The CUET Biology 2025 exam was scheduled from 13th May to 3rd June, with access to the question paper, answer key, and solutions available to download here. The topics included cell biology, genetics, ecology, physiology, reproduction, and biodiversity.

Candidates had to answer 50 questions in 60 minutes. The paper totaled 250 marks, with +5 marks awarded for each correct answer and –1 mark deducted for each incorrect answer.

CUET UG Biology 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET UG Biology Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Which one of the following guides the entry of the pollen tube into the embryo sac?

  • (A) Antipodal Cells
  • (B) Filiform apparatus
  • (C) Micropyle
  • (D) Synergids

Question 2:

Antibody molecule has:

  • (A) Two peptide chain
  • (B) Three peptide chain
  • (C) Four peptide chain
  • (D) One polypeptide chain

Question 3:

Choose the correct equation from the following options to show the correct relationship between Gross Primary Productivity (GPP), Respirational Losses (R), and Net Primary Productivity (NPP).

  • (A) GPP = R / (NPP)²
  • (B) GPP = 2NPP + R
  • (C) GPP = NPP - R
  • (D) GPP - R = NPP

Question 4:

Match List-I with List-II

  • (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Question 5:

Match List-I with List-II

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Question 6:

Which one of the following is opposite part of micropylary end of ovule?

  • (A) Hilum
  • (B) Chalaza
  • (C) Funicle
  • (D) Nucleus

Question 7:

Match List I with List II

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Question 8:

Which type of innate immunity is exhibited by interferons secreted by virus-infected cells to protect non-infected cells?

  • (A) Physical barriers
  • (B) Cytokine barriers
  • (C) Physiological barriers
  • (D) Cellular barriers

Question 9:

The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as -

  • (A) Replication
  • (B) Translation
  • (C) Transcription
  • (D) Regulation

Question 10:

Arrange the following events in the correct order pertaining to fertilization in the human reproductive system.

(A) The blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium. 
(B) Finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi. 
(C) The blastomeres are arranged into trophoblast and the inner cell mass. 
(D) The zygote divides mitotically and transforms into an embryo with 8-16 blastomeres, called a morula.

  • (A) (D), (C), (A), (B)
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 11:

Which of the following are not involved in intra uterine devices?

  • (A) Lippes Loop
  • (B) LNG-20
  • (C) Saheli
  • (D) Implants
  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (C) and (D) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (C), (B) and (D) only

Question 12:

Match List I with List II

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 13:

Which one of the following is not associated with the process of transcription in bacteria?

  • (A) Rho factor
  • (B) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
  • (C) Sigma factor
  • (D) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Question 14:

Which of the following disorders are the results of aneuploidy?

  • (A) Haemophilia
  • (B) Down’s Syndrome
  • (C) Thalassemia
  • (D) Turner’s Syndrome
  • (A) (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (A) and (C) only

Question 15:

Which one of the following options will express intermediate skin colour in an individual?

  • (A) AABBCc
  • (B) aabbcc
  • (C) AaBbCc
  • (D) aaBbcc

Question 16:

Match List-I with List-II

  • (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 17:

Which of the following is incorrect with reference to drug abuse?

  • (A) Cannabinoids affect cardiovascular system of the body.
  • (B) Heroin is extracted from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
  • (C) Nicotine is a very effective sedative and pain killer.
  • (D) Excessive dosage of coca alkaloid causes hallucinations.

Question 18:

Arrange the given steps involved in gel electrophoresis used for separation of DNA fragments?

  • (A) Exposure to UV light
  • (B) Staining with ethidium bromide
  • (C) Moving of DNA fragments towards anode
  • (D) Elution
  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (C) (A), (D), (B), (C)
  • (D) (C), (B), (A), (D)

Question 19:

Match List-I with List-II

  • (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 20:

EcoRI, a significant tool in rDNA technology is -

  • (A) Bacteria
  • (B) Plasmid
  • (C) Enzyme
  • (D) Purine

Question 21:

Arrange the following geological periods in their occurrence from latest to oldest order.

  • (A) Triassic
  • (B) Carboniferous
  • (C) Tertiary
  • (D) Jurassic
  • (A) (D), (B), (C), (A)
  • (B) (A), (B), (D), (C)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (C), (D), (A), (B)

Question 22:

Which of the following steps are related to polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

  • (A) Extension
  • (B) Annealing
  • (C) Propagation
  • (D) Denaturation
  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 23:

Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack:

  • (A) Insects
  • (B) Roundworms
  • (C) Molluscs
  • (D) Birds

Question 24:

The number of individuals in the reproductive age group is more than the number of individuals in the pre-reproductive age group, the shape of its age pyramid would reflect the growth status of the population as:

  • (A) Expanding
  • (B) Stable
  • (C) Declining
  • (D) Homeostasis

Question 25:

Which of the following statements are true with reference to homology or homologous organs?

  • (A) Homology indicates common ancestry.
  • (B) Whale and Cheetah share similarities in the pattern of the bones of the forelimbs.
  • (C) Vertebrate heart is an example of homologous organs.
  • (D) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita represent homology.
  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 26:

Arrange the following groups of plants according to their appearance on earth.

  • (A) Angiosperms
  • (B) Seed ferns
  • (C) Rhynia type plants
  • (D) Psilophyton
  • (A) (C), (D), (B), (A)
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 27:

If a man is eating fish as his food, which trophic level is occupied by him in the food chain?

  • (A) First
  • (B) Second
  • (C) Third
  • (D) Fourth

Question 28:

Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are:

  • (A) Homologous structures
  • (B) Analogous structures
  • (C) Vestigial structures
  • (D) Developing structures

Question 29:

A small standing crop of phytoplankton supports a large standing crop of zooplankton. This can be correctly represented by:

  • (A) Inverted pyramid of energy
  • (B) Inverted pyramid of biomass
  • (C) Upright pyramid of biomass
  • (D) Sometimes upright and sometimes inverted pyramid of energy

Question 30:

The first isolated restriction endonuclease was:

  • (A) Hind II
  • (B) EcoRI
  • (C) BamH I
  • (D) Pvu II

Question 31:

Arrange the given products formed during sewage treatment in correct sequence:

  • (A) Biogas
  • (B) Activated sludge
  • (C) Flocs
  • (D) Primary sludge
  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (C), (D), (B), (A)
  • (C) (C), (D), (B), (A)
  • (D) (B), (A), (D), (C)

Question 32:

Wildlife safari parks are example of-

  • (A) Ex situ Conservation
  • (B) In situ conservation
  • (C) Biodiversity hot spots
  • (D) Sacred grooves

Question 33:

Humification leads to:

  • (A) Soil erosion
  • (B) Soil conservation
  • (C) Accumulation of humus
  • (D) Accumulation of salts

Question 34:

If a double-stranded DNA has 15% of adenine, find out the percent of cytosine in the DNA?

  • (A) 15%
  • (B) 30%
  • (C) 35%
  • (D) 85%

Question 35:

Transgenic animals are used to understand the contribution of genes in the development of diseases such as:

  • (A) Cholera and typhoid
  • (B) Elephantiasis and ringworm
  • (C) Cancer and cystic fibrosis
  • (D) Pneumonia and kala-azar

Question 36:

Genetically modified plants have been useful in:

  • (A) Increasing post harvest losses
  • (B) Decreasing crop yield
  • (C) Making crops tolerant to stresses.
  • (D) Decreasing efficiency of mineral usage by plants

Question 37:

Which of the following is the primary female sex organ?

  • (A) Mammary glands
  • (B) Uterus
  • (C) Ovaries
  • (D) Cervix

Question 38:

Which one of the following structures is haploid (n) in relation to the male reproductive system?

  • (A) Secondary spermatocytes
  • (B) Primary spermatocytes
  • (C) Leydig cells
  • (D) Sertoli cells

Question 39:

Of the incident solar radiation, what is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?

  • (A) 100%
  • (B) Less than 50%
  • (C) 1-5%
  • (D) 2-10%

Question 40:

ELISA is based on the principle of:

  • (A) Antigen - antibody interaction
  • (B) PCR
  • (C) Radioactive molecule
  • (D) Amount of DNA

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions based on the passage:

Passage: Species diversity on earth is not uniformly distributed. It is generally highest in the tropics and decreases towards the poles. Earth’s fossil history reveals the incidence of mass extinctions in the past. Earth’s rich biodiversity is vital for the very survival of mankind. It is believed that communities with high diversity tend to be less variable and more productive. The reasons of conserving biodiversity are narrowly utilitarian, broadly utilitarian and ethical. Biodiversity conservation may be in situ as well as ex-situ.

Question 41:

Which of the following is not included in in-situ conservation?

  • (A) Zoological park
  • (B) National park
  • (C) Wild life sanctuary
  • (D) Biosphere reserves
Correct Answer: (A) Zoological park
View Solution

In-situ conservation refers to the conservation of species in their natural habitats. It is a strategy for preserving biodiversity in the wild.

Step 1: Analyzing the options.

- **Zoological park (Option 1)**: A zoological park, also known as a zoo, is an example of **ex-situ conservation**, where species are conserved outside their natural habitats in controlled environments.
- **National park (Option 2)**: A national park is a protected area for the conservation of wildlife and natural habitats in the wild, making it an example of **in-situ conservation**.
- **Wildlife sanctuary (Option 3)**: A wildlife sanctuary is another example of **in-situ conservation**, where species are protected in their natural environments.
- **Biosphere reserves (Option 4)**: Biosphere reserves are designated areas that conserve biodiversity in natural ecosystems and are also examples of **in-situ conservation**.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The zoological park is not part of **in-situ conservation**, as it involves the conservation of species outside their natural habitats.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A) Zoological park.} \] Quick Tip: In-situ conservation involves protecting species in their natural habitats, while ex-situ conservation involves conserving species outside their natural environments, such as in zoos or botanical gardens.


Question 42:

Which one of the following does not exhibit narrowly utilitarian argument for conserving biodiversity?

  • (A) Construction materials
  • (B) Pollination
  • (C) Industrial products
  • (D) Medicines

Question 43:

Which of the following might not account for the greater biological diversity in the tropic region?

  • (A) Frequent glaciations in the past
  • (B) More solar energy available
  • (C) Less seasonal and more constant and predictable
  • (D) Undisturbed for million of years

Question 44:

How many episodes of mass extinction of species have occurred since the origin and diversification of life on earth?

  • (A) Two
  • (B) Three
  • (C) Five
  • (D) Seven
  • (A) Ordovician-Silurian Extinction
  • (B) Late Devonian Extinction
  • (C) Permian-Triassic Extinction

Question 45:

Which of the following hot spots does not cover India's biodiversity regions?

  • (A) Western Ghats-Sri Lanka
  • (B) Amazon forests
  • (C) Indo-Burma
  • (D) Himalaya

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions based on the passage:

Passage: Pollen pistil interaction involves all events from the landing of pollen grains on the stigma until the pollen tube enters the embryo sac (when the pollen is compatible). When a pollen tube grows through the style and enters into the ovules, it finally discharges two male gametes in one of the synergids. Syngamy and triple fusion are two fusion events that occur in angiosperms. Thus, angiosperms exhibit double fertilization. The products of these fusions are the diploid zygote and triploid primary endosperm nucleus. Zygote develops into embryo and primary endosperm cell forms the endosperm tissue. The developing embryo passes through different stages before maturation.

Question 46:

With reference to reproduction in flowering plants, which one of the following is incorrect?

  • (A) Endosperm develops into seed
  • (B) Ovary develops into fruit
  • (C) Ploidy of PEN is 3n
  • (D) Syngamy is the fusion of male and female gamete
Correct Answer: (A) Endosperm develops into seed
View Solution

In the process of fertilization in angiosperms, the pollen tube releases male gametes into the ovule where two fusion events take place: syngamy (fusion of male and female gametes) and triple fusion (fusion of the second male gamete with the two polar nuclei, forming the triploid endosperm nucleus).

Step 1: Analyzing the options.

- **Endosperm develops into seed (Option 1)**: This statement is incorrect. The **endosperm** develops into the **nutritive tissue** that nourishes the developing embryo, not into the seed itself. The seed consists of the embryo, seed coat, and endosperm (nutritive tissue).
- **Ovary develops into fruit (Option 2)**: This is correct. After fertilization, the ovary develops into a fruit that encloses the seeds.
- **Ploidy of PEN is 3n (Option 3)**: This is correct. The ploidy of the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is triploid (3n), as it is formed by the fusion of one male gamete with the two polar nuclei.
- **Syngamy is the fusion of male and female gametes (Option 4)**: This is correct. Syngamy refers to the fusion of the male and female gametes, resulting in the formation of a diploid zygote.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The statement that **endosperm develops into seed** is incorrect. Endosperm develops into nutritive tissue, not the seed itself.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A) Endosperm develops into seed.} \] Quick Tip: In flowering plants, the endosperm nourishes the developing embryo, but it does not directly develop into the seed. The seed is composed of the embryo, endosperm, and seed coat.


Question 47:

Which of the following is not a stage of growing embryo in dicotyledon plants?

  • (A) Heart-shaped
  • (B) Globular
  • (C) Proembryo
  • (D) Epiblast

Question 48:

The coconut water from tender coconut, a good source of nutrition, is nothing but:

  • (A) Free-nuclear endosperm
  • (B) Synergids
  • (C) Antipodal cells
  • (D) Scutellum

Question 49:

Formation of diploid zygote is a result of:

  • (A) Emasculation
  • (B) Triple fusion
  • (C) Syngamy
  • (D) Bagging

Question 50:

If there are 38 chromosomes in the zygote, how many chromosomes will there be in its haploid egg cell?

  • (A) 38
  • (B) 57
  • (C) 19
  • (D) 76