The CUET Environmental Science 2025 exam was held on 20 May 2025, and the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF are available for download here. This paper assesses knowledge of ecosystems, biodiversity, pollution, environmental policies, sustainable development, and climate change.

As per the revised exam pattern, students must answer 50 questions in 60 minutes, with a total of 250 marks. Each correct answer gets +5 marks, and each wrong answer leads to a –1 mark deduction.

CUET UG Environmental Science 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET UG Environmental Science Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET UG Environmental Science 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

The Ecological Debt Day (Earth shoot day) is calculated as follows:

  • (A) (World Biocapacity / World Water footprint) x 365
  • (B) (World Biocapacity / World Carbon footprint) x 365
  • (C) (World Biocapacity / World Ecological footprint) x 365
  • (D) (World Biocapacity / World Ecosystem Services) x 365

Question 2:

The first Earth Day was celebrated on _________.

  • (A) 22 April, 1971
  • (B) 22 April, 1972
  • (C) 22 April, 1970
  • (D) 22 April, 1973

Question 3:

Which of the following Environmental Ethics includes preservation of wild plants and animals, control of the human population and simple living?

  • (A) Social Ecology
  • (B) Shallow Ecology
  • (C) Deep Ecology
  • (D) Green Ecology

Question 4:

Who among the following coined the term of "Oekology"?

  • (A) E. P. Odum
  • (B) Arne Naess
  • (C) A. G. Tansley
  • (D) Ernst Haeckel

Question 5:

Diversity of organism which share the same community/habitat and also called as local diversity, is referred to as

  • (A) Beta diversity
  • (B) Gamma diversity
  • (C) Alpha diversity
  • (D) Genetic diversity

Question 6:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 7:

The theory which states that "the population grows geometrically whereas resources like food grow arithmetically", was given by

  • (A) Julion Simon
  • (B) Friedrich Engels
  • (C) T. R. Malthus
  • (D) W. Thompson

Question 8:

The species that invades a bare area is referred to as _________.

  • (A) sere(s)
  • (B) pioneer
  • (C) mesic
  • (D) climax

Question 9:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Question 10:

Break down of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm in an ecosystem is referred to as _________.

  • (A) leaching
  • (B) catabolism
  • (C) fragmentation
  • (D) humification

Question 11:

Arrange the following ecological succession in the lithosphere (rocks) from initial to final succession stages

(A) Moss stage

(B) Foliose-lichens stage

(C) Herbaceous stage

(D) Crustose-lichens stage

(E) Shrub stage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (B), (A), (D), (C), (E)
  • (B) (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)
  • (C) (B), (D), (A), (C), (E)
  • (D) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

Question 12:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
  • (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (D) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Question 13:

In which of the following types of population interactions, one species is benefited while another species is being harmed?

(A) Competition

(B) Parasitism

(C) Amensalism

(D) Predation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (C) (B) and (D) only
  • (D) (C) and (D) only

Question 14:

Which of the following population growth equation correctly represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic growth equation? [Where N =population density at time t; r = intrinsic rate of natural increase; K= carrying capacity]

  • (A) \( \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \frac{(N-K)}{K} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \frac{(K-N)}{K} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \frac{(K-N)}{N} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \frac{(N-K)}{N} \)

Question 15:

Energy flow in an ecosystem is always _____________________

  • (A) Cyclic
  • (B) Multidirectional
  • (C) Bidrectional
  • (D) Unidirectional

Question 16:

Which one of the following is a primary air pollutant?

  • (A) Ash from a volcanic eruption
  • (B) Tropospheric Ozone
  • (C) Stratospheric Ozone
  • (D) PAN

Question 17:

Most of the agricultural runoff and chemical fertilizers used in farming end up in water bodies, which leads to eutrophication. The nutrients responsible for eutrophication are

  • (A) Nitrogen and Potassium
  • (B) Nitrogen and Phosphorus
  • (C) Phosphorus and Potassium
  • (D) Nitrogen and Boron

Question 18:

Which one of the following are the commonly used oxidants in COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand) assays?

  • (A) K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\) + HNO\(_3\)
  • (B) K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\) + HCL
  • (C) K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\) + H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (D) KMnO\(_4\) + HCL

Question 19:

Which one of the following soil types is most suitable for good plant growth and agriculture?

  • (A) Sandy soils
  • (B) Clayey soils
  • (C) Silty soils
  • (D) Loamy soils

Question 20:

Which of the following are acid forming precursor gases and causes acid rain?

  • (A) O\(_3\) and SO\(_2\)
  • (B) NO\(_2\) and SO\(_2\)
  • (C) CO\(_2\) and SO\(_2\)
  • (D) NO\(_2\) and NH\(_3\)

Question 21:

Which of the following diseases is NOT a water-borne disease?

  • (A) Cholera
  • (B) Giardiasis
  • (C) Bronchitis
  • (D) Dracontiasis

Question 22:

Which of the following techniques is not appropriate/used for air pollution control?

  • (A) Bag House Filter
  • (B) Cyclone Separator
  • (C) High Volume Sampler
  • (D) Electrostatic Precipitator

Question 23:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 24:

Arrange the following gases in increasing order of their concentrations in the Earth's atmosphere.

(A) Oxygen

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Argon

(E) Neon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (B), (E), (D), (A), (C)
  • (B) (E), (D), (B), (A), (C)
  • (C) (C), (A), (D), (B), (E)
  • (D) (E), (B), (D), (A), (C)

Question 25:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 26:

In which process, waste material is burnt in absence of oxygen?

  • (A) Incineration
  • (B) Pyrolysis
  • (C) Gasification
  • (D) Composting

Question 27:

Catalytic converters fitted in vehicles are used for_____________________.

  • (A) oxidation of NO\(_x\), CO and hydrocarbons.
  • (B) oxidation of CO and reduction of NO\(_x\).
  • (C) reduction of CO\(_2\) and oxidation of NO.
  • (D) oxidation of CO, and reduction of NO\(_2\) and volatile organic carbons.

Question 28:

Which of the following traditional rainwater harvesting systems is/are commonly used in the state of Bihar?

(A) Eris

(B) Ahar

(C) Surangams

(D) Pyne

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (B) only
  • (B) (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A) and (C) only
  • (D) (B) and (D) only

Question 29:

Which of the following are associated with Gandhian concepts of holistic development of the nation?

(A) Antodaya

(B) Sarvodaya

(C) Panchayti Raj

(D) Reverse migration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) and (B) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (B) and (C)
  • (D) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Question 30:

Which of the following is a suitable example of sedimentary cycle?

  • (A) Carbon cycle
  • (B) Oxygen cycle
  • (C) Nitrogen cycle
  • (D) Phosphorous cycle

Question 31:

Decentralised Waste Water Treatment (DEWAT) system has_________.

(A) Low primary investment.

(B) Easy to operate and maintenance.

(C) Baffled filter reactor filled with stone for filtration.

(D) First three chambers for sedimentation of sludge.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 32:

The resources which are available but are not yet explored due to lack of technology are referred to as __________.

  • (A) Reserve resources
  • (B) Potential resources
  • (C) Stock resources
  • (D) Actual resources

Question 33:

Who among the following is known as the Father of the Green revolution and was also awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in the year 1970?

  • (A) M. S. Swaminathan
  • (B) Norman Fukuoka
  • (C) Norman E. Borlaug
  • (D) Borlaugh Fukuoka

Question 34:

Organoponics is a labor-intensive form of local agriculture using organic methods. The concept of Organoponics was first evolved in __________.

  • (A) India
  • (B) Srilanka
  • (C) China
  • (D) Cuba

Question 35:

"Sale of products like smartphones interconnected by a network" is a close example of ________________.

  • (A) positive production externalities
  • (B) negative consumption externalities
  • (C) positive consumption externalities
  • (D) negative production externalities

Question 36:

Arrange the following greenhouse gases in ascending order of their contribution to global warming.

(A) CH\(_4\)

(B) N\(_2\)O

(C) CFCs

(D) CO\(_2\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (B), (C), (A), (D)
  • (C) (C), (B), (A), (D)
  • (D) (A), (C), (B), (D)

Question 37:

Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in ascending order of their frequency.

(A) Micro-wave

(B) Radio-wave

(C) Gamma Rays

(D) UV Rays

(E) Infrared radiations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  • (B) (C), (D), (A), (B), (E)
  • (C) (B), (A), (E), (D), (C)
  • (D) (D), (C), (B), (A), (E)

Question 38:

Which of the following are push factors for rural to urban migration?

(A) Flood

(B) Political instability

(C) Better job opportunities

(D) High agricultural yields

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (B) (B) and (D) only
  • (C) (A) and (B) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 39:

Ecosystem provides us food, raw materials, genetic resources. This is a close example of __________.

  • (A) Regulating ecosystem services
  • (B) Supporting ecosystem services
  • (C) Cultural ecosystem services
  • (D) Provisioning ecosystem services

Question 40:

Which of the following treaty is known for ban on production and use of ozone depleting substances?

  • (A) Kyoto protocol
  • (B) Montreal protocol
  • (C) Paris agreement
  • (D) Geneva protocol

Comprehension Passage: Read the passage and answer the following questions (41 to 45).

International trade is the result of specialization in production. It benefits the world economy if different countries practice specialization and division of labor in the production of commodities or provision of services. Each kind of specialization can give rise to trade. Thus, international trade is based on the principle of comparative advantage, complementarity and transferability of goods and services. In principle, international trade should be mutually beneficial to trading partners. In modern times, trade is the basis of the world’s economic organization, such as the WTO, and is related to the foreign policy of nations. With well-developed transportation and communication systems, no country is willing to forgo the benefits derived from participation in international trade. There are various factors which can be the basis of international trade, such as differences in national resources, population factors (size and cultural diversity), stage of economic development, extent of foreign investment, transport facilities etc. The world’s natural resources are unevenly distributed because of differences in their physical settings i.e., geology, relief, soil and climate. Further, the size, distribution and diversity of people between countries affect the type and volume of goods traded. At different stages of economic development of countries, the nature of items traded undergo changes. Moreover, foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries that lack capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering and plantation agriculture.

Question 41:

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable foundation for international trade?

  • (A) Production of a specific commodity
  • (B) Mutual benefits for trading countries
  • (C) Conflicts in foreign policies of trading countries
  • (D) Better transportation facilities between trading countries

Question 42:

Which among the following is a TRUE statement?

  • (A) In agriculturally important countries, agricultural products are expected to be exchanged for manufactured goods.
  • (B) Industrialized nations are expected to import machinery and finished products and export food grains and other raw materials.
  • (C) The countries which are pioneers in the research and development of defense technology are expected to import state-of-the-art defense technology from Third World.
  • (D) The stage of economic development of a country does not impact the nature of traded products.

Question 43:

Which of the following is the closest example of internationally traded product due to climatic factors?

  • (A) Export of textiles from Bangaldesh
  • (B) Export of the finest porcelain from China
  • (C) Export of Banana from the tropical regions
  • (D) Export of Batik cloth (a prized handicraft) from Indonesia

Question 44:

Which of the following was formerly known as the General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade?

  • (A) World Transportation Organization
  • (B) World Tariffs Organization
  • (C) World Trade Organization
  • (D) World Taxation Organization

Question 45:

An initial form of a trade system in primitive societies, where the direct exchange of goods was practiced, is known as

  • (A) Barabrian System
  • (B) Slave Trade System
  • (C) Barter System
  • (D) Salarium system

Comprehension Passage: Read the passage and answer the following questions (46 to 50).

Agricultural productivity is affected by physical, socioeconomic, institutional and organizational factors, besides the attitude of farmers and their managerial skills. On the whole, Indian agriculture doesn’t show high productivity, though there is an improvement in this sector since independence. Green revolution was introduced in 1967-68, as a new agricultural strategy woven around the usage of high yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds and included inputs such as chemical fertilizers and pesticides, assured water supplies, power supply at subsidized rates, access to credit facilities etc. As a result of Green Revolution, foodgrains production rose sharply. The main beneficiaries of Green revolution programme were Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh in terms of wheat production and the deltaic regions of east coast in terms of rice. Ninety percent of the farmers in India are marginal farmer with low land holdings. They practice subsistence farming characterized by uncertain yields, low incomes and low capital formation. Additionally, the excess usage of chemical fertilizers and pesticides have harmed the long-term fertility of soil.

Question 46:

Which factor is not responsible for low agricultural productivity in India?

  • (A) Lack of credit facilities to the farmers.
  • (B) Reclamation of degraded lands.
  • (C) Uncertain monsoons and lack of irrigational facilities.
  • (D) Small land holdings constrain farmers from adoption of mechanized operations.

Question 47:

Which of the following is not an advantage of the Green Revolution in India ?

  • (A) Use of HYV seeds for cultivation.
  • (B) Introduction of easy credit schemes for the marginal farmers.
  • (C) Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
  • (D) Improvement of irrigation facilities in the dryzone areas.

Question 48:

Subsistence farming is not characterised by ______________________.

  • (A) uncertainity in the crop yield
  • (B) poor capital gain to farmers
  • (C) dependence on natural resources
  • (D) reliance on modern farming tools and techniques

Question 49:

Which one of the following is not a measure to improve agricultural productivity?

  • (A) Speedy implementation of land reforms.
  • (B) Special attention to dryland farming.
  • (C) Propagating scientific agricultural practices.
  • (D) Decreasing cropping intensity.

Question 50:

Which of the following state of India was not a direct beneficiary of green revolution in its begining stage in 1970s?

  • (A) Punjab
  • (B) Uttar Pradesh
  • (C) Rajasthan
  • (D) Haryana