The CUET Chemistry 2025 exam took place between 13th May and 3rd June, with the question paper, answer key, and solutions are available for download. The topics included organic, inorganic, and physical chemistry, chemical reactions, bonding, and practical applications.

There were 50 questions to be solved in 60 minutes, and the paper was worth 250 marks. The scoring scheme included +5 marks for each correct answer and –1 mark for each incorrect answer.

CUET UG Chemistry 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET UG Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

The value of van't Hoff factor, i, for CH₃COOH solution in water will be

  • (A) Between 1 and 2
  • (B) Less than 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 1

Question 2:

The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 1 g of solute in 1 L of the solution. Arrange the following solutions in decreasing order of their molarity:

  • (A) Glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol\(^{-1}\))
  • (B) NaOH (molar mass = 40 g mol\(^{-1}\))
  • (C) NaCl (molar mass = 58.5 g mol\(^{-1}\))
  • (D) KCl (molar mass = 74.5 g mol\(^{-1}\))
  • (A) (A), (D), (C), (B)
  • (B) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (C) (B), (C), (D), (A)
  • (D) (D), (C), (A), (B)

Question 3:

Match List-I with List-II

Solutions Explanation
(A) Saturated solution

(I) Solution having two components.

(B) Isotonic solutions (II) A solution whose osmotic pressure is more than that of another.
(C) Binary solution (III) A solution which contains the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a given temperature.
(D) Hypertonic solution (IV) The solutions having the same osmotic pressure at a given temperature.

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 4:

Give the reason for low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude.

  • (A) Both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
  • (B) Low temperature
  • (C) Low atmospheric pressure
  • (D) High atmospheric pressure

Question 5:

Calculate the molality of KI if the density of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI is 1.202 g mL\(^{-1}\).

(Molar mass of KI is 166 g mol\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) 1.5 mol kg\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 1.2 mol kg\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 1.5 mol kg\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 0.12 mol kg\(^{-1}\)

Question 6:

The unit of \( E_{cell} \) is

  • (A) V m\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) S cm\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) V
  • (D) S cm\(^{-2}\) mol\(^{-1}\)

Question 7:

Match List-I with List-II

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

Question 8:

The following statements describe various properties of a Mercury cell:

  • (A) It converts energy of combustion into electrical energy
  • (B) It is rechargeable
  • (C) The cell reaction involved is Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) \(\rightarrow\) ZnO(s) + Hg(l)
  • (D) It is a low current device used in hearing aids
  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (C) and (D) only

Question 9:

Which cell is used in automobiles and inverters?

  • (A) Mercury cell
  • (B) Dry cell
  • (C) Lead storage cell
  • (D) Fuel cell

Question 10:

A galvanic cell behaves as an electrolytic cell when?

  • (A) \( E_{cell} = E_{ext} \)
  • (B) \( E_{cell} = 0 \)
  • (C) \( E_{ext} > E_{cell} \)
  • (D) \( E_{cell} > E_{ext} \)

Question 11:

Which of the following does not represent a correct application of the coordination compound?

  • (A) cis-platin effectively inhibit the growth of tumours
  • (B) chlorophyll helps in photosynthesis
  • (C) desferrioxime B is used in treatment of lead poisoning
  • (D) cyanocobalamine, antipernicious anemia factor is a coordination compound of Co

Question 12:

Arrange the following ions in increasing order of number of 3d-electrons:

  • (A) Cr\(^{2+}\)
  • (B) Cu\(^{2+}\)
  • (C) Ti\(^{3+}\)
  • (D) Mn\(^{2+}\)
  • (A) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (B) (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (C) (C), (D), (A), (B)
  • (D) (D), (B), (C), (A)

Question 13:

The atomic number of Lanthanum is 57. Its electronic configuration will be ......

  • (A) \([Xe] 5d^1 6s^2\)
  • (B) \([Xe] 4f^1 5d^1\)
  • (C) \([Xe] 4f^3\)
  • (D) \([Xe] 4f^1 5d^1 6s^2\)

Question 14:

Match compound/elements of List-I with their uses given in List-II

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Question 15:

What is the color of Fe\(^{3+}\)(aq) ion?

  • (A) Yellow
  • (B) Violet
  • (C) Colourless
  • (D) Bluepink

Question 16:

Why is HCl not used to make the medium acidic in oxidation reactions of KMnO\(_4\) in acidic medium?

  • (A) KMnO\(_4\) is weaker oxidizing agent than HCl
  • (B) KMnO\(_4\) oxidises HCl into Cl\(_2\), which is also an oxidizing agent
  • (C) Both HCl and KMnO\(_4\) act as oxidizing agents
  • (D) KMnO\(_4\) acts as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl

Question 17:

Acidified potassium dichromate oxidizes sulphides (S\(^{2-}\)) to .......

  • (A) SO\(_4^{2-}\)
  • (B) SO\(_3^{2-}\)
  • (C) Sulphur (S)
  • (D) SO\(_2\)

Question 18:

What is the decreasing order of field strength of given ligands?

  • (A) S\(^{2-}\)
  • (B) Ethylenediamine
  • (C) NCS\(^{-}\)
  • (D) CN\(^{-}\)
  • (A) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (B) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (C) (B), (C), (D), (A)
  • (D) (D), (C), (B), (A)

Question 19:

What is the IUPAC name of [Pt(NH\(_3\))\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)]?

  • (A) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV)
  • (B) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (II)
  • (C) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (0)
  • (D) Dichloridodiammineplatinum (IV)

Question 20:

Select the correct statements for [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) complex:

  • (A) Paramagnetic
  • (B) sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) hybridization
  • (C) Magnetic moment = 5.92 BM
  • (D) d\(^2\)sp\(^3\) hybridization
  • (A) (A) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 21:

Match List-I with List-II
 

List – I List – II
(A) Ambient nucleophiles (I) Symmetrical object
(B) Plane polarized light (II) Saytzeff rule
(C) Superimposable mirror image (III) Cyanides and nitriles
(D) \(\beta\)-elimination reaction (IV) Nicol Prism
  • (A) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (B), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 22:

Optically active alkyl halide undergoing S\(_N\)2 substitution involves

  • (A) retention of configuration
  • (B) racemic mixture
  • (C) inversion of configuration
  • (D) formation of carbocation

Question 23:

Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of

  • (A) tertiary amine
  • (B) acid synthesis
  • (C) primary amine
  • (D) secondary amine

Question 24:

The above reaction is an example of

  • (A) Sandmeyer’s reaction
  • (B) Wurtz reaction
  • (C) Wurtz Fittig reaction
  • (D) Kolbe reaction

Question 25:

The reagent(s) used in hydroboration oxidation of propene are:

  • (A) B\(_2\)H\(_6\)
  • (B) H\(_2\)O
  • (C) H\(_2\)O\(_2\)
  • (D) OH\(^-\)
  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 26:

The carbohydrate used as a storage molecule in plants is

  • (A) Starch
  • (B) Glycogen
  • (C) Cellulose
  • (D) Glucose

Question 27:

*****-Volhard Zelinsky reaction is used for the formation of

  • (A) Alcohols
  • (B) Aldehydes
  • (C) Ketones
  • (D) \(\alpha\)-halocarboxylic acids

Question 28:

What is the correct sequence of increasing reactivity of the following compounds towards nucleophilic addition reaction?

  • (A) Ethanal
  • (B) Propanone
  • (C) Propanal
  • (D) Butanone
  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (D), (B), (C), (A)
  • (C) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 29:

Which of the following reagents is required for the conversion of Benzene to methyl benzoate?

  • (A) Br\(_2\)/FeBr\(_3\)
  • (B) Mg, dry Ether
  • (C) CO\(_2\), H\(_3\)O\(^+\)
  • (D) Methanol, Conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (A) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 30:

Which reagent will distinguish Benzophenone from acetone?

  • (A) Fehling’s reagent
  • (B) Tollen’s reagent
  • (C) 2,4-DNP reagent
  • (D) I\(_2\)/NaOH

Question 31:

The structural feature in carbonyl compound for Aldol condensation is:

  • (A) Presence of at least one β-hydrogen
  • (B) Presence of at least one α-hydrogen
  • (C) Concentrated base
  • (D) Lack of α-hydrogen

Question 32:

The nitrogen atom in amines is trivalent and possess an unshared pair of electrons. The geometry of trimethyl amine is:

  • (A) Tetrahedral
  • (B) Pyramidal
  • (C) Square planar
  • (D) Triangular

Question 33:

What happens when C₆H₅–O–R is treated with HX?

  • (A) RX and C₆H₅OH are formed
  • (B) ROH and C₆H₅X are formed
  • (C) C₆H₄X₂ and ROH are formed
  • (D) RX and C₆H₅X are formed

Question 34:

In the nitration of benzene using a mixture of conc. H₂SO₄ and conc. HNO₃, the nitrating species is:

  • (A) NO₂⁺
  • (B) NO₂²⁻
  • (C) NO⁺
  • (D) NO₂ and NO²⁺

Question 35:

Which of the following compounds will not give azo coupling reaction with benzene diazonium chloride?

  • (A) Nitrobenzene
  • (B) Aniline
  • (C) o-Toluidine
  • (D) Phenol

Question 36:

Amylose is a water-soluble part of starch. What is the percentage solubility of it?

  • (A) 20 to 30%
  • (B) 15 to 20%
  • (C) 30 to 60%
  • (D) 50 to 70%

Question 37:

What is an example of globular protein?

  • (A) Insulin
  • (B) Keratin
  • (C) Albumin
  • (D) Myosin
  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 38:

Which types of bonds or interactions are found in the \(\beta\)-helix of protein?

  • (A) Ionic bond
  • (B) Covalent interaction
  • (C) H-bond
  • (D) Banana bond

Question 39:

Match the amino acid given in List-I with their one-letter code given in List-II

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 40:

Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their acidic strength:

  • (A) 3-nitrophenol
  • (B) 3,5-Dinitrophenol
  • (C) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol
  • (D) Phenol
  • (A) (D), (C), (B), (A)
  • (B) (C), (A), (B), (D)
  • (C) (D), (A), (B), (C)
  • (D) (A), (B), (C), (D)

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

The speed at which a chemical reaction takes place is called the rate of reaction. The rate of reaction depends on various factors like concentration of the reactants, temperature, etc. The relation between the rate of reaction and the concentration of reacting species is represented by the equation \( r = k[A]^x[B]^y \), where x and y are the order of the reaction with respect to the reactants A and B, respectively. The overall order of the reaction is x + y. The rate of reaction can also be increased by the use of a catalyst which provides an alternate pathway of lower activation energy. It increases the rate of forward and backward reactions to an equal extent. It does not alter the Gibbs energy of the reaction.

Question 41:

The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by \( r = k[A]^x[B]^y \). If the volume of the reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to \( \frac{1}{4} \)th of its initial value, the reaction rate relating to the initial rate will become

  • (A) 2 times
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{4} \) times
  • (C) 16 times
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{16} \) times

Question 42:

Calculate the order of a reaction whose Rate = \( k [A]^{1/2} [B]^{3/2} \).

  • (A) second order
  • (B) half order
  • (C) first order
  • (D) zero order

Question 43:

The rate law of a reaction is given by \( r = k[CH_3OCH_3]^{3/2} \). If the pressure is measured in bar and time in minutes, then the unit of rate constant will be:

  • (A) bar\(^2\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) bar\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) bar\(^1\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) bar\(^3/2\) min\(^{-1}\)

Question 44:

If the rate of reaction becomes twenty-seven times upon increasing the concentration of reactant by three times, the order of this reaction is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 45:

The role of a catalyst is to change:

  • (A) Gibbs energy of the reaction.
  • (B) Enthalpy of a reaction.
  • (C) Activation energy of a reaction.
  • (D) Equilibrium constant.

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

Replacement of a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon by an alkoxy or carboxyl group yields a class of compounds known as ethers. Ethers are classified as symmetrical or unsymmetrical on the basis of groups attached to the oxygen atoms. Diethyl ether, a symmetrical ether, has been widely used as an inhalation anesthetic. Ethers can be prepared by acid catalyzed intermolecular dehydration of alcohols and Williamson’s synthesis. Acid catalyzed dehydration of alcohols is not generally preferred as it gives a mixture of elimination and substitution products. In Williamson’s synthesis, an alkyl halide is allowed to react with sodium alkoxide. Ethers containing substituted Alkyl groups may also be prepared by this method. The C-O bond in ether is weakly polar and is cleaved under drastic conditions with excess of hydrogen halides. In electrophilic substitution, the alkoxy group deactivates the aromatic ring and directs the incoming group to ortho and para positions.

Question 46:

When ethanol is dehydrated in the presence of \( H_2SO_4 \) at 443K and 413K respectively, the products formed are:

  • (A) Ethane and ethoxythane
  • (B) Ethylmethyl ether and butene
  • (C) Ethylmethyl ether and propene
  • (D) Ethene and ethoxythane

Question 47:

The major product in the reaction of anisole with bromine in ethanoic acid is:

  • (A) o- bromoanisole
  • (B) p- bromoanisole
  • (C) m- bromoanisole
  • (D) o-bromoanisole and p-bromoanisole

Question 48:

In Williamson synthesis, the alkoxide ion attacks the alkyl halide via which pathway?

  • (A) SN\(_2\)
  • (B) SN\(_1\)
  • (C) Depends on the nature of alkoxide ion
  • (D) Depends on the nature of Alkyl halide

Question 49:

Which is the most reactive hydrogen halide for cleavage of ethers?

  • (A) HF
  • (B) HCl
  • (C) HBr
  • (D) HI

Question 50:

Which type of ether is anisole?

  • (A) Dialkyl ether
  • (B) Diaryl ether
  • (C) Phenyl Alkyl ether
  • (D) Alkoxy Alkyl ether