The CBSE Board conducted Class 12 Political Science Exam 2026 on March 23, 2026. Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2026 – Set 3 with Solution PDF is available here for download.

The CBSE Class 12 Political Science Set 3 paper covers key topics from Indian Politics, Comparative Politics, and Political Theory and considered moderately difficult. The exam is marked out of 100, with 80 marks for the theory paper and 20 for internal assessment.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF – Set 3

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2026 – Set 3 Download PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2026 with Solutions

Question 1:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organization that oversees those financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level.

Statement II: All the 189 members of IMF organization have equal say. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are true.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are false.
  • (C) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
  • (D) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to evaluate the truthfulness of two statements regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Statement I is true because the IMF is indeed an international financial institution that monitors the global financial system and oversees the exchange rates and balance of payments of its member nations.

Statement II is false because the IMF does not operate on a one-member-one-vote basis. Voting power in the IMF is weighted based on the quota of each member, which is generally determined by the member's economic size. Thus, larger economies have a greater say than smaller ones.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Since statement I is factually correct and statement II is incorrect, the correct option is (C).
Quick Tip: Remember that in international organizations like the IMF and World Bank, voting rights are usually proportional to financial contribution, unlike the UN General Assembly where each country has one vote.


Question 2:

The alliance that has formed the government at the centre the maximum number of times:

  • (A) United Progressive Alliance (UPA)
  • (B) National Front
  • (C) United Front
  • (D) National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
Correct Answer: (D) National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the political coalition that has been in power at the center for the most number of times in Indian history.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The National Democratic Alliance (NDA) has held power at the center for a significant duration, including the terms led by Atal Bihari Vajpayee and the successive terms led by Narendra Modi.

Compared to other alliances like the United Progressive Alliance (UPA), the United Front, and the National Front, the NDA has successfully formed the government for a longer cumulative period.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on political history, the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) holds the record for forming the government at the center the maximum number of times.
Quick Tip: Keep track of major political coalitions and their prime ministerial candidates to understand the shifting landscape of Indian coalition politics since 1989.


Question 3:

Which one of the following statements is True about the concept of 'Co-operative Security'?

  • (A) Initiating action by the developed countries against non-traditional threats.
  • (B) Ensuring 'collective security' by the NATO countries in case of threats.
  • (C) Strengthening internal security by various measures within a state.
  • (D) Involving several countries to decide on a collective solution against non-traditional threats.
Correct Answer: (D) Involving several countries to decide on a collective solution against non-traditional threats.
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for the definition or true nature of the concept of 'Co-operative Security' in international relations.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Co-operative security is based on the idea that many global threats (such as poverty, epidemics, and climate change) cannot be handled by a single state alone.

It involves international cooperation and collective efforts, often including international organizations, NGOs, and multiple states, to address these non-traditional security challenges.

Option (D) best reflects this collaborative spirit.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct description of 'Co-operative Security' is the involvement of several countries to find a collective solution for threats.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between 'Collective Security' (often military-focused) and 'Co-operative Security' (often focused on diplomacy and non-traditional threats).


Question 4:

Arrange the following events in chronological order:

(i) Declaration of National Emergency on the basis of internal disturbances.

(ii) Railway strike by government employees under the leadership of George Fernandes.

(iii) Sixth General Election held in India.

(iv) Declaration of the doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution in the 'Keshavananda Bharti' case by the Supreme Court. Choose the correct option:

  • (A) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  • (B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  • (C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
  • (D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Correct Answer: (A) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The goal is to sequence historical events in India correctly by date.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(iv) Keshavananda Bharti case occurred in 1973.

(ii) Railway strike led by George Fernandes occurred in 1974.

(i) Declaration of National Emergency occurred in June 1975.

(iii) The Sixth General Election was held in 1977.

Ordering these: 1973, 1974, 1975, 1977 corresponds to (iv), (ii), (i), (iii).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct chronological order is (iv), (ii), (i), (iii).
Quick Tip: Create a timeline of the 1970s in India, as this decade is crucial for Understanding the Emergency and its aftermath in the Political Science syllabus.


Question 5:

Which statement is the best description of 'Veto Power'?

  • (A) It is a power of positive voting.
  • (B) After the end of the Second World War, Veto Power is given only to permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) to establish peace in the world.
  • (C) All the temporary members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) have the right to use Veto Power only for two years.
  • (D) All the members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) possess Veto Power.
Correct Answer: (B) After the end of the Second World War, Veto Power is given only to permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) to establish peace in the world.
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for the definition and application of the Veto Power within the United Nations system.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Veto Power is a negative vote used by any of the five permanent members (P5) of the UN Security Council (USA, UK, France, Russia, and China) to block a resolution.

It was introduced after WWII to ensure that the major powers remained engaged and that no resolution contrary to their major interests was passed, aiming for global stability.

Option (B) correctly identifies that it is granted to permanent members.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The best description of Veto Power is found in option (B).
Quick Tip: Remember that the P5 members are the only ones with the power to 'veto'. Temporary members of the UNSC do not have this power.


Question 6:

Which one of the following is NOT a consequence of 'Shock Therapy'?

  • (A) The value of the Rouble, the Russian currency declined.
  • (B) The economy of the entire region was ruined.
  • (C) The system of social welfare got strengthened.
  • (D) The collective farm system disintegrated.
Correct Answer: (C) The system of social welfare got strengthened.
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the statement that is NOT a result of the 'Shock Therapy' economic model applied to post-Soviet states.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Shock Therapy involved a radical transition from communism to capitalism.

Consequences included hyperinflation (devaluing the Rouble), the collapse of industrial units, the breakup of social welfare systems (not strengthening them), and the end of collective farming.

Therefore, the statement about the social welfare system being strengthened is factually incorrect and represents the opposite of what happened.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct option is (C).
Quick Tip: Shock Therapy resulted in the 'largest garage sale in history' and caused extreme poverty, making the dismantling of social welfare a primary negative consequence.


Question 7:

Which one of the following is related to the traditional notion of security?

  • (A) Russia - Ukraine War
  • (B) Continuous rise in the global temperature
  • (C) 9/11 attack on USA
  • (D) Spread of COVID-19 epidemic in the world
Correct Answer: (A) Russia - Ukraine War
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to differentiate between traditional and non-traditional security notions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Traditional notions of security focus on threats to a state's sovereignty and territorial integrity, often involving military conflicts and war.

Non-traditional notions include human security, global threats like climate change, pandemics, and terrorism (though terrorism sometimes bridges both).

The Russia-Ukraine war is a classic case of interstate military conflict, fitting the traditional security framework.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Option (A) is the most accurate example of traditional security.
Quick Tip: Traditional security = Military/War; Non-traditional security = Environmental, Health, Human rights, etc.


Question 8:

Identify the correct trio of Baltic Republics :

  • (A) Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania
  • (B) Slovenia, Estonia, Lithuania
  • (C) Slovenia, Romania, Estonia
  • (D) Estonia, Romania, Latvia
Correct Answer: (A) Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the group of countries known as the Baltic Republics.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Baltic Republics are the three sovereign states in Northern Europe on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea: Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania. These were the former Soviet Republics that first broke away from the USSR.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct set is Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania, corresponding to option (A).
Quick Tip: Geography-based questions about the post-Soviet space are common. Map-based learning helps in memorizing country groups like the Baltic states or Central Asian republics.


Question 9:

Which was the last state toured by Rajiv Gandhi for his election campaign in May 1991?

  • (A) Tamil Nadu
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Kerala
  • (D) Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for a specific historical fact regarding the political career of Rajiv Gandhi.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In May 1991, during his campaign for the general elections, Rajiv Gandhi visited Sriperumbudur in Tamil Nadu, where he was assassinated.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The last state he toured was Tamil Nadu.
Quick Tip: Historical events leading to the assassination of leaders are important for understanding the political climate of the 1990s in India.


Question 10:

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the first two Five Year Plan?

  • (A) The first Five Year Plan was drafted by K.N. Raj and the second Five Year Plan was drafted by P.C. Mahalnobis.
  • (B) The first Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture and the second Five Year Plan focussed on industries.
  • (C) The first Five Year Plan emphasized on the active role of the public sector and the second Five Year Plan made huge allocations for large scale projects.
  • (D) The aim of first Five Year Plan was to raise the industrial production and in the second Five Year Plan, the government imposed substantial tariffs on imports in order to protect both public and private sector industries.
Correct Answer: (D) The aim of first Five Year Plan was to raise the industrial production and in the second Five Year Plan, the government imposed substantial tariffs on imports in order to protect both public and private sector industries.
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The goal is to identify the incorrect statement among the options regarding India's first two Five Year Plans.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The First Five Year Plan (1951-56) focused primarily on agriculture, irrigation, and dam construction, not on industrial production as its primary goal.

The Second Five Year Plan (1956-61) focused on rapid industrialization, specifically heavy industries, and the Mahalanobis model was used.

Option (D) incorrectly claims the first plan's aim was to raise industrial production, which is historically inaccurate compared to the agricultural priority of the first plan.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The incorrect statement is (D).
Quick Tip: Remember: First Plan = Agriculture / Dams; Second Plan = Heavy Industry / Mahalanobis.


Question 11:

Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :


  • (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  • (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  • (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  • (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Correct Answer: (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

This question requires matching historical Indian political movements and slogans with their associated leaders or events.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(a) Congress for Democracy was formed by Jagjeevan Ram.

(b) 'Garibi Hatao' was a famous slogan used by Indira Gandhi in the 1971 elections.

(c) The Student movement in Gujarat was led by Morarji Desai (Nav Nirman Andolan).

(d) The 'Total Revolution' movement was led by Jay Prakash Narayan.

Matching (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) gives us option (C).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence matches option (C).
Quick Tip: Familiarize yourself with the key leaders and slogans of the 1970s, as these are frequently tested in political history chapters.


Question 12:

Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements and choose the correct answer from the given options :

Assertion (A) : The idea of Five Year Plans (FYP) in India was inspired by the USSR.

Reason (R) : Due to acute economic crisis, the Indian Government started 'Plan Holiday' in 1966.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Correct Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

This is an assertion-reason question testing the knowledge of India's economic planning history.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Assertion (A) is true; India adopted the Five Year Plan model from the Soviet Union's centralized planning system.

Reason (R) is true; due to droughts, the wars of 1962 and 1965, and economic instability, there was a break in the planning process, leading to the 'Plan Holiday' (1966-1969).

However, the 'Plan Holiday' is not the reason for the adoption of the Five Year Plan model itself. Thus, (R) is true but does not explain (A).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Both statements are historically correct independently, so (B) is the right choice.
Quick Tip: Always check if the 'Reason' is logically causing the 'Assertion'. Often both statements are true, but the causal link is missing.


Question 13:

Highlight any two internal threats which any state may face.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires identifying and explaining security challenges that arise within the territorial borders of a country, as opposed to external military invasions.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

A state may face various internal threats that challenge its stability and sovereignty. Two such major threats are:

1. Separatist or Secessionist Movements: These are movements where a group within a state demands a separate sovereign nation based on ethnic, linguistic, or regional identity. Such movements often lead to violent conflicts, civil unrest, and challenge the territorial integrity of the country. For example, various insurgencies in North-East India or the movement in Punjab in the 1980s.

2. Internal Armed Insurgency or Civil War: This involves armed struggle by groups within the country against the established government to overthrow it or to change its policies. Such conflicts result in massive loss of life, displacement of people, and economic breakdown. Naxalism or Left-Wing Extremism in India is a significant example of an internal armed threat that challenges the state's authority in several districts.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The two primary internal threats are secessionist movements that challenge territorial integrity and armed insurgencies that threaten the domestic peace and the constitutional order.
Quick Tip: Internal security is often more complex than external security because the "enemy" consists of the state's own citizens, making military-only solutions difficult.


Question 14:

Analyse the main reason responsible for the formation of Coalition Governments after 1989.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to analyze the structural changes in the Indian political system that led to the end of one-party dominance and the beginning of the era of multi-party alliances.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The year 1989 marked a watershed moment in Indian politics, often referred to as the "end of the Congress system". The main reasons for the rise of coalition governments include:

1. Decline of Congress Dominance: For the first time since independence (except for a brief period in 1977), the Congress party failed to secure a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. This created a political vacuum that could only be filled by alliances.

2. Rise of Regional Parties: There was a significant emergence and growth of regional and state-level parties (like SP, BSP, DMK, TDP). These parties began to represent localized interests more effectively than national parties, making them indispensable for forming a majority at the center.

3. Fragmentation of the Mandate: The Indian electorate became more diverse in its political choices. No single national party was strong enough across all states to win more than 272 seats on its own, necessitating the "Coalition Era" where national parties like BJP or Congress had to lead alliances like the NDA or UPA.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The primary reason was the transition from a "one-party dominant system" to a "multi-party system" where the fragmented electoral mandate and the rise of powerful regional parties made coalitions the only viable way to form a stable government.
Quick Tip: Remember the "1989-2014" period as the classic era of coalition politics in India, which ended when the BJP secured a full majority in the 16th Lok Sabha.


Question 15:

Explain any two differences between the refugees and the migrants.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires a comparative explanation of two distinct categories of people who move across borders, focusing on their motivation and legal status.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Although both refugees and migrants involve the movement of people, they differ significantly based on the following factors:

1. Nature of Displacement (Voluntary vs. Involuntary): Migrants usually choose to move voluntarily, primarily for economic reasons, better job opportunities, or education. In contrast, refugees are forced to flee their homes due to a well-founded fear of persecution, war, violence, or natural disasters. Their movement is involuntary and necessary for survival.

2. Legal Status and Protection: Refugees are recognized and protected under international law, specifically the 1951 Refugee Convention. They cannot be returned to a country where they face danger (principle of non-refoulement). Migrants, however, are subject to the national immigration laws and procedures of the country they enter and do not enjoy the same specific international legal protections as refugees.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The two main differences are that migration is a voluntary choice for a better life while refugee status is a forced escape for survival, and refugees have specific protected status under international law which migrants generally do not.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember: Migrants move for a 'better' life; Refugees move for a 'safe' life.


Question 16:

How does the geographical location of the North-East region has affected the expression of its regional demands ? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to explain the link between the unique physical geography of North-East India and the political nature of the demands raised by the people residing there.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The geography of the North-East has significantly shaped its political landscape in the following ways:

1. Physical Isolation and the 'Chicken’s Neck': The region is connected to the rest of India by a very narrow strip of land (Siliguri Corridor). This physical distance and limited connectivity led to a feeling of being neglected by the central government, fostering demands for more autonomy and better infrastructure.

2. International Borders: The North-East shares about 99% of its borders with foreign countries (China, Myanmar, Bangladesh, and Bhutan). This makes the region highly sensitive to cross-border migration. The fear of being reduced to a minority by "outsiders" or illegal migrants has fueled intense regionalist movements and demands for legal protections (like the NRC or ILP).

3. Hilly Terrain and Ethnic Diversity: The rugged, mountainous terrain led to the historical isolation of various tribes from each other and the plains. This preserved distinct cultural identities, which later manifested as demands for separate states (like Meghalaya or Nagaland) to protect their unique customs from being submerged into a "mainstream" Indian culture.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Geographical isolation created a sense of alienation, while international borders raised fears about demographic changes, both of which intensified regional demands for political autonomy and cultural protection.
Quick Tip: When discussing the North-East, always mention the Siliguri Corridor and the region's vast international borders to show geographical impact.


Question 17:

State any two reasons for the Students' Movement in Bihar in 1974.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question seeks to identify the socio-economic and political triggers that led students in Bihar to launch a massive protest against the state government in 1974.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The Bihar movement (or JP movement) was triggered by severe grievances among the youth. Two major reasons were:

1. Acute Economic Crisis: In the early 1970s, India faced high inflation and a rise in the prices of food grains and essential commodities. Bihar was particularly hard hit, and the students suffered due to the high cost of education and living, leading to widespread frustration.

2. Widespread Corruption: There were serious allegations of corruption and maladministration against the ruling Congress government in Bihar. The students felt that the political leadership was indifferent to the problems of the common people and was solely interested in retaining power through unfair means. This prompted them to demand the resignation of the state government.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The two primary reasons were the crushing economic pressure caused by inflation and food scarcity, and the deep-seated anger against the corruption in the state administration.
Quick Tip: This movement is crucial because it led to Jay Prakash Narayan's call for 'Total Revolution' and eventually played a role in the imposition of the Emergency.


Question 18:

Assess the impact of outside powers on the South Asian Countries.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires an assessment of how global superpowers (like the USA and China) influence the internal politics, security, and economy of South Asian nations.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

South Asia has always been a region of strategic interest for global powers, which has impacted the region in several ways:

1. Cold War Rivalry and Military Aid: During the Cold War, the USA and USSR competed for influence in South Asia. The US involvement with Pakistan through military aid and alliances (like SEATO) and the USSR's close ties with India created a regional power imbalance and intensified the Indo-Pak conflict.

2. China’s Growing Footprint: In recent years, China has become a major player through its 'Belt and Road Initiative' (BRI). By providing massive loans for infrastructure to countries like Sri Lanka, Nepal, and Pakistan, China has gained significant leverage over their foreign policies, sometimes leading to "debt-trap diplomacy".

3. Interference in Bilateral Relations: Outside powers often play the role of mediators or influencers in regional disputes. For example, the US has frequently intervened to de-escalate tensions between India and Pakistan, showing that regional stability is often tied to the interests of external powers.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Outside powers have impacted South Asia by introducing global rivalries into the region, influencing economic policies through aid and debt, and affecting the balance of power between regional neighbors.
Quick Tip: While South Asian nations try to maintain 'strategic autonomy', their geographical location makes them inevitable participants in the global power struggle between the US and China.


Question 19(a):

Explain any four differences between the governments formed in the first three General Elections held in India after independence and the coalition governments formed after the year 1989.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for a comparison between the political stability and nature of governments during the era of one-party dominance (1952-1962) and the era of multi-party alliances post-1989.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Single-Party Dominance vs. Multi-Party Coalitions: The first three general elections (1952, 1957, 1962) were characterized by the absolute dominance of the Indian National Congress at the center.

In contrast, post-1989, no single national party usually secured a clear majority on its own, leading to the formation of coalition governments (e.g., National Front, NDA, UPA).

2. Government Stability: Governments formed during the first three elections were highly stable, completed their full five-year terms, and faced minimal threats of losing majority support.

Post-1989 coalition governments were often vulnerable to collapse if coalition partners withdrew support, leading to frequent mid-term elections in the 1990s.

3. Role of Regional Parties: During the early elections, regional parties had a marginal role in national politics and government formation.

After 1989, regional parties emerged as crucial 'kingmakers' and became indispensable partners in central governments, ensuring regional issues were addressed nationally.

4. Ideology vs. Pragmatism: Early governments were predominantly driven by a unified ideological vision of nation-building, democratic socialism, and secularism led by Congress.

In the post-1989 era, coalition governments were often formed based on pragmatic alliances, power-sharing agreements, and Common Minimum Programmes, sometimes overriding strict ideological differences.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The key differences include the shift from single-party dominance to multi-party alliances, a decrease in initial government stability, the rising prominence of regional parties, and a transition from ideological governance to pragmatic political compromises.
Quick Tip: When comparing two distinct political eras, always structure your answer using clear opposing themes like 'Stability', 'Party Dominance', and 'Ideology' to secure full marks.


Question 19(b):

Explain any four advantages of coalition governments with reference to Indian politics.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires analyzing the positive aspects and democratic benefits of having multi-party coalition governments in India.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Broader Representation: Coalition governments accommodate a wider array of social, cultural, and regional interests.

Since multiple parties represent different sections of society, the government becomes more inclusive and representative of India's immense diversity.

2. Strengthening Federalism: With regional parties playing a critical role in central coalitions, the specific needs and aspirations of different states get direct attention at the national level.

This reduces the dominance of the center over the states and strengthens the federal structure.

3. Consensus-Based Decision Making: In a coalition, no single party can dictate terms.

Policies must be discussed and agreed upon through a Common Minimum Programme, which promotes consensus-building and prevents arbitrary or authoritarian decision-making by a single leader.

4. Check on Dictatorial Tendencies: The necessity of relying on alliance partners ensures that the leading party remains accountable.

The threat of partners withdrawing support acts as a natural check and balance, preventing the misuse of power and maintaining democratic norms.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Coalition governments enhance democratic representation, strengthen federalism by empowering regional voices, promote consensus-based policy formulation, and act as a safeguard against authoritarian governance.
Quick Tip: Always connect the concept of 'Coalition Governments' directly to the 'Federal Structure' of India, as regional party participation is its biggest functional advantage.


Question 20(a):

Describe any two areas of co-operation and any two reasons for conflicts between India and Pakistan.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for a balanced overview of the bilateral relationship between India and Pakistan by identifying two positive areas of engagement and two major disputes.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Areas of Co-operation:

1. Indus Water Treaty: Signed in 1960 with the mediation of the World Bank, this treaty successfully dictates the sharing of the waters of the Indus river system.

Despite numerous wars and diplomatic crises, the treaty has survived and functions as a stable mechanism for resource sharing.

2. Confidence Building Measures (CBMs): Both nations have periodically engaged in CBMs to reduce tensions, such as starting the Delhi-Lahore bus service, trade across the Line of Control (LoC), and agreements to not attack each other's nuclear facilities.


Reasons for Conflict:

1. The Kashmir Dispute: The most prominent and long-standing conflict is the territorial dispute over Jammu and Kashmir.

Both nations claim the region in full but rule it in parts, leading to multiple wars (1947, 1965, 1999) and continuous military standoff along the Line of Control.

2. Cross-Border Terrorism: India strongly accuses Pakistan of funding, training, and harboring militant groups that carry out terrorist attacks on Indian soil.

This issue of state-sponsored terrorism remains the largest stumbling block to normalizing diplomatic relations.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Co-operation exists in resource sharing (Indus Water Treaty) and periodic Confidence Building Measures, while conflicts are primarily driven by the Kashmir territorial dispute and the issue of cross-border terrorism.
Quick Tip: When discussing international relations in political science, always cite specific treaties (like the Indus Water Treaty of 1960) to provide concrete evidence of cooperation.


Question 20(b):

Describe any two areas of co-operation and any two reasons for conflicts between India and Nepal.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question demands an analysis of the bilateral ties between India and Nepal, highlighting mutual benefits and sources of diplomatic friction.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Areas of Co-operation:

1. Open Borders and Free Movement: The 1950 Treaty of Peace and Friendship allows citizens of both countries to travel, live, and work across the border without visas or passports.

This has created deep socio-economic and cultural ties between the peoples of both nations.

2. Economic Aid and Infrastructure: India is one of Nepal's largest trade partners and has heavily invested in Nepal's infrastructure, including hydropower projects, roads, and post-earthquake reconstruction.


Reasons for Conflict:

1. Border Disputes: Tensions have arisen over territorial disagreements, most notably concerning the Kalapani, Lipulekh, and Limpiyadhura regions.

Nepal's publication of a new political map claiming these areas caused significant diplomatic friction with India.

2. Influence of External Powers: India is often concerned about Nepal's growing economic and strategic closeness to China.

Conversely, leaders in Nepal sometimes perceive Indian policies as overly intrusive in their domestic affairs, leading to resentment and conflict.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Co-operation is highlighted by the unique open-border policy and extensive Indian economic investments in Nepal, whereas conflicts stem from unresolved border disputes and geopolitical concerns regarding China's influence.
Quick Tip: Highlighting the 'Treaty of Peace and Friendship (1950)' is crucial when discussing India-Nepal relations, as it forms the bedrock of their unique open-border system.


Question 21:

Highlight any four points of the political ideology of Communist Party of India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires outlining the core ideological principles that define the Communist Party of India (CPI).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Marxism-Leninism: The CPI bases its core political ideology on the principles of Marxism and Leninism.

It advocates for the establishment of a socialist society and ultimately a communist state where the working class (proletariat) holds power.

2. Advocacy for the Working Class and Peasantry: The party strongly champions the rights of industrial workers, landless laborers, and poor peasants.

It campaigns for fair wages, land reforms, and the redistribution of wealth to eliminate extreme economic inequalities.

3. Anti-Imperialism and Anti-Capitalism: The CPI staunchly opposes Western imperialism, neo-colonialism, and global capitalist forces.

It argues against policies that favor large multinational corporations at the expense of local workers and self-reliance.

4. Secularism and Anti-Communalism: The party is committed to strict secularism and vehemently opposes communal, caste-based, and religious politics.

It believes that religious divisions are often used to distract the working class from their shared economic struggles.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The four core points of CPI's ideology are its foundation in Marxism-Leninism, its focus on working-class and peasant rights, its opposition to capitalism and imperialism, and its strong commitment to secularism.
Quick Tip: For questions on party ideology, always mention the foundational philosophy (Marxism-Leninism) and the primary demographic the party claims to represent (workers and peasants).


Question 22:

Why could the reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev not save the disintegration of Soviet Union? Explain any two reasons.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for the reasons why Mikhail Gorbachev's well-intentioned reform policies (Perestroika and Glasnost) failed to prevent, and perhaps accelerated, the collapse of the USSR.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Unleashing of Nationalist Sentiments (Glasnost): Gorbachev's policy of 'Glasnost' (openness) granted citizens the freedom of speech and the press, which had been suppressed for decades.

Instead of just critiquing the economy, people used this freedom to express long-suppressed nationalist sentiments, leading to strong demands for independence in various Soviet republics like the Baltic states (Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania), which the central government could no longer control.

2. Economic Disruption without Immediate Replacement (Perestroika): The policy of 'Perestroika' (restructuring) aimed to introduce market-like reforms into the rigid command economy.

However, dismantling the old state-controlled system before a functional market system could be established caused severe economic chaos, widespread shortages of essential goods, and immense frustration among the common people who expected quick results.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Gorbachev's reforms failed because 'Glasnost' unleashed uncontrollable nationalist movements demanding independence, while 'Perestroika' disrupted the existing economic structure without providing immediate relief, leading to severe economic crisis and public dissatisfaction.
Quick Tip: Always use the specific Russian terms 'Perestroika' (restructuring) and 'Glasnost' (openness) when discussing Gorbachev's reforms to demonstrate precise subject knowledge.


Question 23:

Describe any four factors responsible to make Indira Gandhi's government popular in the beginning of 1970s decade.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question seeks to identify the key policies, slogans, and events that led to the massive resurgence and popularity of Indira Gandhi during the early 1970s (especially around the 1971 elections).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. The 'Garibi Hatao' Slogan: During the 1971 election campaign, Indira Gandhi coined the incredibly popular slogan "Garibi Hatao" (Eradicate Poverty).

This sharply contrasted with the opposition's "Indira Hatao" (Remove Indira) slogan and directly connected her with the poor, landless laborers, Dalits, and marginalized communities.

2. Abolition of Privy Purses: Indira Gandhi took the bold step of abolishing the 'Privy Purses', which were special privileges and pensions granted to the former rulers of princely states.

This move was highly popular as it was seen as a strong commitment to egalitarianism and social justice.

3. Nationalization of Banks: She nationalized 14 leading private banks in India.

This policy was perceived as a pro-poor measure aimed at redirecting credit and financial resources away from a few wealthy industrialists toward agriculture and small-scale industries.

4. Victory in the 1971 Indo-Pak War: Under her decisive leadership, India achieved a historic military victory over Pakistan in 1971, which led to the creation of the independent nation of Bangladesh.

This elevated her status to a strong nationalist leader and generated immense national pride, cementing her political dominance.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Indira Gandhi's popularity surged due to her pro-poor "Garibi Hatao" campaign, bold socialist policies like the abolition of privy purses and bank nationalization, and her strong leadership during the 1971 Indo-Pak war.
Quick Tip: Connect political slogans with specific policies. Mentioning "Garibi Hatao" alongside socialist actions like Bank Nationalization provides a complete picture of her populist appeal.


Question 24:

Study the given cartoon carefully and answer the questions that follow:



24(i).
Which change does the cartoon reflect?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to interpret the underlying message of the cartoon comparing the past and present global status of India and China.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The cartoon reflects the dramatic shift in the global economic landscape due to globalization.

It shows how developing nations like India and China have transitioned from being seen as impoverished, starving countries to emerging economic powerhouses capable of capturing global employment opportunities and competing for highly skilled jobs.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The cartoon reflects the transition of developing countries like India and China from being economically impoverished to becoming highly competitive global economic powers demanding skilled jobs.
Quick Tip: In cartoon-based questions, always contrast the two panels. Explain what 'Yesterday' represented (poverty) versus what 'Today' represents (economic competition).


Question 24(ii):

What kind of shift is shown in America's attitude towards developing countries?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires analyzing the perspective of the parent in the cartoon, representing American/Western society.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The shift shown is from a sense of superiority, pity, and charity towards developing nations to an attitude of economic insecurity and competitiveness.

In the past, Americans viewed these countries through the lens of aid and starvation, but now they view the skilled workforce of India and China as a direct threat to their own job security due to outsourcing and global economic integration.


Step 4: Final Answer:

America's attitude has shifted from viewing developing countries with pity and charity to viewing them with economic insecurity and seeing them as strong competitors for global jobs.
Quick Tip: Look at the dialogue carefully: "Starving for your job" indicates anxiety over outsourcing, which is a key negative consequence felt in developed nations due to globalization.


Question 24(iii):

Mention any one positive and any one negative impact of globalization in reference to the cartoon.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to extract one positive and one negative outcome of globalization explicitly tied to the theme of employment shown in the cartoon.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Positive Impact: Globalization has led to massive job creation, economic growth, and an improved standard of living in developing countries like India and China, as multinational companies outsource tasks to these regions.

Negative Impact: Conversely, globalization has caused job insecurity, outsourcing, and loss of employment opportunities for the middle class in developed nations (like the USA), leading to heightened economic anxiety.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Positive impact: Increased employment opportunities and economic growth in developing nations like India and China.

Negative impact: Job losses and growing economic insecurity in developed nations due to the outsourcing of work.
Quick Tip: Always ensure your listed impacts directly relate to the specific theme of the cartoon (in this case, jobs and employment) rather than writing generic globalization impacts.


Questions for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 24:

Question 24(i):

In which year did India embark on reforms for economic growth?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires recalling the specific year when India formally adopted structural economic reforms, shifting away from a heavily state-regulated economy.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Facing a severe balance of payments crisis, the Indian government, under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, introduced major economic reforms.

These reforms, encompassing Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG), were officially launched in the year 1991.


Step 4: Final Answer:

India embarked on economic reforms in the year 1991.
Quick Tip: 1991 is a watershed year in Indian history. It marks the shift to LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization) policies.


Question 24(ii):

In which year and at what place was the first meeting of World Social Forum (WSF) organized?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for the factual details regarding the inaugural event of the World Social Forum, a key anti-globalization movement platform.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The World Social Forum (WSF) emerged as a global platform for activists, social movements, and civil society organizations opposed to neo-liberal globalization.

Its very first meeting was held to present an alternative to the World Economic Forum, and it took place in Porto Alegre, Brazil, in the year 2001.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The first meeting of the World Social Forum (WSF) was organized in the year 2001 at Porto Alegre, Brazil.
Quick Tip: Remembering "Porto Alegre, 2001" is important as the WSF represents the primary global institutional opposition to neo-liberal globalization.


Question 24(iii):

State any two cultural consequences of globalization.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for two distinct ways in which globalization has affected the culture of societies worldwide.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Cultural Homogenization: Globalization often leads to the spread of a dominant global culture, heavily influenced by Western (especially American) values, food, and clothing.

This process, sometimes termed "McDonaldization," threatens local traditions and makes cultures around the world look increasingly similar.

2. Cultural Heterogenization: On the flip side, globalization can also lead to the creation of unique new cultures through the fusion of global and local elements.

An example is wearing a traditional Indian kurta with blue jeans, creating a distinct, hybrid cultural expression that enriches the existing culture.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Two cultural consequences are Cultural Homogenization (the spread of a uniform, Westernized global culture) and Cultural Heterogenization (the blending of local and global cultures to create new, unique forms).
Quick Tip: Always mention both 'Homogenization' (making things similar) and 'Heterogenization' (making things diverse) to show a well-rounded understanding of cultural impacts.


Question 25:

In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the format that follows:




25(i).
The state related to the leader of Dravidian Movement E.V. Ramasami Naicker.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the state associated with E.V. Ramasami Naicker (Periyar) and the Dravidian movement, and match it with the correct letter on the provided map.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

E.V. Ramasami Naicker, affectionately known as Periyar, was a prominent social activist and politician who started the Self-Respect Movement and was a key figure in the Dravidian movement.

The movement was primarily based in the southern state of Tamil Nadu.

Looking at the map, the letter D points to the state of Tamil Nadu.


Step 4: Final Answer:

State Name: Tamil Nadu. Alphabet: D.
Quick Tip: For map questions, link the historical figure to their regional movement. 'Dravidian' clearly points to the deep south, specifically Tamil Nadu.


Question 25(ii):

The state whose formation was supported by Master Tara Singh.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires identifying the state whose creation was strongly advocated by Master Tara Singh, and locating it on the map.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Master Tara Singh was a prominent Sikh political and religious leader who led the 'Punjabi Suba' movement.

This movement demanded the creation of a separate Punjabi-speaking state, which eventually led to the reorganization of Punjab in 1966.

On the provided political map, the letter B corresponds to the state of Punjab.


Step 4: Final Answer:

State Name: Punjab. Alphabet: B.
Quick Tip: 'Punjabi Suba' movement is deeply associated with Master Tara Singh and the Akali Dal, pointing directly to Punjab state.


Question 25(iii):

The state where the movement against outsiders was started by students.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the state that witnessed a massive student-led agitation against illegal immigrants.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The All Assam Students' Union (AASU) led a historic six-year movement (1979-1985) against illegal immigration (outsiders) into their state, fearing demographic shifts and economic pressure.

This movement took place in the northeastern state of Assam.

On the given map, the letter C points to the state of Assam.


Step 4: Final Answer:

State Name: Assam. Alphabet: C.
Quick Tip: Whenever a question mentions an 'anti-foreigner' or 'anti-outsider' student movement in India, it almost exclusively refers to the AASU movement in Assam.


Question 25(iv):

The state for which Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga signed an agreement for peace.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires identifying the state that was granted full statehood following a historic peace accord signed by Laldenga and Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

After decades of secessionist insurgency led by the Mizo National Front (MNF), its leader Laldenga signed a peace accord with Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi in 1986.

As part of this settlement, Mizoram was granted full statehood in 1987.

On the map, the letter A points to the state of Mizoram in the extreme northeast.


Step 4: Final Answer:

State Name: Mizoram. Alphabet: A.
Quick Tip: Laldenga was the founder of the Mizo National Front (MNF). The word 'Mizo' easily gives away the state as Mizoram.


Questions for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 25:

Question 25(i):

Name the Article related to Jammu and Kashmir which was abrogated in 2019.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for the specific constitutional article that provided special autonomous status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir before its revocation.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Article 370 of the Indian Constitution granted special autonomous status to the region of Jammu and Kashmir, allowing it to have its own constitution, a separate flag, and independence over all matters except foreign affairs, defense, and communications.

On August 5, 2019, the Government of India revoked this special status by abrogating Article 370.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Article 370.
Quick Tip: Article 370 is one of the most frequently tested topics regarding recent political changes in India. Memorize the year (2019) and the article number.


Question 25(ii):

Name any one regional political party of Jammu and Kashmir.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify a prominent political party that operates primarily at the regional level within Jammu and Kashmir.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Jammu and Kashmir has had a distinct political landscape dominated by strong regional parties that advocate for the state's specific interests and autonomy.

The two most historically significant regional parties are the Jammu \& Kashmir National Conference (JKNC) and the Jammu and Kashmir Peoples Democratic Party (PDP).


Step 4: Final Answer:

National Conference (NC) or Peoples Democratic Party (PDP).
Quick Tip: Always memorize at least two major regional parties for sensitive or prominent states like J\&K, Punjab (Akali Dal), and Tamil Nadu (DMK/AIADMK).


Question 25(iii):

In which year Arunachal Pradesh became a separate state?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires factual knowledge about the year Arunachal Pradesh was elevated from a Union Territory to a full-fledged state.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Arunachal Pradesh was earlier known as the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) and was administered directly by the central government.

It became a Union Territory in 1972 and was later granted the status of a full state to fulfill the democratic aspirations of its people.

It officially became a separate state on February 20, 1987.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Arunachal Pradesh became a separate state in the year 1987.
Quick Tip: Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh both gained full statehood in the same year: 1987. Grouping them together helps in memorization.


Question 25(iv):

Name the popular leader of Mizo National Front (MNF).

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for the name of the prominent personality who led the Mizo National Front during its insurgency and later signed the peace accord.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The Mizo National Front (MNF) was originally formed to protest the central government's alleged inaction during the great famine in the Mizo hills.

It transitioned into an armed insurgent group fighting for secession, led effectively by Laldenga.

He later became the Chief Minister of Mizoram after signing a peace accord with the Indian government in 1986.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Laldenga.
Quick Tip: Laldenga's transformation from an insurgent leader to the Chief Minister of Mizoram is a classic example of democratic accommodation in Indian politics.


Question 26:

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :

On the reform of structures and processes, the biggest discussion has been on the functioning of the Security Council. Related to this has been the demand for an increase in the UN Security Council's permanent and non-permanent membership so that the realities of contemporary world politics are better reflected in the structure of the organisation. In particular, there are proposals to increase membership from Asia, Africa and South America. Beyond this, the US and other Western countries want improvements in the UN's budgetary procedures and its administration.

26(i).
Which organ of the United Nations has five permanent members?

  • (A) General Assembly
  • (B) Security Council
  • (C) Secretariat
  • (D) Economic and Social Council
Correct Answer: (B) Security Council
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the principal organ of the United Nations that includes five permanent member states with veto power.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is the organ primarily responsible for maintaining international peace and security.

It consists of 15 members in total, out of which five are permanent members (USA, UK, France, Russia, and China) and ten are non-permanent members elected for two-year terms.

None of the other organs listed (General Assembly, Secretariat, ECOSOC) have this specific structure of permanent membership with veto powers.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Security Council has five permanent members.
Quick Tip: Always remember the "P5" (Permanent 5) nations: USA, UK, France, Russia, and China, which are exclusively part of the UN Security Council.


Question 26(ii):

Which country contributes the most in the budget of United Nations Organisation?

  • (A) America
  • (B) Russia
  • (C) China
  • (D) France
Correct Answer: (A) America
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the highest financial contributor to the regular budget of the United Nations.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The regular budget of the United Nations is funded by assessed contributions from member states, which are calculated based on their gross national income and other economic factors.

The United States of America (America) is the largest economy in the world and has consistently been the largest single financial contributor to the UN budget, accounting for over 20 percent of the total assessed budget.


Step 4: Final Answer:

America contributes the most to the budget of the UN.
Quick Tip: Financial contribution gives nations significant leverage. The US's large financial role is a major reason why it often demands administrative and budgetary reforms in the UN.


Question 26(iii):

In which year was the strength of non-permanent members of Security Council increased?

  • (A) 1962
  • (B) 1963
  • (C) 1964
  • (D) 1965
Correct Answer: (D) 1965
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question tests factual knowledge regarding the historical reform of the UN Security Council's membership structure.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

When the United Nations was founded in 1945, the Security Council had 11 members: 5 permanent and 6 non-permanent.

Due to the process of decolonization, the number of UN member states increased rapidly.

To better reflect this, the UN Charter was amended in 1965 to increase the number of non-permanent members from 6 to 10, bringing the total membership of the Security Council to 15.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The strength of non-permanent members was increased in 1965.
Quick Tip: This is the only time the UN Security Council's composition has been expanded since its inception, making 1965 a highly tested date in exams.


Question 26(iv):

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the reforms in Security Council?

  • (A) The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
  • (B) The Security Council's decisions reflect only western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
  • (C) The Security Council lacks equitable representation.
  • (D) The Security Council has a large army to establish peace.
Correct Answer: (D) The Security Council has a large army to establish peace.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires identifying the false statement regarding the criticisms and structural facts of the UN Security Council.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Statements (A), (B), and (C) are common and valid criticisms of the UNSC that drive the demand for its reform. Critics argue it is outdated, dominated by Western powers, and lacks representation from regions like Africa and South America.

Statement (D) is factually incorrect. The United Nations, including the Security Council, does not have its own standing military or large army.

Instead, it relies on member states to voluntarily contribute military and police personnel for specific UN Peacekeeping missions.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The statement claiming the Security Council has a large army is not correct.
Quick Tip: Whenever a question asks what the UN "has", remember that it lacks its own independent military and relies entirely on member state contributions for peacekeeping.


Question 27(a):

State any three major differences between the economic policies followed by China before and after 1970.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for a comparison of China's economic strategies during its orthodox communist phase (Mao era) versus its reformist phase (post-1978, under Deng Xiaoping), which is broadly categorized as before and after the 1970s.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Command Economy vs. Market Socialism: Before the 1970s, China followed a strict Soviet-style command economy where the state owned all resources, and heavy industries were centrally planned.

After the 1970s, China introduced "market socialism," allowing market forces, private enterprise, and profit motives to operate alongside state control.

2. Isolation vs. Open Door Policy: Prior to the reforms, China's economy was highly isolated from the global market, relying heavily on self-reliance and minimal foreign trade.

In 1978, China adopted the 'Open Door Policy', actively inviting Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), integrating into the global economy, and creating Special Economic Zones (SEZs).

3. Agricultural Collectivization vs. Privatization: Under Mao, agriculture was strictly collectivized into large communes where peasants worked for the state.

After the 1970s, agriculture was the first sector to be reformed; communes were dismantled, and land was leased to individual households, which dramatically increased agricultural production and rural incomes.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The major differences revolve around the shift from a closed, state-controlled command economy with collectivized agriculture to an open, market-oriented economy with privatized farming and foreign investment.
Quick Tip: Use keywords like 'Soviet Model', 'Open Door Policy (1978)', and 'Special Economic Zones (SEZs)' to clearly distinguish between the two eras of Chinese economic history.


Question 27(b):

Explain ASEAN as an 'alternative centre of power' in the contemporary world.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires an explanation of how the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) has emerged as a significant and influential bloc globally, distinct from traditional superpowers.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Rapid Economic Growth: ASEAN is one of the fastest-growing economic regions in the world.

By creating the ASEAN Economic Community (AEC) and establishing Free Trade Areas (FTAs) with major economies like India and China, it has become an attractive hub for global investment and trade.

2. The 'ASEAN Way': Unlike the European Union, which has strong supranational institutions, ASEAN operates on the 'ASEAN Way'—a form of interaction that is informal, non-confrontational, and strictly respects national sovereignty.

This approach has successfully maintained peace and stability among its diverse member states, preventing regional conflicts.

3. Regional Security Provider: Through the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) established in 1994, it coordinates security and foreign policy across the region.

It acts as a neutral platform where major powers (like the US, China, and India) can engage in dialogue, thereby preventing superpower hegemony in Southeast Asia.

4. Outward-Looking Vision: Through its Vision 2020, ASEAN has defined an outward-looking role for itself in the international community, aiming to resolve conflicts through negotiations and taking a prominent role in Asian affairs.


Step 4: Final Answer:

ASEAN is an alternative center of power due to its rapid economic integration, its unique non-confrontational 'ASEAN Way' of diplomacy, and its central role in managing Asian security through platforms like the ARF.
Quick Tip: When discussing ASEAN, always mention the "ASEAN Way" and the "ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF)". These specific institutional terms yield high marks.


Question 28(a):

How did Princely states posed a threat to the National Security of India? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to analyze the security risks and territorial challenges India faced immediately after independence due to the existence of 565 semi-independent princely states.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Threat of Balkanization: The British gave princely states the choice to join India, Pakistan, or remain independent.

If many large states chose independence, India would have fractured into dozens of small, scattered nations (Balkanization), completely destroying the territorial integrity and unity of the newly independent country.

2. Strategic Vulnerability: Several crucial princely states shared borders with Pakistan or occupied critical geographical positions.

For example, if Junagadh or Hyderabad (which was deep inside Indian territory) aligned with Pakistan, it would have created hostile enclaves within India's borders, causing perpetual internal security nightmares.

Similarly, the indecision of Jammu and Kashmir led to immediate conflict and foreign intervention.

3. Disruption of Supply Lines: Many princely states sat astride vital railway, road, and communication networks connecting different parts of British India.

If these states remained independent or turned hostile, they could easily choke the movement of Indian troops and essential supplies, severely compromising national defense.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Princely states posed a severe threat by risking the balkanization of the subcontinent, creating hostile enclaves within Indian borders, and potentially disrupting critical communication and defense supply lines.
Quick Tip: Use the term "Balkanization" to effectively describe the threat of India breaking up into multiple smaller, vulnerable states.


Question 28(b):

Explain any four problems faced during the process of partition of India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires detailing the logistical, geographical, and humanitarian challenges encountered while executing the partition of British India in 1947 based on the 'Two-Nation Theory'.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Lack of a Contiguous Muslim Majority Area: There was no single contiguous geographical belt with a Muslim majority in British India.

The major Muslim concentrations were on the extreme East and extreme West, leading to the creation of Pakistan in two non-contiguous halves (West Pakistan and East Pakistan), separated by a vast expanse of Indian territory.

2. Reluctance to Join Pakistan: Not all Muslim-majority areas were eager to join Pakistan.

A prominent example was Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (the Frontier Gandhi) of the North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP), who staunchly opposed the Two-Nation Theory, though his voice was ultimately ignored.

3. Division of Punjab and Bengal: In the Muslim-majority provinces of Punjab and Bengal, there were vast areas with non-Muslim majorities.

It was decided to bifurcate these provinces at the district or even lower levels. This delayed decision meant millions of people did not know which country they were in on Independence Day, leading to massive panic.

4. The Problem of Minorities: The most horrific problem was the fate of minorities—Hindus and Sikhs in Pakistan, and Muslims in India.

As soon as partition was announced, unprecedented communal violence erupted, forcing millions to flee their ancestral homes and become refugees, facing killings, abductions, and immense trauma.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The four main problems were the geographical separation of East and West Pakistan, the opposition by some Muslim-majority regions, the complex bifurcation of Punjab and Bengal, and the massive humanitarian crisis caused by the displacement of minorities.
Quick Tip: Structure the answer sequentially: start with geographical issues (no single area), move to political issues (NWFP opposition), then administrative (dividing provinces), and finally the human cost (refugees and violence).


Question 29(a):

Analyse any three principles of India's foreign policy which you would like to alter in the present international scenario.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question is analytical and opinion-based, asking to critically evaluate traditional principles of Indian foreign policy and suggest alterations to make them suitable for the contemporary, multipolar world.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. From Non-Alignment to Multi-Alignment: The traditional policy of Non-Alignment was suited for the Cold War era to avoid joining the US or Soviet blocs.

In the present multipolar scenario with rising threats (like an aggressive China), India should alter this to 'Strategic Multi-Alignment', actively participating in issue-based coalitions and security frameworks like the Quad, without being restricted by the old non-aligned dogma.

2. Reviewing the 'No First Use' (NFU) Nuclear Policy: India's nuclear doctrine has strictly adhered to NFU.

Given the evolving security environment, characterized by a two-front threat from nuclear-armed neighbors (China and Pakistan) and advancements in tactical nuclear weapons, some strategic ambiguity might be introduced. Altering it to allow preemptive action in extreme scenarios could strengthen deterrence.

3. Altering Passive 'Non-Interference' in the Neighborhood: Traditional Panchsheel emphasizes strict non-interference in internal affairs.

However, when political instability or anti-democratic coups in neighboring countries (like Myanmar or Maldives) directly threaten India's security and regional stability, India needs to alter its stance to become a more proactive security provider, emphasizing democratic stability and strict reciprocity rather than passive observation.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The principles that could be altered include shifting from traditional Non-Alignment to strategic Multi-Alignment, introducing flexibility into the 'No First Use' nuclear doctrine, and replacing passive non-interference with a more proactive security role in the immediate neighborhood.
Quick Tip: For opinion-based policy questions, do not outright reject traditional policies. Instead, use words like 'evolve', 'adapt', or 'shift' (e.g., from Non-alignment to Multi-alignment) to show diplomatic maturity.


Question 29(b):

"India's nuclear policy is a blend of strategic autonomy and a commitment to global disarmament." Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to provide evidence demonstrating that India's nuclear program is designed to protect its own national security (autonomy) while simultaneously supporting a world free of nuclear weapons.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Refusal to Sign Discriminatory Treaties (Strategic Autonomy): India has consistently refused to sign the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).

India argues these treaties are discriminatory, as they allow the P5 nations to keep their arsenals while preventing others from developing them. By staying out, India maintained its strategic autonomy to test and weaponize (as seen in Pokhran-II in 1998) to counter regional threats from China and Pakistan.

2. Credible Minimum Deterrence (Strategic Autonomy): India's policy focuses on building a "credible minimum deterrence" rather than engaging in a massive nuclear arms race.

This ensures India has enough capability to inflict unacceptable damage on an adversary, guaranteeing its security and independent foreign policy, without unnecessarily escalating global tensions.

3. No First Use Policy and Disarmament Advocacy (Global Disarmament): Unlike many nuclear-armed states, India strictly adheres to a 'No First Use' (NFU) policy, meaning it will never initiate a nuclear strike.

Furthermore, India has always been a vocal advocate at the UN for universal, verifiable, and non-discriminatory global nuclear disarmament, proving its ultimate goal is peace, and weapons are retained merely out of situational necessity.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The statement is justified by India's assertion of autonomy through the rejection of discriminatory treaties (NPT/CTBT) and maintenance of minimum deterrence, balanced by its peaceful NFU doctrine and continuous advocacy for universal nuclear disarmament.
Quick Tip: Always pair the terms 'NPT/CTBT' with the word 'discriminatory' when explaining why India refused to sign them. It perfectly explains the 'strategic autonomy' aspect.


Question 30(a):

Examine any four environmental concerns that have influenced the global politics.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify major global environmental issues that transcend national borders and require international political cooperation and treaties to resolve.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Global Warming and Climate Change: The continuous rise in global temperatures due to greenhouse gas emissions has become a central issue in international diplomacy.

It leads to extreme weather events and sea-level rise, threatening the very existence of low-lying island nations, which has spurred global agreements like the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement.

2. Depletion of the Ozone Layer: The thinning of the ozone layer in the Earth's stratosphere due to CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) posed a massive threat to global health.

This concern successfully influenced global politics, resulting in the Montreal Protocol, a landmark international treaty to phase out ozone-depleting substances.

3. Loss of Biodiversity: Rapid deforestation and habitat destruction are leading to a massive decline in plant and animal species.

Since biodiversity is considered the 'common heritage of mankind,' its loss affects global food security and medicine, prompting political action like the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) signed at the 1992 Earth Summit.

4. Global Water Scarcity: The depletion of freshwater resources and disputes over shared international river basins are growing concerns.

Access to clean water is increasingly viewed as a geopolitical security issue, as scarcity can lead to 'water wars' and mass migrations, forcing nations to negotiate water-sharing treaties.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The four key environmental concerns shaping global politics are climate change/global warming, the depletion of the ozone layer, the rapid loss of biodiversity, and international water scarcity.
Quick Tip: To score well, link the environmental concern to a specific political treaty or summit (e.g., Ozone layer -> Montreal Protocol; Biodiversity -> 1992 Earth Summit).


Question 30(b):

Suggest any four steps that the Government of India should take to protect the environment.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for actionable, policy-level suggestions that the Indian government should implement to address environmental degradation.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Accelerate the Shift to Renewable Energy: The government should heavily subsidize and promote solar, wind, and hydroelectric power to reduce dependence on fossil fuels like coal.

Expanding initiatives like the National Solar Mission and incentivizing decentralized solar grids in rural areas can drastically cut carbon emissions.

2. Stricter Enforcement of Emission Norms: The government must ensure strict compliance with the latest vehicular emission standards (like BS-VI) and industrial pollution norms.

Heavy penalties should be levied on industries discharging untreated effluents into rivers, and the transition to Electric Vehicles (EVs) should be accelerated through tax rebates and infrastructure development.

3. Massive Afforestation and Forest Protection: To combat deforestation and land degradation, the government should launch large-scale, community-led afforestation drives.

Strict enforcement of the Forest Conservation Act is needed to prevent the diversion of pristine forest lands for mining and unregulated infrastructure projects.

4. Promote Sustainable Agriculture: Agriculture is a major consumer of water and contributor to soil degradation.

The government should incentivize organic farming, micro-irrigation techniques (drip and sprinkler systems), and discourage the burning of crop residue by providing technological alternatives to farmers.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The government should boost renewable energy adoption, strictly enforce industrial and vehicular emission norms, undertake massive afforestation projects, and heavily promote sustainable and water-efficient agricultural practices.
Quick Tip: When offering suggestions for government policy, categorize them broadly into energy, industry, forestry, and agriculture to demonstrate a comprehensive understanding of the topic.

Class 12 Political Science Answer Key 2026 | All Sets Paper Solutions