JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 1- Download PDF

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Shivam Yadav

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JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 1 is available for download. Candidates can download JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper PDF with Answer Key for Jan 29 Shift 1 using the link below. JEE Main Chemistry Question Paper is divided into two sections, Section A with 20 MCQs and Section B with 10 numerical type questions. Candidates are required to answer all questions from Section A and any 5 questions from section B.

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JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 1- Download PDF

JEE Main 2023 Jan 29 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution PDF download iconDownload Check Solution


JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

For 1 mol of gas, the plot of pV vs p is shown below. p is the pressure and V is the volume of the gas. What is the value of compressibility factor at point A?

  1. (1) 1 − a/RT V
  2. (2) 1 + b/V
  3. (3) 1 − b/V
  4. (4) 1 + a/RT V
Correct Answer: (1) 1 − a/RT V
View Solution

Question 2:

The shortest wavelength of hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is λ. The longest wavelength in the Balmer series of He+ is:

  1. (1) 5/9 λ
  2. (2) 9/5 λ
  3. (3) 36/5 λ
  4. (4) 5/9 λ
Correct Answer: (2) 9/5 λ
View Solution

Question 3:

Which of the following salt solutions would coagulate the colloid solution formed when FeCl3 is added to NaOH solution, at the fastest rate?

  1. (1) 10 mL of 0.2 mol dm−3 AlCl3
  2. (2) 10 mL of 0.1 mol dm−3 Na2SO4
  3. (3) 10 mL of 0.1 mol dm−3 Ca3(PO4)2
  4. (4) 10 mL of 0.15 mol dm−3 CaCl2
Correct Answer: (1) 10 mL of 0.2 mol dm−3 AlCl3
View Solution

Question 4:

The bond dissociation energy is highest for:

  1. (1) Cl2
  2. (2) I2
  3. (3) Br2
  4. (4) F2
Correct Answer: (1) Cl2
View Solution

Question 5:

The reaction representing the Mond process for metal refining is:

  1. (1) Ni + 4CO Δ → Ni(CO)4
  2. (2) 2K[Au(CN)2] + Zn Δ → K2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Au
  3. (3) Zr + 2I2 Δ → ZrI4
  4. (4) ZnO + C Δ → Zn + CO
Correct Answer: (1) Ni + 4CO Δ → Ni(CO)4
View Solution

Question 6:

Which of the given compounds can enhance the efficiency of a hydrogen storage tank?

  1. (1) Li/P4
  2. (2) SiH4
  3. (3) NaNi5
  4. (4) Di-isobutylaluminium hydride
Correct Answer: (3) NaNi5
View Solution

Question 7:

The correct order of hydration enthalpies is:

(A) K+
(B) Rb+
(C) Mg2+
(D) Cs+
(E) Ca2+

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (1) C > A > E > B > D
  2. (2) E > C > A > B > D
  3. (3) C > E > A > D > B
  4. (4) C > E > A > B > D
Correct Answer: (4) C > E > A > B > D
View Solution

Question 8:

The magnetic behavior of Li2O, Na2O2, and KO2, respectively, is:

  1. (1) diamagnetic, paramagnetic, and diamagnetic
  2. (2) paramagnetic, paramagnetic, and diamagnetic
  3. (3) paramagnetic, diamagnetic, and paramagnetic
  4. (4) diamagnetic, diamagnetic, and paramagnetic
Correct Answer: (4) diamagnetic, diamagnetic, and paramagnetic
View Solution

Question 9:

"A" obtained by Ostwald's method involving air oxidation of NH3, upon further air oxidation produces "B". "B" on hydration forms an oxoacid of nitrogen along with evolution of "A". The oxoacid also produces "A" and gives a positive brown ring test.

  1. (1) NO2, N2O5
  2. (2) NO2, N2O4
  3. (3) NO, NO2
  4. (4) N2O3, NO2
Correct Answer: (3) NO, NO2
View Solution

Question 10:

The standard electrode potential (M3+/M2+) for V, Cr, Mn, and Co are -0.26 V, -0.41 V, +1.57 V, and +1.97 V, respectively. The metal ions which can liberate H2 from a dilute acid are:

  1. (1) V2+ and Mn2+
  2. (2) Cr2+ and Co2+
  3. (3) V2+ and Cr2+
  4. (4) Mn2+ and Co2+
Correct Answer: (3) V2+ and Cr2+
View Solution

Question 11:

Correct statement about smog is:

  1. (1) NO2 is present in classical smog
  2. (2) Both NO2 and SO2 are present in classical smog
  3. (3) Photochemical smog has a high concentration of oxidizing agents
  4. (4) Classical smog also has a high concentration of oxidizing agents
Correct Answer: (3) Photochemical smog has a high concentration of oxidizing agents
View Solution

Question 12:

Chiral complex from the following is:

  1. (1) cis–[PtCl2(en)2]2+
  2. (2) trans–[PtCl2(en)2]2+
  3. (3) cis–[PtCl2(NH3)2]
  4. (4) trans–[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
Correct Answer: (1) cis–[PtCl2(en)2]2+
View Solution

Question 13:

Identify the correct order for the given property for the following compounds:

(The exact compounds and property details are not fully shown in the question excerpt, but the final conclusion is provided.)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (1) (B), (C), and (D) only
  2. (2) (A), (C), and (E) only
  3. (3) (A), (C), and (D) only
  4. (4) (A), (B), and (E) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (C), and (E) only
View Solution

Question 14:

The increasing order of pKa for the following phenols is:

  1. (1) 2,4-Dinitrophenol
  2. (2) 4-Nitrophenol
  3. (3) 2,4,5-Trimethylphenol
  4. (4) Phenol
  5. (5) 3-Chlorophenol

Answer: (2) 2,4-Dinitrophenol < 4-Nitrophenol < 3-Chlorophenol < Phenol < 2,4,5-Trimethylphenol

Solution:
View Solution

Question 15:

Match the reactions in List-I with the reagents in List-II:

List-I (Reaction) List-II (Reagents)
(A) Hoffmann Degradation (I) Conc. KOH, heat
(B) Clemenson Reduction (II) CHCl3, NaOH / H3O+
(C) Cannizzaro Reaction (III) Br2, NaOH
(D) Reimer-Tiemann Reaction (IV) Zn-Hg / HCl
  1. (1) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) – II, (D) – I
  2. (2) (A) – II, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) – III
  3. (3) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) – II
  4. (4) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – III, (D) – IV

Answer: (3) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) – II

Solution:
View Solution

Question 16:

The major product 'P' for the following sequence of reactions is:

  1. (1) Some other derivative
  2. (2) Yet another derivative
  3. (3) Ph-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-NH2
  4. (4) A substituted ring compound

Answer: (3)

Solution:
View Solution

Question 17:

During the borax bead test with CuSO4, a blue-green colour of the bead was observed in the oxidizing flame due to the formation of:

  1. (1) Cu3B2
  2. (2) Cu
  3. (3) Cu(BO2)2
  4. (4) CuO
Correct Answer: (3) Cu(BO2)2
View Solution

Question 18:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Antimicrobials) List II (Names)
(A) Narrow Spectrum Antibiotic (I) Furacin
(B) Antiseptic (II) Sulphur Dioxide
(C) Disinfectants (III) Penicillin-G
(D) Broad Spectrum Antibiotic (IV) Chloramphenicol
  1. (1) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – II, (D) – IV
  2. (2) (A) – I, (B) – II, (C) – IV, (D) – III
  3. (3) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) – III
  4. (4) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) – II

Answer: (1) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – II, (D) – IV

Solution:
View Solution

Question 19:

Number of cyclic tripeptides formed with 2 amino acids A and B is:

  1. (1) 2
  2. (2) 3
  3. (3) 5
  4. (4) 4
Correct Answer: (4) 4
View Solution

Question 20:

Compound that will give positive Lassaigne's test for both nitrogen and halogen is:

  1. (1) N2H4·HCl
  2. (2) CH3NH2·HCl
  3. (3) NH4Cl
  4. (4) NH2OH·HCl
Correct Answer: (2) CH3NH2·HCl
View Solution

Question 21:

Millimoles of calcium hydroxide required to produce 100 mL of the aqueous solution of pH 12 is x × 10−1. The value of x is —— (Nearest integer). Assume complete dissociation.

Answer: 5

Solution:
View Solution

Question 22:

The number of molecules or ions from the following, which do not have an odd number of electrons, are ——:

  • (A) NO2
  • (B) ICl4
  • (C) BrF3
  • (D) ClO2
  • (E) NO2+
  • (F) NO

Answer: 3

Solution:
View Solution

Question 23:

Consider the following reaction approaching equilibrium at 27°C and 1 atm pressure:

A + B ⇌ C + D

Kf = 103, Kr = 102

The standard Gibbs energy change (ΔrG°) at 27°C is (–) —— kJ mol−1 (Nearest integer).

(Given: R = 8.3 J K−1 mol−1 and ln(10) = 2.3)

Answer: 6

Solution:
View Solution

Question 24:

Solid lead nitrate is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The solution was found to boil at 100.15°C. When 0.2 mol of NaCl is added to the resulting solution, it was observed that the solution froze at –0.8°C. The solubility product of PbCl2 formed is — × 10−6 at 298 K (Nearest integer).

Given: Kb = 0.5 K kg mol−1, Kf = 1.8 kg mol−1

Answer: 13

Solution:
View Solution

Question 25:

Water decomposes at 2300 K:

2 H2O(g) ⇌ 2 H2(g) + O2(g)

The percent of water decomposing at 2300 K and 1 bar is —— (Nearest integer). Equilibrium constant for the reaction is 2 × 10^-3 at 2300 K.

Answer: 2

Solution:
View Solution

Question 26:

The following figure shows the dependence of molar conductance of two electrolytes on concentration. Lambda°m is the limiting molar conductivity. The number of incorrect statements from the following is ——.

(A) Lambda°m for electrolyte A is obtained by extrapolation.
(B) For electrolyte B, sqrt(c) vs. Lambda(m) graph is a straight line with intercept equal to Lambda°m.
(C) At infinite dilution, the value of degree of dissociation approaches zero for electrolyte B.
(D) Lambda°m for any electrolyte A or B can be calculated using lambda° for individual ions.

Answer: 2

Solution:
View Solution

Question 27:

For a certain chemical reaction X → Y, the rate of formation of the product is plotted against time as shown in the figure. The number of correct statements from the following is ——.

(A) Overall order of this reaction is one.
(B) Order of this reaction cannot be determined.
(C) In region-I and III, the reaction is of first and zero order respectively.
(D) In region-II, the reaction is of first order.
(E) In region-II, the order of the reaction is in the range of 0.1 to 0.9.

Answer: 2

Solution:
View Solution

Question 28:

The sum of bridging carbonyls in W(CO)6 and Mn2(CO)10 is ——.

Answer: 0

Solution:
View Solution

Question 29:

Following chromatogram was developed by adsorption of compound A on a 6 cm TLC glass plate. The retardation factor of the compound A is —— × 10−1.

Answer: 6

Solution:
View Solution

Question 30:

17 mg of a hydrocarbon (Molecular Formula: C10H16) takes up 8.40 mL of H2 gas measured at 0°C and 760 mmHg. Ozonolysis of the hydrocarbon yields certain products. The number of double bonds present in the hydrocarbon is ——.

Answer: 3

Solution:
View Solution



Also Check:

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Analysis Jan 29 Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for Chemistry paper scheduled on January 29 Shift 1 has also been updated here. Based on the initial reaction of the students, the Chemistry section in JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 1 was reported as moderate which almost equal weightage of Physical, Inorganic and Organic Chemistry. Candidates can check the topics with the highest weightage, difficulty level and memory-based Chemistry questions.

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Chemistry Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 20 MCQs + 10 Numerical Type Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 20 MCQs + 5 Numerical Type Questions
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Also Check:

JEE Main 2022 Question Paper

JEE Main 2023 aspirants can practice and check their exam prep level by attempting the previous year question papers as well. The table below shows JEE Main 2022 Question Paper PDF for B.E./B.Tech to practice.

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper

JEE Main Questions

  • 1.

    Choose the correct set of reagents for the following conversion:

      • \( \text{Cl}_2/\text{Fe}; \text{Br}_2/\text{anhy.} \text{AlCl}_3; \text{aq. KOH} \)
      • \( \text{Br}_2/\text{Fe}; \text{Cl}_2, \Delta; \text{alc. KOH} \)
      • \( \text{Cl}_2/\text{anhy.} \text{AlCl}_3; \text{Br}_2/\text{Fe}; \text{alc. KOH} \)
      • \( \text{Br}_2/\text{anhy.} \text{AlCl}_3; \text{Cl}_2, \Delta; \text{aq. KOH} \)

    • 2.

      A bead of mass \( m \) slides without friction on the wall of a vertical circular hoop of radius \( R \) as shown in figure. The bead moves under the combined action of gravity and a massless spring \( k \) attached to the bottom of the hoop. The equilibrium length of the spring is \( R \). If the bead is released from the top of the hoop with (negligible) zero initial speed, the velocity of the bead, when the length of spring becomes \( R \), would be (spring constant is \( k \), \( g \) is acceleration due to gravity): 

        • \( \sqrt{\frac{3Rg + kR^2}{m}} \)
        • \( \sqrt{\frac{2Rg + kR^2}{m}} \)
        • \( \sqrt{\frac{2gR + kR^2}{m}} \)
        • \( \sqrt{\frac{2Rg + 4kR^2}{m}} \)

      • 3.

        The motion of an airplane is represented by the velocity-time graph as shown below. The distance covered by the airplane in the first 30.5 seconds is                km.

          • 9
          • 6
          • 3
          • 12

        • 4.

          The least acidic compound, among the following is

            • D
            • A
            • B
            • C

          • 5.
            In a group of 3 girls and 4 boys, there are two boys \( B_1 \) and \( B_2 \). The number of ways in which these girls and boys can stand in a queue such that all the girls stand together, all the boys stand together, but \( B_1 \) and \( B_2 \) are not adjacent to each other, is:

              • 144
              • 120
              • 72
              • 96

            • 6.
              An infinite wire has a circular bend of radius \( a \), and carrying a current \( I \) as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the origin \( O \) of the arc is given by:
              An infinite wire has a circular bend of radius

                • \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi a} \left( \frac{3\pi}{2} + 2 \right) \)
                • \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi a} \left( \frac{\pi}{2} + 2 \right) \)
                • \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi a} \left( \frac{3\pi}{2} \right) \)
                • \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi a} \left( \frac{3\pi}{2} + 1 \right) \)

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