in a match, is 840, then the total number of persons who participated in the tournament is:

Correct Answer: 16
View Solution

Question 22:

The number of elements in the set {n ∈ Z : |n² − 10n + 19| < 6} is:

Correct Answer: 6
View Solution

Question 23:

The number of permutations of the digits 1, 2, 3, ..., 7 without repetition, which neither contain the string 153 nor the string 2467, is:

Correct Answer: 4898
View Solution

Question 24:

Let f(x) be defined as:
f(x) = x⌊x⌋, −2 < x < 0, and f(x) = (x − 1)⌊x⌋, 0 ≤ x < 2. If m and n are the number of points in (−2, 2) where y = |f(x)| is not continuous and not differentiable, then m + n is equal to:

Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 25:

Let a common tangent to the curves y² = 4x and (x − 4)² + y² = 16 touch the curves at the points P and Q. Then (PQ)² is equal to:

Correct Answer: 32
View Solution

Question 26:

If the mean of the frequency distribution is 28, then its variance is:

Correct Answer: 151
View Solution

Question 27:

The coefficient of x7 in (1 − x + 2x3)10 is:

Correct Answer: 960
View Solution

Question 28:

If y = p(x) is the parabola passing through points (−1, 0), (0, 1), and (1, 0), and the area of the region {(x, y) : (x + 1)2 + (y − 1)2 ≤ 1, y ≤ p(x)} is A, then 12(π − 4A) is equal to:

Correct Answer: 16
View Solution

Question 29:

Let a, b, c be three distinct positive real numbers such that (2a)logea = (bc)logeb and b log2(ea) = a loge(c). Then 6a + 5bc is equal to:

Correct Answer: Bonus
View Solution

Question 30:

The sum of all terms of the arithmetic progression 3, 8, 13, ..., 373, which are not divisible by 3, is:

Correct Answer: 9525
View Solution

Physics

Question 31:

The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown is:

capacitance of the combination

  1. 4C
  2. 5/3C
  3. C/2
  4. 2C
Correct Answer: (4) 2C View Solution

Question 32:

Match List I with List II:

List I:
(A) 3 Translational degrees of freedom
(B) 3 Translational, 2 rotational degrees of freedom
(C) 3 Translational, 2 rotational, and 1 vibrational degrees of freedom
(D) 3 Translational, 3 rotational, and more than one vibrational degrees of freedom

List II:
(I) Monoatomic gases
(II) Polyatomic gases
(III) Rigid diatomic gases
(IV) Nonrigid diatomic gases

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
View Solution

Question 33:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: If the number of turns in the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is doubled, then the current sensitivity becomes double.
Statement II: Increasing current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by only increasing the number of turns in the coil will also increase its voltage sensitivity in the same ratio.

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
View Solution

Question 34:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing an inductor, capacitor, and resistor in series with an AC source, during resonance.
Statement II: Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing a pure resistor due to zero phase difference between current and voltage.

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Correct Answer: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
View Solution

Question 35:

The range of a projectile projected at an angle of 15° with the horizontal is 50 m. If the projectile is projected with the same velocity at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, then its range will be:

  1. 100√2 m
  2. 50 m
  3. 100 m
  4. 50√2 m
Correct Answer: (3) 100 m
View Solution

Question 36:

A particle of mass m moving with velocity v collides with a stationary particle of mass 2m. After collision, they stick together and continue to move together with velocity:

  1. v/2
  2. v/3
  3. v/4
  4. v
Correct Answer: (2) v/3
View Solution

Question 37:

Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r and 3r respectively. The ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites is:

  1. 3:1
  2. 1:1
  3. √3:1
  4. 9:1
Correct Answer: (3) √3:1
View Solution

Question 38:

Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, the weight of a body at a depth d = R/2 from the surface of Earth, if its weight on the surface is 200 N, will be:

  1. 500 N
  2. 400 N
  3. 100 N
  4. 300 N
Correct Answer: (3) 100 N View Solution

Question 39:

The de Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a gas at room temperature (300 K) is λ1. If the temperature of the gas is increased to 600 K, the de Broglie wavelength becomes:

  1. 1
  2. λ1/√2
  3. √2λ1
  4. λ1/2
Correct Answer: (2) λ1/√2
View Solution

Question 40:

A physical quantity P is given as P = (a²b³)/(c√d). The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c, and d are 1%, 2%, 3%, and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of P is:

  1. 14%
  2. 13%
  3. 16%
  4. 12%
Correct Answer: (2) 13%
View Solution

Question 41:

Consider two containers A and B containing monoatomic gases at the same Pressure (P), Volume (V), and Temperature (T). The gas in A is compressed isothermally to 18 of its original volume, while the gas in B is compressed adiabatically to 18 of its original volume. The ratio of final pressure of gas in B to that of gas in A is:

  1. 8
  2. 4
  3. 18
  4. 832
Correct Answer: (2) 4
View Solution

Question 42:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Pressure in a reservoir of water is the same at all points at the same level of water.
Statement II: The pressure applied to enclosed water is transmitted in all directions equally.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Both Statements I and Statements II are false
  2. Both Statements I and Statements II are true
  3. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (2) Both Statements I and Statements II are true
View Solution

Question 43:

The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from school to their homes are shown. Which of the following statements are correct?

 position-time graph

  1. (A) A lives closer to the school
  2. (B) B lives closer to the school
  3. (C) A takes lesser time to reach home
  4. (D) A travels faster than B
  5. (E) B travels faster than A
Correct Answer: (1) (A) and (E) only
View Solution

Question 44:

The energy of an electromagnetic wave contained in a small volume oscillates with:

  1. Double the frequency of the wave
  2. The frequency of the wave
  3. Zero frequency
  4. Half the frequency of the wave
Correct Answer: (1) Double the frequency of the wave
View Solution

Question 45:

The equivalent resistance of the circuit shown below between points a and b is:

 the circuit

  1. 20Ω
  2. 16Ω
  3. 24Ω
  4. 3.2Ω
Correct Answer: (4) 3.2Ω
View Solution

Question 46:

A carrier wave of amplitude 15 V is modulated by a sinusoidal baseband signal of amplitude 3 V. The ratio of maximum amplitude to minimum amplitude in an amplitude-modulated wave is:

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 5
  4. 32
Correct Answer: (4) 32
View Solution

Question 47:

A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude A along the x-axis. At t = 0, the position of the particle is x = -A12, and it moves along the positive x-axis. The displacement of the particle in time t is given as x = A sin(ωt + δ). The value of δ will be:

  1. π4
  2. π2
  3. π3
  4. π6
Correct Answer: (4) π6 View Solution

Question 48:

The angular momentum of an electron in Bohr's orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve in the second orbit of a hydrogen atom, the change in angular momentum will be:

  1. L12
  2. Zero
  3. L
  4. 2L
Correct Answer: (3) L
View Solution

Question 49:

An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a plane mirror. A virtual and erect image is formed. Now the mirror is moved by 4 cm towards the stationary object. The distance by which the position of the image would be shifted will be:

  1. 4 cm towards the mirror
  2. 8 cm away from the mirror
  3. 2 cm towards the mirror
  4. 8 cm towards the mirror
Correct Answer: (4) 8 cm towards the mirror
View Solution

Question 50:

A Zener diode of power rating 1.6 W is used as a voltage regulator. If the Zener diode has a breakdown voltage of 8 V and it has to regulate a voltage fluctuating between 3 V and 10 V, what is the value of resistance Rs for safe operation of the diode?

A zener diode of power rating 1.6 W

  1. 13.3Ω
  2. 13Ω
  3. 10Ω
  4. 12Ω
Correct Answer: (3) 10Ω
View Solution

Question 51:

Unpolarised light of intensity 32 Wm-2 passes through the combination of three polaroids such that the pass axis of the last polaroid is perpendicular to that of the pass axis of the first polaroid. If the intensity of the emerging light is 3 Wm-2, then the angle between the pass axis of the first two polaroids is:

Correct Answer: 30° & 60°
View Solution

Question 52:

If the Earth suddenly shrinks to 1/64th of its original volume with its mass remaining the same, the period of rotation of the Earth becomes 24/x hours. The value of x is:

Correct Answer: 16
View Solution

Question 53:

Three concentric spherical metallic shells X, Y, and Z of radii a, b, and c respectively (a < b < c) have surface charge densities σ, -σ, and σ respectively. The shells X and Z are at the same potential. If the radii of X and Y are 2 cm and 3 cm respectively, the radius of shell Z is:

Correct Answer: 5 cm
View Solution

Question 54:

A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given by y(x, t) = 5 sin(6t + 0.003x), where x and y are in cm and t in seconds. The wave velocity is:

Correct Answer: 20 m/s
View Solution

Question 55:

10 resistors each of resistance 10 Ω can be connected to get maximum and minimum equivalent resistance. The ratio of maximum to minimum equivalent resistance is:

Correct Answer: 100
View Solution

Question 56:

The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide is 1.5 × 10-5s-1. Atomic weight of the substance is 60 g mole-1 (NA = 6 × 1023). The activity of 1.0 µg of the substance is:

Correct Answer: 15 × 1010 Bq
View Solution

Question 57:

Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm and negligible mass, one made of steel and the other made of brass, are loaded as shown in the figure. The elongation of the steel wire is:

Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm

Correct Answer: 20 × 10-6 m
View Solution

Question 58:

A closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm, whose inner walls are rough, is kept in a vertical plane. A block of mass 1 kg is introduced at the top of the tube with a speed of 22 m/s. After completing five oscillations, the block stops at the bottom of the tube. The work done by the tube on the block is:

A closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm

Correct Answer: -245 J
View Solution

Step 1: Work-energy theorem
The work-energy theorem states Wf + Wgravity = ∆K.
Step 2: Substitute known values
Wf + 10 × 0.3 = 0 - 0.5 × 1 × (22)2.
Wf + 3 = -242 => Wf = -245 J.


Question 59:

A 1 m long metal rod completes the circuit as shown in the figure. The plane of the circuit is perpendicular to a magnetic field of flux density 0.15 T. If the resistance of the circuit is 5 Ω, the force needed to move the rod at a constant speed of 4 m/s is:

Correct Answer: 18 × 10-3 N
View Solution

Question 60:

The current required to be passed through a solenoid of 15 cm length and 60 turns to demagnetize a bar magnet of magnetic intensity 2.4 × 103 A/m is:

Correct Answer: 6 A
View Solution

Chemistry

Question 61:

The major product 'P' formed in the given reaction is:

The major product ’P’ formed

  1. Option 1
  2. Option 2
  3. Option 3
  4. Option 4
Correct Answer: (1) Option 1
View Solution

Question 62:

Prolonged heating is avoided during the preparation of ferrous ammonium sulphate to:

  1. Prevent hydrolysis
  2. Prevent reduction
  3. Prevent breaking
  4. Prevent oxidation
Correct Answer: (4) Prevent oxidation
View Solution

Question 63:

Identify the correct order of reactivity for the following pairs towards the respective mechanism:

correct order of reactivity

  1. (A), (C), and (D) only
  2. (A), (B), and (D) only
  3. (B), (C), and (D) only
  4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
Correct Answer: (4) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
View Solution

Question 64:

The ∆H° for the reaction C(graphite) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO(g) is:

  1. (x − 2y)/2
  2. (x + 2y)/2
  3. (2x − y)/2
  4. (2y − x)
Correct Answer: (1) (x − 2y)/2
View Solution

Question 65:

Using column chromatography, a mixture of two compounds 'A' and 'B' was separated. 'A' eluted first. This indicates 'B' has:

  1. High Rf, weaker adsorption
  2. High Rf, stronger adsorption
  3. Low Rf, stronger adsorption
  4. Low Rf, weaker adsorption
Correct Answer: (3) Low Rf, stronger adsorption
View Solution

Question 66:

Lime reacts exothermally with water to give 'A' which has low solubility in water. Aqueous solution of 'A' is often used for the test of CO2, where insoluble 'B' is formed. If 'B' is further reacted with CO2, a soluble compound is formed. 'A' is:

  1. Quick lime
  2. Slaked lime
  3. White lime
  4. Lime water
Correct Answer: (2) Slaked lime
View Solution

Question 67:

Match List I with List II:

List I: Industry
List II: Waste Generated

  1. Steel plants - Slag
  2. Thermal power plants - Fly ash
  3. Fertilizer industries - Gypsum
  4. Paper mills - Bio-degradable wastes
Correct Answer: (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
View Solution

Question 68:

Suitable reaction condition for preparation of Methyl phenyl ether is:

  1. Benzene, MeBr
  2. PhO-Na+, MeOH
  3. Ph-Br, MeO-Na+
  4. PhO-Na+, MeBr
Correct Answer: (4) PhO-Na+, MeBr
View Solution

Question 69:

The one that does not stabilize 2° and 3° structures of proteins is:

  1. H-bonding
  2. –S–S– linkage
  3. van der Waals forces
  4. –O–O– linkage
Correct Answer: (4) –O–O– linkage
View Solution

Question 70:

The compound which does not exist is:

  1. PbEt4
  2. BeH2
  3. NaO2
  4. (NH4)2BeF4
Correct Answer: (3) NaO2
View Solution

Question 71:

Given below are two reactions, involved in the commercial production of dihydrogen (H2). The two reactions are carried out at temperature T1 and T2, respectively:

C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2 (T1)
CO(g) + H2O(g) → CO2(g) + H2 (T2)

The temperatures T1 and T2 are correctly related as:

  1. T1 = T2
  2. T1 < T2
  3. T1 > T2
  4. T1 = 100 K, T2 = 1270 K
Correct Answer: (3) T1 > T2
View Solution

Question 72:

The enthalpy change for the adsorption process and micelle formation respectively are:

  1. ∆Hads < 0 and ∆Hmic < 0
  2. ∆Hads > 0 and ∆Hmic < 0
  3. ∆Hads < 0 and ∆Hmic > 0
  4. ∆Hads > 0 and ∆Hmic > 0
Correct Answer: (3) ∆Hads < 0 and ∆Hmic > 0
View Solution

Question 73:

The pair from the following pairs having both compounds with net non-zero dipole moment is:

  1. cis-butene, trans-butene
  2. Benzene, anisidine
  3. CH2Cl2, CHCl3
  4. 1,4-Dichlorobenzene, 1,3-Dichlorobenzene
Correct Answer: (3) CH2Cl2, CHCl3
View Solution

Question 74:

Which of the following is used as a stabilizer during the concentration of sulphide ores?

  1. Xanthates
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Pine oils
  4. Cresols
Correct Answer: (4) Cresols
View Solution

Question 75:

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The M3+/M2+ reduction potential for iron is greater than manganese.
(B) The higher oxidation states of first-row d-block elements get stabilized by oxide ion.
(C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid.
(D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is observed between 4.4-5.2 BM.

  1. (C), (D) only
  2. (B), (C) only
  3. (A), (B), (D) only
  4. (A), (B) only
Correct Answer: (2) (B), (C) only
View Solution

Question 76:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Aqueous solution of K2Cr2O7 is preferred as a primary standard in volumetric analysis over Na2Cr2O7 aqueous solution.
Statement II: K2Cr2O7 has a higher solubility in water than Na2Cr2O7.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

  1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct Answer: (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
View Solution

Question 77:

The octahedral diamagnetic low spin complex among the following is:

  1. [CoF6]3−
  2. [CoCl6]3−
  3. [Co(NH3)6]3+
  4. [NiCl4]2−
Correct Answer: (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+
View Solution

Question 78:

Isomeric amines with molecular formula C8H11N give the following tests:

(P) Can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
(Q) Reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid insoluble in NaOH.
(R) Reacts with HONO followed by β-naphthol in NaOH to give a red dye.

Isomer (P), (Q), and (R), respectively, are:

  1. Option 1
  2. Option 2
  3. Option 3
  4. Option 4
Correct Answer: (2) Option 2
View Solution

Question 79:

The number of molecules and moles in 2.8375 litres of O2 at STP are respectively:

  1. 7.527 × 1022 and 0.125 mol
  2. 1.505 × 1023 and 0.250 mol
  3. 7.527 × 1023 and 0.125 mol
  4. 7.527 × 1022 and 0.250 mol
Correct Answer: (1) 7.527 × 1022 and 0.125 mol
View Solution

Question 80:

Match List I with List II:

List I: Polymer
List II: Classification

(A) Nylon-2-Nylon-6 - Biodegradable polymer
(B) Buna-N - Synthetic rubber
(C) Urea-formaldehyde resin - Thermosetting polymer
(D) Dacron - Polyester

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
View Solution

Question 81:

If the degree of dissociation of an aqueous solution of weak monobasic acid is determined to be 0.3, then the observed freezing point will be % higher than the expected/theoretical freezing point. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: 30%
View Solution

Question 82:

In the following reactions, the total number of oxygen atoms in X and Y is:
Na2O + H2O → 2X
Cl2O7 + H2O → 2Y

Correct Answer: 5
View Solution

Question 83:

The sum of lone pairs present on the central atom of the interhalogens IF5 and IF7 is:

Correct Answer: 1
View Solution

Question 84:

The number of bent-shaped molecule(s) from the following is:
N3, NO2, I3, O3, SO2

Correct Answer: 3 View Solution

Question 85:

The number of correct statement(s) involving equilibria in physical form from the following is:
(1) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature.
(2) Both the opposing processes occur at the same rate.
(3) When equilibrium is attained at a given temperature, the value of all its parameters becomes constant.
(4) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the solubility is constant at a given temperature.

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Question 86:

At constant temperature, a gas is at a pressure of 940.3 mm Hg. The pressure at which its volume decreases by 40% is:

Correct Answer: 1567 mm Hg
View Solution

Question 87:

FeO42− + 2.2V → Fe3+, Fe3+ + 0.7V → Fe2+, Fe2+ -0.45V → Fe°. E°FeO42−/Fe2+ is x × 10−3V. The value of x is:

Correct Answer: 1825
View Solution

Question 88:

A molecule undergoes two independent first-order reactions whose respective half-lives are 12 min and 3 min. If both reactions are occurring, the time taken for 50% consumption of the reactant is:

Correct Answer: 2 minutes
View Solution

Question 89:

The number of incorrect statement(s) about the black body from the following is:
(1) Emits or absorbs energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
(2) Frequency distribution of the emitted radiation depends on temperature.
(3) At a given temperature, intensity vs frequency curve passes through a maximum value.
(4) The maximum of the intensity vs frequency curve is at a higher frequency at higher temperature compared to that at lower temperature.

Correct Answer: 0
View Solution

Question 90:

In potassium ferrocyanide, there are pairs of electrons in the t2g set of orbitals:

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

 


Also Check:

JEE Main 10 April 2023 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key: Coaching Institute PDF

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
Aakash BYJUs Check Here
Reliable Institute Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
Resonance Physics
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Vedantu Check Here
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JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis 10 April Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for the exam conducted on 10 April Shift 1 is available here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam conducted on 10 April Shift 1 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

JEE Main 2023 Session 2 Question Paper

JEE Main 2023 Session 1 Question Paper

JEE Main aspirants can practice and check their exam prep level by attempting the question papers from the January Session. The table below shows JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF for Session 1 to practice.

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper


JEE Main Questions

  • 1.

    The least acidic compound, among the following is

      • D
      • A
      • B
      • C

    • 2.
      Let \( A = [a_{ij}] \) be a matrix of order 3 \(\times\) 3, with \(a_{ij} = (\sqrt{2})^{i+j}\). If the sum of all the elements in the third row of \( A^2 \) is \( \alpha + \beta\sqrt{2} \), where \(\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{Z}\), then \(\alpha + \beta\) is equal to:

        • 280
        • 168
        • 210
        • 224

      • 3.

        Let $ f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} $ be a twice differentiable function such that $$ f''(x)\sin\left(\frac{x}{2}\right) + f'(2x - 2y) = (\cos x)\sin(y + 2x) + f(2x - 2y) $$ for all $ x, y \in \mathbb{R} $. If $ f(0) = 1 $, then the value of $ 24f^{(4)}\left(\frac{5\pi}{3}\right) $ is:

          • \(\left(\frac{5\pi}{3}\right) \) is:

          • –3
          • 2
          • 1

        • 4.
          A 400 g solid cube having an edge of length \(10\) cm floats in water. How much volume of the cube is outside the water? (Given: density of water = \(1000 { kg/m}^3\))

            • \( 600 { cm}^3 \)
            • \( 4000 { cm}^3 \)
            • \( 1400 { cm}^3 \)
            • \( 400 { cm}^3 \)

          • 5.
            In a group of 3 girls and 4 boys, there are two boys \( B_1 \) and \( B_2 \). The number of ways in which these girls and boys can stand in a queue such that all the girls stand together, all the boys stand together, but \( B_1 \) and \( B_2 \) are not adjacent to each other, is:

              • 144
              • 120
              • 72
              • 96

            • 6.
              An infinite wire has a circular bend of radius \( a \), and carrying a current \( I \) as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the origin \( O \) of the arc is given by:
              An infinite wire has a circular bend of radius

                • \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi a} \left( \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2 \right) \)
                • \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi a} \left( \frac{\pi}{2} + 2 \right) \)
                • \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi a} \left( \frac{3\pi}{2} \right) \)
                • \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi a} \left( \frac{3\pi}{2} + 1 \right) \)

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