The Re-NEET 2026 Question Paper Code 60 is available for download here. NTA conducted the NEET Re-Exam 2026 on 21 June in a single shift from 2 PM to 5:15 PM. The NEET Re-Test question paper consists of 180 questions for 720 marks to be attempted in 3 hours and 15 minutes.

  • NEET Question Paper 2026 is divided into 3 sections- Physics (45 questions), Chemistry (45 questions), and Biology (90 questions).
  • Each correct answer carries 4 marks, and an incorrect answer has a negative marking of 1.

Candidates can download the NEET Re-Exam 2026 Question Paper Code 60 with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below. According to initial student reaction, NEET Re-Test Paper 2026 was of easy to moderate to level.

Re-NEET 2026 Question Paper with Solution PDF Code 60

NEET Re-Exam Code 60 Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

An ac voltage \(V = 220 \sin(2 \times 10^3 t)\) Volt is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in this circuit is: (Given: \(L = 10 mH\), \(C = 25 \mu F\), \(R = 100 \Omega\))

  • (A) \(11.0 A\)
  • (B) \(22.0 A\)
  • (C) \(2.2 A\)
  • (D) \(5.5 A\)

Question 2:

The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B. The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of gas B. If number densities of the gases A and B are \(n_A\) and \(n_B\), respectively, then the correct option is:

  • (A) \(n_A = \frac{1}{4} n_B\)
  • (B) \(n_A = \frac{1}{2} n_B\)
  • (C) \(n_A = n_B\)
  • (D) \(n_A = 2n_B\)

Question 3:

A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density \(\rho_1\). If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period T. If the same cork floats in another liquid of density \(\rho_2\), then the similar oscillation has time period 2T. The value of \(\rho_2/\rho_1\) is:

  • (A) \(1/2\)
  • (B) \(1/4\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 4:

Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is \(m\) kg and the spring constant is \(k Nm^{-1}\). At a given instant, the extension of the spring is \(x\) meter and the speed of the particle is \(v ms^{-1}\). On the \(x-v\) plane, if the graph of \(v\) as a function of \(x\) is a circle, then the correct option is:

  • (A) \(k = m^2\)
  • (B) \(k = \sqrt{m}\)
  • (C) \(k = 1/m\)
  • (D) \(k = m\)

Question 5:

In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas (\(\gamma = 5/3\)) decreases from 60K to 50K. The work done by the gas in the process is: (Take the universal gas constant as \(R = 8.3 J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(124.5 J\)
  • (B) \(166 J\)
  • (C) \(41.5 J\)
  • (D) \(83 J\)

Question 6:

The following table presents the part of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding major applications.


The correct option is :

  • (A) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
  • (B) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
  • (C) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
  • (D) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III

Question 7:

A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube that is inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius \(R\), having uniform positive charge density \(\rho\). The initial and final positions of the charge are marked by \(A\) and \(B\) at distances \(2R\) and \(3R\) respectively, from the centre of the sphere. In this process, the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is \(\frac{\rho R^2}{n \epsilon_0}\). The value of \(n\) is :



  • (A) \(9\)
  • (B) \(18\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 8:

A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated. If power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time \(t\), then variation of the photocurrent \(I\) and magnitude of the stopping potential \(|V|\) with time is best represented by :




  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 9:

Bob \(B\) of mass \(m\) at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length 10 m. Point mass \(A\) of mass \(m\) travelling horizontally with speed 10 ms\(^{-1}\) hits bob \(B\) elastically. The bob \(B\) rises \(h\) meter after the collision. Taking \(g = 10\) ms\(^{-2}\), the value of \(h\) is :



  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(2.5\)
  • (C) \(8\)
  • (D) \(7\)

Question 10:

An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational and \(f\) number of vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities \(C_p/C_v\) of the gas is 8/7, then the value of \(f\) is :

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 11:

In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity \(v\) with the ratio of density of spherical ball \(\sigma\) to density of the liquid \(\rho\), is best represented by :



  • (A) \( (1) \)
  • (B) \( (2) \)
  • (C) \( (3) \)
  • (D) \( (4) \)

Question 12:

In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius \(R\) is proportional to :



  • (A) \(R^2\)
  • (B) \(R^3\)
  • (C) \(R^{1/2}\)
  • (D) \(R^{3/2}\)

Question 13:

A solid sphere \(A\) of radius \(R\) and mass \(M\) is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere \(B\) of radius \(r < R\) and mass \(m < M\). Assume that the line joining their centres lies along the horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of \(A\) is \(I_A\) and that calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of \(B\) is \(I_B\). The difference \(I_A - I_B\) is :

  • (A) \((m - M)(R - r)^2\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \((M - m)(R + r)^2\)
  • (D) \((m - M)(R + r)^2\)

Question 14:

Consider the following nuclear reaction : \[ ^{238}U \rightarrow ^{234}Th + ^4He \] Take masses of \(^{238}U\), \(^{234}Th\) and \(^4He\) as \(238.050\) u, \(234.043\) u and \(4.003\) u respectively. The \(Q\) value for the reaction, in keV, is : [Given: \(1 u = 931.5 MeV c^{-2}\)]

  • (A) \(3736\)
  • (B) \(3740\)
  • (C) \(3726\)
  • (D) \(3730\)

Question 15:

Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius \(R\) and total charge \(+Q\). A point charge \(-q\) (\(q \ll Q\)) with mass \(m\) is released from rest at a distance of \(3R\) from the centre of the charged sphere. When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is : (\(\epsilon_0\) is the permittivity of vacuum, neglect gravitational forces).

  • (A) \( \sqrt{\frac{Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 m R}} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{\frac{Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 m R}} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{\frac{3Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 m R}} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{\frac{2Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 m R}} \)

Question 16:

Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, \(+\alpha\), while the other one has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance, \(-\alpha\), as shown in the figure. The current through these circuits are denoted by \(I_A\) and \(I_B\). At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is \(R_0\). As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is :



  • (A) \(I_A\) increases while \(I_B\) decreases
  • (B) \(both I_A\) and \(I_B\) remain constant
  • (C) \(I_A\) remains constant while \(I_B\) increases
  • (D) \(I_A\) decreases while \(I_B\) increases

Question 17:

A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the \(x - y\) plane. There is a constant magnetic field in the \(z\) direction. The area of the loop varies with time \(t\), as \(A = A_0(1 + \sin t)\) in appropriate units. The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power \(P\) dissipated in the loop as a function of time is :



  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 18:

A photon and an electron, each of \(20\) eV energy, move in free space. The ratio of linear momentum of electron \(p_e\) to that of photon \(p_{ph}\) is : (Take speed of light \(= 3 \times 10^8 ms^{-1}\), charge of electron \(= 1.6 \times 10^{-19}\) C and mass of electron \(= 9 \times 10^{-31}\) kg)

  • (A) \(225\)
  • (B) \(275\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{450}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{250}\)

Question 19:

Consider that \(\sigma_s, k_B, b\) represent Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien's displacement law constant, respectively. The dimension of \(\sigma_s k_B^{-1} b\) is :

  • (A) \([L^{-1} T^{-1} K^{-3}]\)
  • (B) \([L^{-1} T^{-1} K^{-4}]\)
  • (C) \([L^{-1} T^{-1} K^{-2}]\)
  • (D) \([L^{-1} K^{-2}]\)

Question 20:

Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents \(I\) and \(2I\), respectively, in the same direction. The wire A has uniform mass per unit length \(\lambda\) and lies on an insulated floor. The wire B is fixed at a height \(h\) above the floor. The minimum magnitude of \(h\) so that the wire A does not rise from the floor is : [\(g\) is the acceleration due to gravity and \(\mu_0\) is the permeability of free space.]

  • (A) \(\frac{2 \mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4 \mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{2\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)

Question 21:

Which of the following measurements require 'index correction' ?

  • (A) Measurement of focal length of lenses using optical bench
  • (B) Measurement of speed of sound using resonance tube
  • (C) Measurement of resistance of a wire using meter bridge
  • (D) Measurement of gravitational acceleration using simple pendulum

Question 22:

Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations P and Q, where a time varying current \(I(t)\) is flowing, as shown in the figure. The induced emf between points \(a\) and \(b\) for configuration P is \(E_P\) and that for configuration Q is \(E_Q\). The ratio \(E_P/E_Q\) is : [Neglect the effect of mutual inductance.]



  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1/4\)
  • (D) \(1/2\)

Question 23:

Three identical p-n junction diodes \(D_1, D_2\) and \(D_3\) are connected across a battery as shown in the figure. If the width of the depletion regions of \(D_1, D_2\) and \(D_3\) are \(W_1, W_2\) and \(W_3\), respectively, then the correct option is :



  • (A) \(W_3 > W_2 > W_1\)
  • (B) \(W_2 > W_1 = W_3\)
  • (C) \(W_1 > W_2 > W_3\)
  • (D) \(W_3 = W_1 > W_2\)

Question 24:

Three identical capacitors P, Q and S, each of the capacitance C, are connected to a battery of voltage V as shown in the figure. If the energy stored in the capacitor P and total energy stored in the system are \(U_P\) and \(U_T\), respectively, then the ratio \(U_P/U_T\) is :



  • (A) \(1/2\)
  • (B) \(1/6\)
  • (C) \(2/3\)
  • (D) \(1/3\)

Question 25:

A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre O. Its angular momentum is \(L_A\) and \(L_B\) computed about points A and B, respectively, with \(OB = 2 \times OA\). The value of \(L_A/L_B\) is :



  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1/4\)
  • (D) \(1/2\)

Question 26:

An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of \(-3\) V is reverse biased with a negative input voltage \(V_i = -5\) V. The magnitude of voltage difference between points \(B\) and \(A\) is :



  • (A) \(1 V\)
  • (B) \(0 V\)
  • (C) \(3 V\)
  • (D) \(2 V\)

Question 27:

Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure. The pressure difference of water between \(P\) and \(Q\) is \(15 Nm^{-2}\). The area of cross-section at \(P\) and \(Q\) are \(40 cm^2\) and \(20 cm^2\), respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in \(cm^3s^{-1}\), is : [Take density of water \(= 1000 kg m^{-3}\)]



  • (A) \(300\)
  • (B) \(400\)
  • (C) \(100\)
  • (D) \(200\)

Question 28:

A particle of mass \(M\) moves along a horizontal \(x\) axis from \(x = 0\) to \(x = L\). The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as a function of \(x\) as \(\mu_k(x) = \mu_0 - \alpha x\), where \(\mu_0, \alpha\) are constants, so that \(\mu_k(L) = 0\). The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is \(n \mu_0 Mg L\). The value of \(n\) is :

  • (A) \(1/3\)
  • (B) \(1/2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 29:

A ray of light with wavelength \(\lambda\) is incident on three different photo-electric cells namely 1, 2 and 3. The threshold wavelength of these cells are \(\lambda_1, \lambda_2\) and \(\lambda_3\), respectively and the stopping potentials are \(V_1, V_2\) and \(V_3\). The relation between \(\lambda\) and threshold wavelengths are \(\lambda_1 < \lambda, \lambda_2 > \lambda\) and \(\lambda_3 \gg \lambda\). The correct option is :

  • (A) \(V_1 > V_2, V_3 = 0\)
  • (B) \(V_1 < V_2, V_3 = 0\)
  • (C) \(V_1 = 0, V_2 < V_3\)
  • (D) \(V_1 = 0, V_2 > V_3\)

Question 30:

Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen atom with velocity \(\sqrt{25.6} \times 10^5 ms^{-1}\). The radius of the orbit is \(x \times 10^{-9} m\). The value of \(x\) is : [Take \(m_e = 9 \times 10^{-31} kg, e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C, k = 9 \times 10^9 N m^2C^{-2}\)]

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 31:

A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius \(50 m\), which is banked at an angle \(\theta\). If the car travels at a speed \(10 ms^{-1}\), then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking \(g = 10 ms^{-2}\), the value of \(\theta\) is :

  • (A) \(\tan^{-1}(\sqrt{3}/2)\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}(2\sqrt{3})\)
  • (C) \(\tan^{-1}(1/5)\)
  • (D) \(\tan^{-1}(2/5)\)

Question 32:

One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure. The total heat supplied to the gas is :



  • (A) \(600 J\)
  • (B) \(800 J\)
  • (C) \(400 J\)
  • (D) \(500 J\)

Question 33:

A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane. Two point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point \(A (\theta = \pi/2)\) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point \(B (\theta = -\pi/2)\). During this time, which of the following figures schematically represent the magnitude of the total linear momentum \(P\) of the system, as a function of \(\theta\) ?



  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 34:

The lens combination consists of two lenses, \(L_1\) and \(L_2\), of the focal lengths \(+10 cm\) and \(-10 cm\), respectively. The position of the image formed is :



  • (A) \(30 cm\) to the right of the concave lens
  • (B) \(60 cm\) to the right of the concave lens
  • (C) \(20 cm\) to the left of the concave lens
  • (D) \(60 cm\) to the left of the concave lens

Question 35:

Two planets \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) with equal mass have radii \(R_1\) and \(R_2\), where \(R_2 = R_1 / 2\). The escape speeds of \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) are \(v_1\) and \(v_2\), respectively. Then \(v_2 / v_1\) is :

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1/\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 36:

An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a lossless dielectric constant, \(\epsilon_r = 9\), has the electric field, \(E_x = E_0 \sin (kz - 2\pi \times 10^6 t) Vm^{-1}\), where \(E_0\) is the amplitude and \(k\) is the wave vector. Among the following options, the incorrect choice is :

  • (A) \(The magnetic field is given by the relation B_y = \frac{B_0}{v} \sin (kz - 2\pi \times 10^6 t)\)
  • (B) \(The direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is along +z\)
  • (C) \(The speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is 10^8 ms^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is 300 m\)

Question 37:

Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by \(s(t) = \alpha t^2 - \beta t + \gamma\), where \(\alpha = 1 ms^{-2}, \beta = 6 ms^{-1}\) and \(\gamma = 5 m\). The average speed of the particle, in \(ms^{-1}\), from \(t = 0 s\) to \(t = 6 s\) is :

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(12\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 38:

In Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered \(\alpha\)-particles \(N(\theta)\) is plotted as a function of scattering angle \(\theta\). Which of the following options represents the correct plot ?



  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 39:

For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the \(5^{th}\) harmonic of an open-ended pipe is \(n\) and that for the \(9^{th}\) harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is \(m\), the ratio \(\frac{n}{m}\) is :

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(3/5\)
  • (C) \(5/9\)
  • (D) \(9/5\)

Question 40:

Consider a long solenoid of length \(l\) and radius \(R\). If \(n\) is the number of turns per unit length and \(\mu_0\) is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is :

  • (A) \((\mu_0/2\pi)n^2r^2l\)
  • (B) \(2\mu_0 \pi n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (C) \(\mu_0 \pi n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (D) \(\mu_0 n^2 r^2 l\)

Question 41:

A current \(I_0\) flows through a metallic circular loop of radius \(r\) as shown in the figure. Resistance of the segment ABC is half that of ADC. Magnitude of magnetic field at the center O of the loop is :



  • (A) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{2r}\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{12r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{4r}\)

Question 42:

The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius R is increased by a small amount \(\Delta T\). If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is \(\alpha\), the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is :

  • (A) \(4\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T\)
  • (B) \(6\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T\)
  • (C) \(2\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T\)
  • (D) \(3\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T\)

Question 43:

One main scale division of a Vernier calliper is equal to 1 mm and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale is 10. When both the jaws touch each other, the Vernier scale shifts to the left of zero of the main scale in such a way that \(4^{th}\) Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale. If this Vernier calliper measures the length of a wire to be 1 cm, the actual length of the wire is :

  • (A) \(1.00 cm\)
  • (B) \(1.04 cm\)
  • (C) \(0.60 cm\)
  • (D) \(0.96 cm\)

Question 44:

Consider three media P, Q and R with refractive indices 1, 1.25, and 1.5, respectively. The medium Q having a thickness of 5 cm is placed between extended media P and R as shown in the figure. An object O is placed at the center of medium Q. If viewed from medium P near the normal direction, the apparent depth of O is \(h_1\). For similar observation from medium R, the apparent depth is \(h_2\). The value of \(|h_1 - h_2|\), in cm, is :



  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 45:

A point charge Q is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points A, B and C as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are \(E_A, E_B\) and \(E_C\), respectively. The points B and C are at the same distance from the center of the solid sphere. The correct option is :



  • (A) \(E_A = 0, E_B > E_C\)
  • (B) \(E_A \neq 0, E_B < E_C\)
  • (C) \(E_A = 0, E_B = E_C\)
  • (D) \(E_A \neq 0, E_B = E_C\)

Question 46:

The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is (Given: Atomic numbers of \(Ce = 58\), \(Nd = 60\), \(Tb = 65\) and \(Ho = 67\)):

  • (A) \(Tb^{3+}\)
  • (B) \(Ho^{3+}\)
  • (C) \(Nd^{3+}\)
  • (D) \(Ce^{3+}\)

Question 47:

The standard electrode potential (\(E^\circ\)) for the half-cell reaction \(Fe^{3+} + e^- \rightarrow Fe^{2+}\) at \(298 K\) is (Given: \(E^\circ(Fe^{3+}/Fe) = -0.04 V\) and \(E^\circ(Fe^{2+}/Fe) = -0.44 V\) at \(298 K\)):

  • (A) \(-0.48 V\)
  • (B) \(+0.92 V\)
  • (C) \(+0.40 V\)
  • (D) \(+0.76 V\)

Question 48:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Heating \(NaCl\) with concentrated \(H_2SO_4\) and \(MnO_2\) results in oxidation of \(Mn\).

Statement-II: Heating \(NaI\) with concentrated \(H_2SO_4\) and \(MnO_2\) results in reduction of \(Mn\).

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
  • (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

Question 49:

The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is (Given: \(py = pyridine\) and \(en = H_2N-CH_2-CH_2-NH_2\)):

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)_2]^{3+}\)
  • (B) \([Ni(en)_2(H_2O)_2]^{2+}\)
  • (C) \([Cr(py)_3(Cl)_3]\)
  • (D) \([Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\)

Question 50:

Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is:

  • (A) hepta-1,5-diene
  • (B) hepta-1,6-diene
  • (C) hepta-1,3-diene
  • (D) hepta-1,4-diene

Question 51:

Match the species in List I with their geometry in List II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 52:

The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is:

  • (A) methionine
  • (B) serine
  • (C) leucine
  • (D) threonine

Question 53:

A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state \(N\) to denatured state \(D\) according to \(N \rightleftharpoons D\). At \(60 \,\, °C\), the concentrations of both \(N\) and \(D\) are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is \(666 kJ mol^{-1}\). The standard entropy change (\(\Delta S^\circ\) in \(kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)) of the protein upon denaturation at \(60 \,\, °C\) is closest to:

  • (A) \(333.0\)
  • (B) \(11.1\)
  • (C) \(2.0\)
  • (D) \(2000.0\)

Question 54:

\(2A \xrightarrow{k} B\) is a zero-order reaction, where \(k = 1.0 mol L^{-1}min^{-1}\). If the initial concentration of \(A\) is \(2 M\), then the time taken to complete \(75%\) of the reaction will be:

  • (A) \(1.0 min\)
  • (B) \(2.0 min\)
  • (C) \(1.5 min\)
  • (D) \(0.75 min\)

Question 55:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: \([Fe(ox)_3]^{3-}\) is chiral.

Statement-II: \textit{trans-\([Cr(H_2O)_2(ox)_2]^-\) is chiral.

(Given: \(oxH_2 = HOOC-COOH\))

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
  • (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

Question 56:

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Generally, \(3d\) transition metals have high melting points.

Reason R : Involvement of \(3d\)-electrons in addition to \(4s\)-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct.
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct.
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Question 57:

Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for (Given : Atomic number of \(Ti = 22\), \(Mn = 25\), \(Fe = 26\) and \(Co = 27\)):

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (B) \([Ti(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (C) \([Mn(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (D) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}\)

Question 58:

According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is:

  • (A) \(Cl^- > H_2O > NH_3 > CO\)
  • (B) \(Cl^- > NH_3 > H_2O > CO\)
  • (C) \(CO > NH_3 > H_2O > Cl^-\)
  • (D) \(CO > H_2O > NH_3 > Cl^-\)

Question 59:

In potash alum, the ratio of \(K^+\) and \(SO_4^{2-}\) ions is:

  • (A) 2:3
  • (B) 3:2
  • (C) 1:2
  • (D) 2:1

Question 60:

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F.

Reason R : The loss of an electron from O leads to stable half-filled p orbital.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct.
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct.
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Question 61:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Oxidation of \(p\)-nitrotoluene with acidic \(KMnO_4\) gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid.

Statement-II: Reduction of \(p\)-nitrotoluene with \(Sn/HCl\) followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
  • (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

Question 62:

The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty \(p\) orbital with:

  • (A) empty \(\sigma^*\) and filled \(\pi\) orbitals
  • (B) empty \(\sigma^*\) and empty \(\pi^*\) orbitals
  • (C) filled \(\sigma\) and filled \(\pi\) orbitals
  • (D) empty \(\sigma\) and empty \(\pi^*\) orbitals

Question 63:

Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction (\(\psi_r\)) against distance (\(r\)) from the nucleus.



The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is:

  • (A) C
  • (B) D
  • (C) A
  • (D) B

Question 64:

The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at \(298 K\) is:

  • (A) \(Hg_2Cl_2 > AgBr > Zn(OH)_2\)
  • (B) \(Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr > Hg_2Cl_2\)
  • (C) \(Hg_2Cl_2 > Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr\)
  • (D) \(AgBr > Zn(OH)_2 > Hg_2Cl_2\)

Question 65:

A 1:3 electrolyte in an aqueous solution is:

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3\)
  • (B) \([Co(NH_3)_3(NO_2)_3]\)
  • (C) \([CoCl_2(NH_3)_4]Cl\)
  • (D) \([CoCl(NH_3)_5]Cl_2\)

Question 66:

The correct statement about peptides and proteins is

  • (A) In \(\beta\)-pleated sheet structures, peptide chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (B) In \(\alpha\)-helices, the polypeptide chain is twisted into a left-handed screw (helix) through intramolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (C) Tertiary structure of proteins has two or more polypeptide subunits.
  • (D) Only the proteins having a quaternary structure are biologically active.

Question 67:

One of the products formed in the following reaction is









  • (A) figA
  • (B) figB
  • (C) figC
  • (D) figD

Question 68:

In an acidic medium, \( 10 mL \) of \( 0.25 M \) oxalic acid is titrated with \(KMnO_4\) solution. If the volume of \(KMnO_4\) solution required to reach end point is \( 10 mL \), the strength of the \(KMnO_4\) solution is

  • (A) \(0.25 M\)
  • (B) \(0.15 M\)
  • (C) \(0.10 M\)
  • (D) \(0.20 M\)

Question 69:

Consider the following reaction sequences and choose the correct option.

  • (A) M and N are geometrical isomers
  • (B) M and N are stereoisomers
  • (C) K and L are geometrical isomers
  • (D) K and L are enantiomers

Question 70:

Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity \[ A. CH_3CH_2OCH_2CH_3 \qquad B. CH_3CH_2OH \qquad C. CH_3COCH_3 \qquad D. CH_3COOH \]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (A) \(C < A < B < D\)
  • (B) \(A < C < B < D\)
  • (C) \(A < B < C < D\)
  • (D) \(C < A < D < B\)

Question 71:

Consider the reversible processes for \(1.0 mol\) of an ideal gas as shown in the figure.
Processes 2 and 4 are adiabatic. \(w_1\), \(w_2\), \(w_3\) and \(w_4\) represent work done (in calories) in the processes 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively; \(\Delta U_2\) and \(\Delta U_4\) are changes in the internal energy for the processes 2 and 4, respectively. [use \(R = 2 cal K^{-1} mol^{-1}\)] The correct option is

  • (A) \(w_1 + w_2 = 2T_1\ln \frac{V_2}{V_1}\)
  • (B) \(w_1 + w_2 + w_3 + w_4 = 0\)
  • (C) \(w_1 + w_3 = -2T_1\ln \frac{V_2}{V_1} - 2T_2\ln \frac{V_4}{V_3}\)
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. *(Note: Option 4 text matches the standard four-choice structure of this specific multi-process question option panel as verified)*

Question 72:

The green paramagnetic species formed by heating \(KMnO_4\) at \(513 K\) is

  • (A) \(MnO\)
  • (B) \(KO_2\)
  • (C) \(K_2MnO_4\)
  • (D) \(Mn_3O_4\)

Question 73:

The numbers \(17.0145\) and \(21.0235\) were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are

  • (A) \(17.014 and 21.024\)
  • (B) \(17.015 and 21.024\)
  • (C) \(17.014 and 21.023\)
  • (D) \(17.015 and 21.023\)

Question 74:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with \(Br_2\) in \(CCl_4\) gives the following product



Statement II : cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline \(KMnO_4\) gives the following product



In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 75:

Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option:

  • (A) On treatment with bromine water, compound P gives a white precipitate.
  • (B) Compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with \(Pd\) on \(BaSO_4\).
  • (C) On treating compound P with saturated \(NaHCO_3\) solution, brisk effervescence is observed.
  • (D) Compound P can be prepared by treating benzene with anhydrous \(AlCl_3\) and \(CH_3COCl\).

Question 76:

Match the vitamins in List-I with their sources in List-II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 77:

The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of \(116 g\) of \(n\)-butane is

(Given: atomic mass in amu \(H = 1\), \(C = 12\) and \(O = 16\)):

  • (A) \(176 g\)
  • (B) \(362 g\)
  • (C) \(352 g\)
  • (D) \(322 g\)

Question 78:

The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown below, is:








  • (A) figA
  • (B) figB
  • (C) figC
  • (D) figD

Question 79:

The correct statement is:

  • (A) Magnesium has a maximum covalency of four.
  • (B) Aluminium has five valence orbitals.
  • (C) Boron has a maximum covalency of four.
  • (D) Beryllium has three valence orbitals.

Question 80:

The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is:

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl\)
  • (B) \([Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl_2\)
  • (C) \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2] \times H_2O\)
  • (D) \([Co(NH_3)_4]Cl_3 \times H_2O\)

Question 81:

Assertion A: For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, \(\Delta_{mix} H = 0\) and \(\Delta_{mix} V = 0\).

Reason R: No interactions occur between P and Q.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Question 82:

Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product:









Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and C only
  • (B) C and D only
  • (C) A and B only
  • (D) B and D only

Question 83:

The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is:

  • (A) \(PbO_2 > N_2O_3 > SO_3\)
  • (B) \(P_4O_6 > Cl_2O_7 > AlH_3\)
  • (C) \(P_4O_{10} > SO_3 > H_2O\)
  • (D) \(N_2O_5 > Al_2O_3 > H_2S\)

Question 84:

For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option:

  • (A) If P gives a carboxylic acid on acidification, Q gives a poisonous gas on exposure to air and light.
  • (B) Both P and Q are carbonyl compounds.
  • (C) If P is the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid, Q is a primary alcohol.
  • (D) P and Q are aromatic compounds.

Question 85:

Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from \(10 L\) to \(100 L\) at \(300 K\). The values of \(\Delta S_{system}\) and \(\Delta S_{surroundings}\) are (\(R\) is universal gas constant):

  • (A) \(\Delta S_{system} = 0\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 4.606\ R\)
  • (B) \(\Delta S_{system} = 4.606\ R\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 0\)
  • (C) \(\Delta S_{system} = 0\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 0\)
  • (D) \(\Delta S_{system} = 4.606\ R\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = -4.606\ R\)

Question 86:

For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below.



If the energy of activation is \(6.64 kJ mol^{-1}\) and \(R = 8.3 J K^{-1} mol^{-1}\), the temperature at which the rate constant becomes \(e^2 min^{-1}\), is:

  • (A) \(200 K\)
  • (B) \(250 K\)
  • (C) \(125 K\)
  • (D) \(150 K\)

Question 87:

Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids:

[A.] An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult's law throughout the composition range.
[B.] Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.
[C.] Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A and B only
  • (D) B and C only

Question 88:

The highest occupied molecular orbital for \(Ne_2\) is:

  • (A) \(\pi^*_{2p}\)
  • (B) \(\sigma^*_{2p}\)
  • (C) \(\pi_{2p}\)
  • (D) \(\sigma_{2p}\)

Question 89:

For a salt \(XY\), which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of \(\Lambda_m\) versus \(\sqrt{c}\) has a slope of \(-90.0 S cm^2 mol^{-3/2} L^{1/2}\) at \(298 K\). At \(0.01 M\) concentration of \(XY\), the value of \(\Lambda_m\) is \(145.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1}\). The limiting molar conductivity of \(Y^-\) ion (\(\lambda_{Y^-}^0\), in \(S cm^2 mol^{-1}\)) at \(298 K\) will be

(Given : \(\lambda_{X^+}^0 = 74.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1}\)):

  • (A) \(90.0\)
  • (B) \(76.0\)
  • (C) \(80.0\)
  • (D) \(100.0\)

Question 90:

Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is:

  • (A) \(Cl > F > Br > I\)
  • (B) \(I > Br > Cl > F\)
  • (C) \(F > Cl > Br > I\)
  • (D) \(Br > Cl > F > I\)

Question 91:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I.

Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Question 92:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?

  • (A) Absence of gills
  • (B) Presence of post anal part (tail)
  • (C) Presence of notochord
  • (D) Central nervous system is dorsal

Question 93:

Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of __________.

  • (A) fruits
  • (B) sepals
  • (C) leaves
  • (D) flowers

Question 94:

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis
  • (B) \(\beta\)-cells of pancreas secrete insulin
  • (C) \(\alpha\)-cells of pancreas secrete glucagon
  • (D) \(\alpha\)-cells of pancreas secrete insulin

Question 95:

The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as __________.

  • (A) aleuroplast
  • (B) amyloplast
  • (C) chloroplast
  • (D) chromoplast

Question 96:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-II, C-I
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-II
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-I
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-III

Question 97:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia.

Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 98:

In water, frogs respire using __________.

  • (A) lungs
  • (B) trachea
  • (C) skin
  • (D) buccal cavity

Question 99:

Mad cow disease is caused by __________.

  • (A) Aspergillus sp.
  • (B) Mycoplasma sp.
  • (C) prions
  • (D) viroids

Question 100:

Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct?

(a) Do not occur in C3 plants

(b) \(CO_2\) is consumed and \(O_2\) is generated

(c) Phosphoglycolate is formed

(d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (b) and (d) only
  • (B) (a) and (b) only
  • (C) (a) and (d) only
  • (D) (c) and (d) only

Question 101:

Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.

  • (A) Release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b \(\rightarrow\) role of air
  • (B) Production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) role of air \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b
  • (C) Absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) role of air
  • (D) Role of air \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b

Question 102:

How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 3

Question 103:

Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses __________.

  • (A) mucus
  • (B) aqueous humor
  • (C) matrix
  • (D) cytosol

Question 104:

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) Fibrin is produced from fibrinogen
  • (B) Fibrinogen is produced from fibrin
  • (C) Blood coagulates in response to an injury
  • (D) Blood clot consists of fibrins

Question 105:

Sphenopsida class belongs to __________.

  • (A) gymnosperms
  • (B) pteridophytes
  • (C) bryophytes
  • (D) angiosperms

Question 106:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 107:

Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells?

(a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits

(b) They can have plasmids

(c) They contain mesosome

(d) They have peroxisomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (B) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (b) and (c) only
  • (D) (a) and (c) only

Question 108:

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum __________.

  • (A) is actively involved in protein synthesis
  • (B) is a site for the synthesis of carbohydrates
  • (C) has ribosomes attached to its surface
  • (D) is the major site for the synthesis of lipids

Question 109:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.

Statement II: All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 110:

In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are __________.

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 9

Question 111:

Cell theory was formulated by __________.

  • (A) Singer and Nicolson
  • (B) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek
  • (C) Schleiden and Schwann
  • (D) Robert Brown

Question 112:

Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct?

(a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis

(b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone

(c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone

(d) It does not secrete prolactin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (c) and (d) only
  • (B) (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (a) and (b) only
  • (D) (a), (b) and (c) only

Question 113:

Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

  • (A) Mycoplasma
  • (B) Fungi
  • (C) Bacteria
  • (D) Blue green algae

Question 114:

Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?

  • (A) 230 cm
  • (B) 460 cm
  • (C) 50 cm
  • (D) 170 cm

Question 115:

Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system?

  • (A) Pia mater
  • (B) Pericardium
  • (C) Arachnoid
  • (D) Dura mater

Question 116:

Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage?

  • (A) Indole butyric acid
  • (B) Ethephon
  • (C) Abscisic acid
  • (D) Gibberellin

Question 117:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 118:

Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide?

  • (A) Abscisic acid
  • (B) Gibberellin
  • (C) 2,4-D
  • (D) Kinetin

Question 119:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.

Statement II: In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 120:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 121:

The number of vertebrae in a human is __________.

  • (A) 26
  • (B) 206
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 12

Question 122:

Which pigment has absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700)?

  • (A) Xanthophylls
  • (B) Carotenoids
  • (C) Chlorophyll b
  • (D) Chlorophyll a

Question 123:

Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order.

(a) Genus

(b) Class

(c) Order

(d) Phylum

(e) Family

(f) Kingdom

(g) Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (g), (c), (d), (b), (e), (a), (f)
  • (B) (f), (c), (b), (g), (d), (e), (a)
  • (C) (g), (a), (e), (c), (b), (d), (f)
  • (D) (a), (c), (d), (g), (f), (b), (e)

Question 124:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-I, E-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-I
  • (C) A-I, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-III
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-V

Question 125:

Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to percentage weight of the human body.

(a) Oxygen

(b) Carbon

(c) Hydrogen

(d) Nitrogen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (b), (c), (d), (a)
  • (B) (b), (a), (c), (d)
  • (C) (a), (b), (d), (c)
  • (D) (c), (a), (b), (d)

Question 126:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 127:

The number of action potentials generated by sino-arterial node (SAN) in a healthy human is __________ per minute.

  • (A) 100 - 110
  • (B) 120 - 140
  • (C) 28 - 30
  • (D) 70 - 75

Question 128:

Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called __________.

  • (A) mycorrhiza
  • (B) chrysophytes
  • (C) lichens
  • (D) sponges

Question 129:

How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?

  • (A) 103
  • (B) 412
  • (C) 206
  • (D) 309

Question 130:

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?

  • (A) Femur-patella-tibia-tarsal
  • (B) Femur-tarsal-patella-tibia
  • (C) Femur-tibia-patella-tarsal
  • (D) Patella-femur-tibia-tarsal

Question 131:

Genus represents __________.

  • (A) a group of closely related species
  • (B) a group of closely related families
  • (C) an individual plant or animal
  • (D) a population of plants and animals

Question 132:

The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is __________.

  • (A) G1-S-G2-M
  • (B) S-M-G2-G1
  • (C) G1-G2-S-M
  • (D) G1-M-G2-S

Question 133:

Endomembrane system includes __________.

  • (A) mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
  • (B) Golgi complex, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
  • (C) endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuole
  • (D) endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole

Question 134:

Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBisCo is shown below:
\(RuBP + O_2 \rightarrow 3-Phosphoglycerate + X\)

Identify "X" from the given options:

  • (A) Oxaloacetate
  • (B) Malate
  • (C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
  • (D) 2-Phosphoglycolate

Question 135:

Which of the following are characteristic features of Solanaceae family?

(a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic

(b) Calyx have five sepals and are united

(c) Androecium have five stamens and are epipetalous

(d) Ovary is inferior

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (a) and (b) only
  • (B) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (C) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (D) (d) only

Question 136:

Sperm motility is due to __________.

  • (A) amoeboid movement
  • (B) muscular movement
  • (C) flagellar movement
  • (D) ciliary movement

Question 137:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced.

Reason R : Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 138:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 139:

Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system ?

  • (A) Vasa efferentia
  • (B) Infundibulum
  • (C) Rete testis
  • (D) Epididymis

Question 140:

Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds ?

  • (A) Barley
  • (B) Pea
  • (C) Wheat
  • (D) Maize

Question 141:

Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct ?

  • (A) Genes i, z, y and a share single common promoter
  • (B) Galactose can act as an inducer of lac operon
  • (C) Gene i is constitutively expressed
  • (D) Lactose activates repressor to bind to the operator

Question 142:

Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients ?

  • (A) Morphine
  • (B) Anti-retroviral drugs
  • (C) Interferon
  • (D) Antibiotics

Question 143:

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebrate column from the head to toe ?

  • (A) Cervical vertebra, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum
  • (B) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, lumbar vertebra, sacrum
  • (C) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum, lumbar vertebra
  • (D) Sacrum, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, cervical vertebra

Question 144:

Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of

  • (A) cyclic guanine monophosphate
  • (B) cyclic adenine monophosphate
  • (C) acetyl choline
  • (D) acetyl coenzyme A

Question 145:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous.

Reason R : Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is true but R is false
  • (B) A is false but R is true
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 146:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes.

Statement II : Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 147:

Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle's loop are correct ?

(a) The descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.

(b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle's loop.

(c) Reabsorption of \(Na^+\) and water takes place in Henle's loop.

(d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle's loop.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (B) (a), (b) and (d) only
  • (C) (a) and (b) only
  • (D) (b), (c) and (d) only

Question 148:

If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm ?

  • (A) 54
  • (B) 72
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 36

Question 149:

Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest.

(a) Plants

(b) Birds

(c) Fishes

(d) Invertebrates

(e) Mammals



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (e) \(>\) (b) \(>\) (a) \(>\) (c) \(>\) (d)
  • (B) (b) \(>\) (a) \(>\) (d) \(>\) (c) \(>\) (e)
  • (C) (c) \(>\) (b) \(>\) (d) \(>\) (e) \(>\) (a)
  • (D) (d) \(>\) (a) \(>\) (c) \(>\) (b) \(>\) (e)

Question 150:

A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is

  • (A) 0.10
  • (B) 0.99
  • (C) 0.01
  • (D) 0.02

Question 151:

The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by

  • (A) semilunar valve
  • (B) sino-atrial node
  • (C) bicuspid valve
  • (D) tricuspid valve

Question 152:

Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA ?

  • (A) RNA polymerase III
  • (B) DNA polymerase
  • (C) RNA polymerase I
  • (D) RNA polymerase II

Question 153:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells.

Reason R : Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 154:

Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta ?

  • (A) Progesterone
  • (B) LH
  • (C) hCG
  • (D) Estrogen

Question 155:

Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in

  • (A) IgA
  • (B) IgD
  • (C) IgG
  • (D) IgM

Question 156:

Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is

  • (A) 10 million
  • (B) 100 million
  • (C) 1 million
  • (D) 5 million

Question 157:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA.

Statement II : Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 158:

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.

  • (A) annealing
  • (B) ligation
  • (C) denaturation
  • (D) extension

Question 159:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 160:

Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of ______.

  • (A) founder effect
  • (B) genetic drift
  • (C) divergent evolution
  • (D) convergent evolution

Question 161:

The covering of ovum at ovulation is

  • (A) zona pellucida
  • (B) chorion
  • (C) endometrium
  • (D) zona radiata

Question 162:

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional

(b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted

(c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a) and (c) only
  • (B) (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (D) (a) and (b) only

Question 163:

How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther ?

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 6

Question 164:

Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium ?

  • (A) Gametocytes develop in mosquito gut
  • (B) Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut
  • (C) Reproduces sexually in liver cells
  • (D) Reproduces sexually in RBCs

Question 165:

For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes ?

  • (A) Father : \(I^B i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)
  • (B) Father : \(I^A I^B\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (C) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)
  • (D) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)

Question 166:

Which of the following is used as a clot buster ?

  • (A) Cyclosporin A
  • (B) Statins
  • (C) Streptokinase
  • (D) Penicillin

Question 167:

Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted ?

  • (A) Gonorrhoea
  • (B) Genital warts
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) Tuberculosis

Question 168:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf.

Reason R : Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 169:

The method of directly of injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :

  • (A) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
  • (B) Embryo transfer (ET)
  • (C) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
  • (D) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)

Question 170:

The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut

  • (A) by proteases
  • (B) by nucleases
  • (C) due to alkaline pH
  • (D) due to acidic pH

Question 171:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model.

Reason R : Resources are finite.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 172:

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs ?

(a) Bone marrow

(b) Tonsils

(c) Spleen

(d) Thymus



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (b) and (d) only
  • (B) (a) and (d) only
  • (C) (a) and (b) only
  • (D) (b) and (c) only

Question 173:

Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs ?

  • (A) Central cells
  • (B) Polar nucleus
  • (C) Antipodals
  • (D) Synergids

Question 174:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles.

Statement II : Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 175:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents.

Statement II : Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 176:

Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain ?

  • (A) Herbivores
  • (B) Carnivores
  • (C) Parasites
  • (D) Predators

Question 177:

Which of the following is not evidence for evolution ?

  • (A) Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Haeckel
  • (B) Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs
  • (C) Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies
  • (D) Paleontological evidence from fossil records

Question 178:

Sponges exchange \(O_2\) with \(CO_2\) by

  • (A) tracheal tubes
  • (B) gills
  • (C) simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces
  • (D) moist cuticle

Question 179:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 180:

Natural selection can lead to __________

(a) stabilisation

(b) genetic drift

(c) directional change

(d) disruption



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (B) (a) and (c) only
  • (C) (a) only
  • (D) (a), (c) and (d) only

NEET Re-Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Exam Mode Offline (Pen-and-Paper, OMR Based)
Duration 3 Hours and 15 minutes (195 Minutes)
Total Questions 180 (All Compulsory)
Subjects Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany and Zoology)
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Total Marks 720
Marking Scheme
  • +4 (Correct)
  • −1 (Incorrect)
  • 0 (Unattempted)

NEET 2026 Subject-Wise Weightage

Subject Number of Questions Marks
Physics 45 180
Chemistry 45 180
Biology 90 360
Total 180 720

NEET 2026 Re-Exam Answer Key Live