The Re-NEET 2026 Question Paper Code 70 is available for download here. NTA conducted the NEET Re-Exam 2026 on 21 June in a single shift from 2 PM to 5:15 PM. The NEET Re-Test question paper consists of 180 questions for 720 marks to be attempted in 3 hours and 15 minutes.

Also Check: Re-NEET Answer Key 2026 Code 70

  • NEET Question Paper 2026 is divided into 3 sections- Physics (45 questions), Chemistry (45 questions), and Biology (90 questions).
  • Each correct answer carries 4 marks, and an incorrect answer has a negative marking of 1.

Candidates can download the NEET Re-Exam 2026 Question Paper Code 70 with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below. According to initial student reaction, NEET Re-Test Paper 2026 was of easy to moderate to level.

Re-NEET 2026 Question Paper with Solution PDF Code 70

NEET Re-Exam Code 70 Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:


A photon and an electron, each of \(10\,eV\) energy, move in free space.
The ratio of linear momentum of electron \(P_e\) to that of photon \(P_{ph}\), \[ \frac{P_e}{P_{ph}} \]
is :

  • (A) \(275\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{450}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{250}\)
  • (D) \(225\)

Question 2:


Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure.
The pressure difference of water between \(P\) and \(Q\) is \(15\,N m^{-2}\).
The area of cross-section at \(P\) and \(Q\) are \(40\,cm^2\) and \(20\,cm^2\), respectively.
The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in \(cm^3s^{-1}\), is:

  • (A) \(400\)
  • (B) \(100\)
  • (C) \(200\)
  • (D) \(300\)

Question 3:

A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre \(O\).
Its angular momentum is \(L_A\) and \(L_B\) computed about points \(A\) and \(B\), respectively, where \(OB=2\times OA\).

The value of \[ \frac{L_A}{L_B} \]
is:


  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(\frac14\)
  • (C) \(\frac12\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 4:


Consider a long solenoid of length \(l\) and radius \(r\).
If \(n\) is the number of turns per unit length and \(\mu_0\) is the permeability of free space,
the inductance of the solenoid is:

  • (A) \(2\mu_0\pi n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (B) \(\mu_0\pi n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (C) \(\mu_0 n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac{\mu_0}{2\pi}\right)n^2 r^2 l\)

Question 5:


The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius \(R\) is increased by a small amount \(\Delta T\).
If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is \(\alpha\), the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is:

  • (A) \(6\pi R^3\alpha\Delta T\)
  • (B) \(2\pi R^3\alpha\Delta T\)
  • (C) \(3\pi R^3\alpha\Delta T\)
  • (D) \(4\pi R^3\alpha\Delta T\)

Question 6:

Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors.
One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, \(+\alpha\), while the other one has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance, \(-\alpha\), as shown in the figure.
The current through these circuits are denoted by \(I_A\) and \(I_B\).

At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is \(R_0\).

As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is:




  • (A) Both \(I_A\) and \(I_B\) remain constant
  • (B) \(I_A\) remains constant while \(I_B\) increases
  • (C) \(I_A\) decreases while \(I_B\) increases
  • (D) \(I_A\) increases while \(I_B\) decreases

Question 7:

A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated.
If the power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time, then the variation of the photocurrent \(I\) and magnitude of the stopping potential \(|V|\) with time is best represented by :





  • (A) \(I=constant,\; |V|=constant\)
  • (B) \(I\) decreases linearly with time, \(|V|\) remains constant
  • (C) \(I\) decreases linearly with time, \(|V|\) also decreases linearly with time
  • (D) \(I=constant,\; |V|\) decreases linearly with time

Question 8:

In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used.
The variation of the terminal velocity (\(v\)) with the ratio of density of spherical ball (\(\sigma\)) to density of the liquid (\(\rho\)), is best represented by:




  • (A) Graph passing through the origin
  • (B) Straight line having positive slope and non-zero intercept
  • (C) Parabolic curve
  • (D) Hyperbolic curve

Question 9:

An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of \(3\,V\) is reverse biased with a negative input voltage \(V_1=-5\,V\).
The magnitude of voltage difference between points \(B\) and \(A\) is:



  • (A) \(0\,V\)
  • (B) \(3\,V\)
  • (C) \(2\,V\)
  • (D) \(1\,V\)

Question 10:

Two planets \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) with equal mass have radii \(R_1\) and \(R_2\), respectively, where
\[ R_2=\frac{R_1}{2} \]

The escape speeds of \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) are \(v_1\) and \(v_2\), respectively.
Then the value of
\[ \frac{v_2}{v_1} \]

is:

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 11:

An AC voltage \[ V=220\sin(2\times10^{3}t)\ Volt \]
is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in the circuit is:

Given: \[ L=10\,mH,\quad C=25\,μF,\quad R=100\,\Omega \]

  • (A) \(22.0\,A\)
  • (B) \(2.2\,A\)
  • (C) \(5.5\,A\)
  • (D) \(11.0\,A\)

Question 12:

Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations \(P\) and \(Q\), where a time varying current \(I(t)\) is flowing, as shown in the figure.

If the induced emf between points \(a\) and \(b\) for configuration \(P\) is \(E_P\) and that for configuration \(Q\) is \(E_Q\), then the ratio \[ \frac{E_P}{E_Q} \]
is:




  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 13:

Three identical capacitors \(P\), \(Q\) and \(S\), each of capacitance \(C\), are connected to a battery of voltage \(V\), as shown in the figure.
If the potential energy stored in the capacitor \(P\) and total energy stored in the system are \(U_P\) and \(U_T\), respectively, then the ratio \[ \frac{U_P}{U_T} \]
is:




  • (A) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 14:

A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the \(x-y\) plane.
There is a constant magnetic field in the \(y\)-direction.
The area of the loop varies with time \(t\) as \[ A=A_0(1+\sin t) \]
The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power dissipated in the loop as a function of time is:




  • (A) Increasing curve
  • (B) Repeated positive humps touching zero periodically
  • (C) V-shaped curve
  • (D) Constant power

Question 15:

In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas \((\gamma=\frac{5}{3})\) decreases from \(60\,K\) to \(50\,K\).
The work done by the gas in the process is:
(Take the universal gas constant as \(R=8.3\,J mol^{-1}K^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(166\,J\)
  • (B) \(41.5\,J\)
  • (C) \(83\,J\)
  • (D) \(124.5\,J\)

Question 16:

Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by \[ s(t)=\alpha t^2-\beta t+\gamma \]
where \(\alpha=1\,m s^{-2}\), \(\beta=6\,m s^{-1}\) and \(\gamma=5\,m\).
The average speed of the particle, in \(m s^{-1}\), from \(t=0\) to \(t=6\,s\) is:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(12\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 17:

The following table presents the part of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding major applications.
Match the following and choose the correct option.

Part of Spectrum Applications
P Microwave I For purifying water
Q UV rays II For warming food
R Gamma rays III For AM and FM communication systems
S Radio waves IV Cancer cells treatment
  • (A) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
  • (B) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
  • (C) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
  • (D) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III

Question 18:

An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules.
Each molecule has three translational, three rotational and \(f\) number of vibrational modes.
If the ratio of heat capacities \[ \frac{C_P}{C_V}=\frac{8}{7} \]
then the value of \(f\) is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 19:

A unit positive point charge is slowly moved through an infinitely thin tube inside a uniformly charged dielectric sphere of radius \(R\) and volume charge density \(\rho\).
The initial and final positions of the charge are \(B\) and \(A\), located at distances \(3R\) and \(2R\) respectively from the centre.
If the magnitude of work done on the charge is \[ \frac{\rho R^2}{n\varepsilon_0} \]
then find \(n\).



  • (A) 18
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 9

Question 20:

A current \(I_0\) flows through a metallic circular loop of radius \(r\) as shown.
The resistance of arc \(ABC\) is half that of arc \(ADC\).
Find the magnetic field at the centre \(O\).



  • (A) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{6r}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{2r}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{12r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{4r}\)

Question 21:

Bob \(B\) of mass \(m\) at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling by a massless string of length \(10\,m\), as shown in the figure.
Point mass \(A\) of mass \(m\) travelling horizontally with speed \(10\,m s^{-1}\) collides with the bob \(B\) elastically.
The bob \(B\) rises to a height \(h\) after the collision.
Taking acceleration due to gravity \(g=10\,m s^{-2}\) and neglecting the size of the bob, the value of \(h\) is:

  • (A) \(2.5\,m\)
  • (B) \(8\,m\)
  • (C) \(7\,m\)
  • (D) \(5\,m\)

Question 22:

An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a dielectric constant, \[ \varepsilon_r = 9, \]
has the electric field \[ E_x=E_0\sin(kz-2\pi\times10^6 t)\ V m^{-1} \]
where \(E_0\) is the amplitude and \(k\) is the wave vector.
Among the following options, the incorrect choice is:

  • (A) The direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is along \(+z\)
  • (B) The speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is \(10^8\,m s^{-1}\)
  • (C) The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is \(300\,m\)
  • (D) The magnetic field is given by \[ B_y=\frac{E_0}{v}\sin(kz-2\pi\times10^6t) \]

Question 23:

A particle of mass \(M\) moves along the horizontal \(x\)-axis from \(x=0\) to \(x=L\).
The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as \[ \mu_k(x)=\frac{\mu_0}{L}x \]
where \(\mu_0\) and \(L\) are constants.
If the total work done by friction during the motion is \[ -\frac{\mu_0 MgL}{n} \]
where \(g\) is the acceleration due to gravity, find \(n\).

  • (A) \(\frac12\)
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 1
  • (D) \(\frac13\)

Question 24:

Consider three media \(P\), \(Q\) and \(R\) with refractive indices \[ n_P=1,\qquad n_Q=1.25,\qquad n_R=1.5 \]
respectively.
Medium \(Q\) has a thickness of \(5\,cm\) and is placed between media \(P\) and \(R\) as shown.
An object \(O\) is placed at the centre of medium \(Q\).
If viewed from medium \(P\) near the normal direction, the apparent depth of \(O\) is \(h_1\).
For the same object viewed from medium \(R\), the apparent depth is \(h_2\).
Find \[ |h_1-h_2|. \]



  • (A) 3 cm
  • (B) 0 cm
  • (C) 1 cm
  • (D) 2 cm

Question 25:

Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius \(R\) and total charge \(+Q\).
A point charge \(-q\) (\(q \ll Q\)) with mass \(m\) is released from rest at a distance of \(3R\) from the centre of the charged sphere.
When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is:



  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 mR}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{3Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 mR}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{2Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 mR}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 mR}}\)

Question 26:

A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius \(50\,m\), which is banked at an angle \(\theta\).
If the car travels at a speed \(10\,m s^{-1}\), then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum.
Taking \(g=10\,m s^{-2}\), the value of \(\theta\) is:

  • (A) \(\tan^{-1}(2\sqrt3)\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac15\right)\)
  • (C) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac25\right)\)
  • (D) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt3}{2}\right)\)

Question 27:

A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on a horizontal plane.
Two point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point \(A\) \((\theta=\pi/2)\) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions and meet again at point \(B\).
During this time, which graph correctly represents the magnitude of total linear momentum \(P\) of the system as a function of time?




  • (A) Sine shaped graph
  • (B) Cosine shaped graph
  • (C) V-shaped graph
  • (D) Linear graph

Question 28:

Three identical p-n junction diodes \(D_1\), \(D_2\) and \(D_3\) are connected across a battery as shown in the figure.
If the widths of the depletion regions of \(D_1\), \(D_2\) and \(D_3\) are \(W_1\), \(W_2\) and \(W_3\), respectively, then the correct option is:




  • (A) \(W_2 > W_1 = W_3\)
  • (B) \(W_1 > W_2 > W_3\)
  • (C) \(W_3 = W_1 > W_2\)
  • (D) \(W_3 > W_2 > W_1\)

Question 29:

The lens combination as shown consists of two thin lenses \(L_1\) and \(L_2\) of focal lengths \(+10\ cm\) and \(-10\ cm\), respectively.
The object is placed \(30\ cm\) to the left of \(L_1\), and the distance between the two lenses is \(3\ cm\).
The position of the image formed is:



  • (A) 60 cm to the right of the concave lens
  • (B) 20 cm to the left of the concave lens
  • (C) 60 cm to the left of the concave lens
  • (D) 30 cm to the right of the concave lens

Question 30:

A solid sphere \(A\) of radius \(R\) and mass \(M\) is attached to a smaller solid sphere \(B\) of radius \(r\) (\(r < R\)) and mass \(m\). The centres lie on the same horizontal line.
The moments of inertia about the vertical axes passing through the centres of \(A\) and \(B\) are \(I_A\) and \(I_B\), respectively.
The value of \(I_A - I_B\) is:


  • (A) \((M-m)(R+r)^2\)
  • (B) \((M-m)(R-r)^2\)
  • (C) \((m-M)(R+r)^2\)
  • (D) \((m-M)(R-r)^2\)

Question 31:

Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen atom with velocity \[ \sqrt{25.6}\times10^5 \ ms^{-1}. \]
The radius of the orbit is \(x\times10^{-9}\) m. The value of \(x\) is :
[Take mass of electron \(=9\times10^{-31}\) kg, charge of electron \(=-1.6\times10^{-19}\) C and \[ \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}=9\times10^9 \ Nm^2C^{-2} \]

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 32:

The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B.
The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of gas B.
If number densities of the gases A and B are \(n_A\) and \(n_B\), respectively, then the correct option is:

  • (A) \(n_A=\dfrac{1}{2}n_B\)
  • (B) \(n_A=n_B\)
  • (C) \(n_A=2n_B\)
  • (D) \(n_A=\dfrac{1}{4}n_B\)

Question 33:

A cylindrical cork of uniform density \(\rho_1\) floats in a liquid of density \(\rho_1\).
If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period \(T\).
If the same cork floats in another liquid of density \(\rho_2\), then the similar oscillation has time period \(2T\).
The value of \(\dfrac{\rho_2}{\rho_1}\) is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{4}\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)

Question 34:


For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the 5th harmonic of an open-ended pipe is \(n\) and that for the 9th harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is \(m\), the ratio \(n/m\) is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{9}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{5}{9}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 35:

Consider the nuclear reaction \[ ^{238}\mathrm{U} \rightarrow ^{234}\mathrm{Th} + ^{4}\mathrm{He} \]
Take masses of \(^{238}\mathrm{U}\), \(^{234}\mathrm{Th}\),
and \(^{4}\mathrm{He}\)
as \[ 238.050\,u,\qquad 234.043\,u,\qquad 4.003\,u \]
respectively.
The \(Q\)-value for the reaction, in keV, is: \[ 1u = 931.5\ \mathrm{MeV}/c^2 \]

  • (A) 3740
  • (B) 3726
  • (C) 3730
  • (D) 3736

Question 36:


Which of the following measurements has the highest index of correction?

  • (A) Measurement of speed of sound using resonance tube
  • (B) Measurement of resistance of a wire using meter bridge
  • (C) Measurement of gravitational acceleration using simple pendulum
  • (D) Measurement of focal length of lenses using optical bench

Question 37:


In a solar system, the time period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius \(R\) is proportional to:

  • (A) \(R^3\)
  • (B) \(R^{1/2}\)
  • (C) \(R^{3/2}\)
  • (D) \(R^2\)

Question 38:

Consider that \(\sigma_s\), \(k_B\), and \(b\) represent Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant, and Wien's displacement law constant, respectively.
The dimension of \(\sigma_s k_B^{-1} b\) is:

  • (A) \([L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-4}]\)
  • (B) \([L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-2}]\)
  • (C) \([L^{-1}K^{-2}]\)
  • (D) \([L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-3}]\)

Question 39:

A ray of light with wavelength \(\lambda\) is incident on three different photoelectric cells.
The threshold wavelengths are \(\lambda_1\), \(\lambda_2\), and \(\lambda_3\), and the magnitudes of stopping potentials are \(V_1\), \(V_2\), and \(V_3\), respectively.
If \[ \lambda_1 \le \lambda, \qquad \lambda_2 > \lambda, \qquad \lambda_3 \gg \lambda \]
the correct option is:

  • (A) \(V_1 < V_2,\; V_3 = 0\)
  • (B) \(V_1 = 0,\; V_2 < V_3\)
  • (C) \(V_1 > 0,\; V_2 = 0,\; V_3 = 0\)
  • (D) \(V_1 > V_2,\; V_3 = 0\)

Question 40:

One main scale division (MSD) of a Vernier calliper is \(1\) mm and the Vernier scale has \(10\) divisions.
When the jaws touch, the Vernier scale shifts to the left and the \(4^{th}\) Vernier division coincides with a main scale division.
If the measured length is \(1\) cm, the actual length is:

  • (A) 1.04 cm
  • (B) 0.60 cm
  • (C) 0.96 cm
  • (D) 1.00 cm

Question 41:

A point charge \(Q\) is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points \(A\), \(B\), and \(C\) as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are \(E_A\), \(E_B\), and \(E_C\) respectively. The points \(B\) and \(C\) are at the same distance from the center of the solid sphere. The correct option is:



  • (A) \(E_A \neq 0,\; E_B < E_C\)
  • (B) \(E_A = 0,\; E_B = E_C\)
  • (C) \(E_A \neq 0,\; E_B = E_C\)
  • (D) \(E_A = 0,\; E_B > E_C\)

Question 42:


In the Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered \(\alpha\)-particles \(N(\theta)\) is plotted as a function of scattering angle \(\theta\). Which of the following options represents the correct plot?



  • (A) Graph (1)
  • (B) Graph (2)
  • (C) Graph (3)
  • (D) Graph (4)

Question 43:


One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure. The total heat supplied to the gas is:



  • (A) 800 J
  • (B) 400 J
  • (C) 500 J
  • (D) 600 J

Question 44:


Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires \(A\) and \(B\) carry currents \(I\) and \(2I\), respectively, in the same direction. Wire \(A\) lies on an insulated floor while wire \(B\) is fixed at a height \(h\) above the floor. The minimum value of \(h\) so that wire \(A\) does not rise from the floor is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{4\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\mu_0 I^2}{2\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)

Question 45:


Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is \(m\) kg and the spring constant is \(k\) N m\(^{-1}\). At a given instant, the extension of the spring is \(x\) metre and the speed of the particle is \(v\) m s\(^{-1}\). On the \(x-v\) plane, if the graph of \(v\) as a function of \(x\) is a circle, then the correct option is:

  • (A) \(k=\sqrt{m}\)
  • (B) \(k=\dfrac{1}{m}\)
  • (C) \(k=m\)
  • (D) \(k=m^2\)

Question 46:

Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option.

  • (A) Compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on \(BaSO_4\).
  • (B) On treating compound P with saturated \(NaHCO_3\) solution, brisk effervescence is observed.
  • (C) Compound P can be prepared by treating benzene with anhydrous \(AlCl_3\) and \(CH_3COCl\).
  • (D) On treatment with bromine water, compound P gives a white precipitate.

Question 47:

The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl_2\)
  • (B) \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2] \times H_2O\)
  • (C) \([Co(NH_3)_4]Cl_3 \times H_2O\)
  • (D) \([Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl\)

Question 48:

The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is

(Given : Atomic numbers of Ce = 58, Nd = 60, Tb = 65 and Ho = 67)

  • (A) \(Ho^{3+}\)
  • (B) \(Nd^{3+}\)
  • (C) \(Ce^{3+}\)
  • (D) \(Tb^{3+}\)

Question 49:

For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below.



If the energy of activation is \(6.64 kJ mol^{-1}\) and \(R = 8.3 J K^{-1} mol^{-1}\), the temperature at which the rate constant becomes \(e^2 min^{-1}\), is

  • (1) \(250 K\)
  • (2) \(125 K\)
  • (3) \(150 K\)
  • (4) \(200 K\)

Question 50:

The green paramagnetic species formed by heating \(KMnO_4\) at \(513 K\) is

  • (1) \(KO_2\)
  • (2) \(K_2MnO_4\)
  • (3) \(Mn_3O_4\)
  • (4) \(MnO\)

Question 51:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with \(Br_2\) in \(CCl_4\) gives the following product:





Statement II: cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline \(KMnO_4\) gives the following product:





In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 52:

One of the products formed in the following reaction is









  • (1) FigA
  • (2) FigB
  • (3) FigC
  • (4) FigD

Question 53:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Heating \(NaCl\) with concentrated \(H_2SO_4\) and \(MnO_2\) results in oxidation of \(Mn\).

Statement-II : Heating \(NaI\) with concentrated \(H_2SO_4\) and \(MnO_2\) results in reduction of \(Mn\).

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  • (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
  • (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Question 54:

Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is

  • (1) \(I > Br > Cl > F\)
  • (2) \(F > Cl > Br > I\)
  • (3) \(Br > Cl > F > I\)
  • (4) \(Cl > F > Br > I\)

Question 55:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : \([Fe(ox)_3]^{3-}\) is chiral.

Statement-II : trans-\([Cr(H_2O)_2(ox)_2]^-\) is chiral.

(Given : \(oxH_2 = HOOC-COOH\))

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  • (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
  • (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Question 56:

The correct statement about peptides and proteins is

  • (1) In \(\alpha\)-helices, the polypeptide chain is twisted into a left-handed screw (helix) through intramolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (2) Tertiary structure of proteins has two or more polypeptide subunits.
  • (3) Only the proteins having a quaternary structure are biologically active.
  • (4) In \(\beta\)-pleated sheet structures, peptide chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.

Question 57:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Oxidation of \(p\)-nitrotoluene with acidic \(KMnO_4\) gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid.

Statement-II : Reduction of \(p\)-nitrotoluene with \(Sn/HCl\) followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
  • (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
  • (4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Question 58:

Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product.







  • (1) FigA
  • (2) FigB
  • (3) FigC
  • (4) FigD

Question 59:

Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from \( 10 L \) to \( 100 L \) at \( 300 K \). The values of \( \Delta S_{system} \) and \( \Delta S_{surroundings} \) are (\(R\) is universal gas constant)

  • (1) \( \Delta S_{system} = 4.606 R; \, \Delta S_{surroundings} = 0 \)
  • (2) \( \Delta S_{system} = 0; \, \Delta S_{surroundings} = 0 \)
  • (3) \( \Delta S_{system} = 4.606 R; \, \Delta S_{surroundings} = -4.606 R \)
  • (4) \( \Delta S_{system} = 0; \, \Delta S_{surroundings} = 4.606 R \)

Question 60:

The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown below, is









  • (1) FigA
  • (2) FigB
  • (3) FigC
  • (4) FigD

Question 61:

The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is

(Given : \(py = pyridine\) and \(en = H_2N-CH_2-CH_2-NH_2\))

  • (1) \([Ni(en)_2(H_2O)_2]^{2+}\)
  • (2) \([Cr(py)_3(Cl)_3]\)
  • (3) \([Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (4) \([Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)_2]^{3+}\)

Question 62:

The numbers \(17.0145\) and \(21.0235\) were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are

  • (1) \(17.015\) and \(21.024\)
  • (2) \(17.014\) and \(21.023\)
  • (3) \(17.015\) and \(21.023\)
  • (4) \(17.014\) and \(21.024\)

Question 63:

The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of \(116 g\) of \(n\)-butane is

(Given: atomic mass in amu \(H = 1\), \(C = 12\) and \(O = 16\))

  • (1) \(362 g\)
  • (2) \(352 g\)
  • (3) \(322 g\)
  • (4) \(176 g\)

Question 64:

Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction (\(\psi_r\)) against distance (\(r\)) from the nucleus.



The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is

  • (1) D
  • (2) A
  • (3) B
  • (4) C

Question 65:

The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty \(p\) orbital with

  • (1) empty \(\sigma^*\) and empty \(\pi^*\) orbitals
  • (2) filled \(\sigma\) and filled \(\pi\) orbitals
  • (3) empty \(\sigma\) and empty \(\pi^*\) orbitals
  • (4) empty \(\sigma^*\) and filled \(\pi\) orbitals

Question 66:

A 1:3 electrolyte in an aqueous solution is

  • (1) \([ Co(NH_3)_3(NO_2)_3 ]\)
  • (2) \([ CoCl_2(NH_3)_4 ]Cl\)
  • (3) \([ CoCl(NH_3)_5 ]Cl_2\)
  • (4) \([ Co(NH_3)_6 ]Cl_3\)

Question 67:

The standard electrode potential (\(E^\circ\)) for the half-cell reaction \(Fe^{3+} + e^- \rightarrow Fe^{2+}\) at \(298 K\) is (Given: \(E^\circ(Fe^{3+}/Fe) = -0.04 V\) and \(E^\circ(Fe^{2+}/Fe) = -0.44 V\) at \(298 K\))

  • (1) \(+0.92 V\)
  • (2) \(+0.40 V\)
  • (3) \(+0.76 V\)
  • (4) \(-0.48 V\)

Question 68:

In potash alum, the ratio of \(K^+\) and \(SO_4^{2-}\) ions is

  • (1) \(3:2\)
  • (2) \(1:2\)
  • (3) \(2:1\)
  • (4) \(2:3\)

Question 69:

Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids.

[A.] An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult's law throughout the composition range.
[B.] Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.
[C.] Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.

Select the correct option:

  • (1) A and C only
  • (2) A and B only
  • (3) B and C only
  • (4) A only

Question 70:

For a salt \(XY\), which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of \(\Lambda_m\) versus \(\sqrt{c}\) has a slope of \(-90.0 S cm^2 mol^{-3/2} L^{1/2}\) at \(298 K\). At \(0.01 M\) concentration of \(XY\), the value of \(\Lambda_m\) is \(145.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1}\). The limiting molar conductivity of \(Y^-\) ion (\(\lambda^\circ_{Y^-}\), in \(S cm^2 mol^{-1}\)) at \(298 K\) will be (Given: \(\lambda^\circ_{X^+} = 74.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1}\))

  • (1) \(76.0\)
  • (2) \(80.0\)
  • (3) \(100.0\)
  • (4) \(90.0\)

Question 71:

Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity:
\[ A. CH_3CH_2OCH_2CH_3 \]
\[ B. CH_3CH_2OH \]
\[ C. CH_3COCH_3 \]
\[ D. CH_3COOH \]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \( A < C < B < D \)
  • (B) \( A < B < C < D \)
  • (C) \( C < A < D < B \)
  • (D) \( C < A < B < D \)

Question 72:

According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is

  • (A) \( Cl^- > NH_3 > H_2O > CO \)
  • (B) \( CO > NH_3 > H_2O > Cl^- \)
  • (C) \( CO > H_2O > NH_3 > Cl^- \)
  • (D) \( Cl^- > H_2O > NH_3 > CO \)

Question 73:

The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is

  • (A) serine
  • (B) leucine
  • (C) threonine
  • (D) methionine

Question 74:

In an acidic medium, 10 mL of 0.25 M oxalic acid is titrated with \(KMnO_4\) solution. If the volume of \(KMnO_4\) solution required to reach the end point is 10 mL, the strength of the \(KMnO_4\) solution is

  • (A) \(0.15\,M\)
  • (B) \(0.10\,M\)
  • (C) \(0.20\,M\)
  • (D) \(0.25\,M\)

Question 75:

The correct statement is

  • (A) Aluminium has five valence orbitals.
  • (B) Boron has a maximum covalency of four.
  • (C) Beryllium has three valence orbitals.
  • (D) Magnesium has a maximum covalency of four.

Question 76:

Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is

  • (A) hepta-1,6-diene
  • (B) hepta-1,3-diene
  • (C) hepta-1,4-diene
  • (D) hepta-1,5-diene

Question 77:

For a zero-order reaction, where \(k = 1.0\ mol\ L^{-1}\ min^{-1}\). If the initial concentration of A is \(2\ M\), then the time taken for completion of \(75%\) of the reaction will be

  • (A) \(2.0\ min\)
  • (B) \(1.5\ min\)
  • (C) \(0.75\ min\)
  • (D) \(1.0\ min\)

Question 78:

The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at \(298\ K\) is

  • (A) \(Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr > Hg_2Cl_2\)
  • (B) \(Hg_2Cl_2 > Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr\)
  • (C) \(AgBr > Zn(OH)_2 > Hg_2Cl_2\)
  • (D) \(Hg_2Cl_2 > AgBr > Zn(OH)_2\)

Question 79:

The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is

  • (A) \(P_4O_{10} > Cl_2O_7 > AlH_3\)
  • (B) \(P_4O_{10} > SO_3 > H_2O\)
  • (C) \(N_2O_5 > Al_2O_3 > H_2S\)
  • (D) \(PbO_2 > N_2O_3 > SO_3\)

Question 80:

Consider the reversible processes for 1.0 mol of an ideal gas as shown in the figure. Processes 2 and 4 are adiabatic. \(w_1,w_2,w_3\) and \(w_4\) represent work done (in calories) in processes 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively. \(\Delta U_2\) and \(\Delta U_4\) are changes in internal energy for processes 2 and 4, respectively. [Use \(R = 2\ cal\ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)] The correct option is

  • (A) \(w_1+w_2+w_3+w_4=0\)
  • (B) \(w_1+w_3=-2T_1\ln\left(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\right)-2T_2\ln\left(\frac{V_4}{V_3}\right)\)
  • (C) \(w_2+w_4=\Delta U_2-\Delta U_4\)
  • (D) \(w_1+w_2=2T_1\ln\left(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\right)\)

Question 81:

Assertion A : For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, \(\Delta_{mix}H=0\) and \(\Delta_{mix}V=0\).

Reason R : No interactions occur between P and Q.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (A) A is not correct but R is correct.
  • (B) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (C) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (D) A is correct but R is not correct.

Question 82:

Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for
(Given: Atomic number of Ti = 22, Mn = 25, Fe = 26 and Co = 27)

  • (A) \([Ti(H_2O)_6]^{2+}\)
  • (B) \([Mn(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (C) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (D) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)

Question 83:

A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to \(N \rightleftharpoons D\). At \(60^\circ C\), the concentrations of both N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is \(666\ kJ\ mol^{-1}\). The standard entropy change \((\Delta S^\circ)\) in \(kJ\ K^{-1}\ mol^{-1}\) of the protein upon denaturation at \(60^\circ C\) is closest to

  • (A) \(11.1\)
  • (B) \(2.0\)
  • (C) \(2000.0\)
  • (D) \(333.0\)

Question 84:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Generally, 3d transition metals have high melting points.

Reason R : Involvement of 3d-electrons in addition to 4s-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (A) A is not correct but R is correct.
  • (B) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (C) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (D) A is correct but R is not correct.

Question 85:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F.

Reason R: The loss of an electron from O leads to stable half-filled p orbital.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (B) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (D) A is correct but R is not correct

Question 86:

Consider the following reaction sequences and choose the correct option.
\[ Ph-C\equiv C-CH_3 \]

On reduction with
\[ H_2/Pd-C \; (Lindlar's\; catalyst) \]

gives K.

On reduction with
\[ Na/Liq.NH_3 \]

gives L.

Further reaction with
\[ HBr/benzoyl\; peroxide \]

gives M and N respectively.

  • (A) M and N are stereoisomers
  • (B) K and L are geometrical isomers
  • (C) K and L are enantiomers
  • (D) M and N are geometrical isomers

Question 87:

The highest occupied molecular orbital for \(Ne_2\) is

  • (A) \(\sigma^{*}_{2p}\)
  • (B) \(\pi_{2p}\)
  • (C) \(\sigma_{2p}\)
  • (D) \(\pi^{*}_{2p}\)

Question 88:

Match the species in List I with their geometry in List II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 89:

Match the vitamins in List I with their sources in List II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Question 90:

For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option

  • (1) Both \(\mathbf{P}\) and \(\mathbf{Q}\) are carbonyl compounds.
  • (2) If \(\mathbf{P}\) is the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid, \(\mathbf{Q}\) is a primary alcohol.
  • (3) \(\mathbf{P}\) and \(\mathbf{Q}\) are aromatic compounds.
  • (4) If \(\mathbf{P}\) gives a carboxylic acid on acidification, \(\mathbf{Q}\) gives a poisonous gas on exposure to air and light.

Question 91:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.

Statement II : All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 92:

How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 1

Question 93:

Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBisCO is shown below :
\[ RuBP + O_2 \rightarrow 3-Phosphoglycerate + X \]
Identify "X" from the given options :

  • (1) Malate
  • (2) Phosphoenolpyruvate
  • (3) 2-Phosphoglycolate
  • (4) Oxaloacetate

Question 94:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia.

Statement II : In gymnosperms, the seeds are not covered.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 95:

How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?

  • (1) 412
  • (2) 206
  • (3) 309
  • (4) 103

Question 96:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-III
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-I

Question 97:

Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses____________.

  • (1) aqueous humor
  • (2) matrix
  • (3) cytosol
  • (4) mucus

Question 98:

Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of ____________.

  • (1) sepals
  • (2) leaves
  • (3) flowers
  • (4) fruits

Question 99:

Mad cow disease is caused by ____________.

  • (1) Mycoplasma sp.
  • (2) prions
  • (3) viroids
  • (4) Aspergillus sp.

Question 100:

Cell theory was formulated by ____________.

  • (1) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek
  • (2) Schleiden and Schwann
  • (3) Robert Brown
  • (4) Singer and Nicolson

Question 101:

Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage ?

  • (1) Ethephon
  • (2) Abscisic acid
  • (3) Gibberellin
  • (4) Indole butyric acid

Question 102:

Which pigment has absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700) ?

  • (1) Carotenoids
  • (2) Chlorophyll b
  • (3) Chlorophyll a
  • (4) Xanthophylls

Question 103:

Sphenopsida class belongs to ____________.

  • (1) pteridophytes
  • (2) bryophytes
  • (3) angiosperms
  • (4) gymnosperms

Question 104:

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans ?

  • (1) Femur-tarsal-patella-tibia
  • (2) Femur-tibia-patella-tarsal
  • (3) Patella-femur-tibia-tarsal
  • (4) Femur-patella-tibia-tarsal

Question 105:

Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide ?

  • (1) Gibberellin
  • (2) 2,4-D
  • (3) Kinetin
  • (4) Abscisic acid

Question 106:

Genus represents ____________.

  • (1) a group of closely related families
  • (2) an individual plant or animal
  • (3) a population of plants and animals
  • (4) a group of closely related species

Question 107:

The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as ____________.

  • (1) amyloplast
  • (2) chloroplast
  • (3) chromoplast
  • (4) aleuroplast

Question 108:

In water, frogs respire using ____________.

  • (1) trachea
  • (2) skin
  • (3) buccal cavity
  • (4) lungs

Question 109:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?

  • (1) Presence of post anal part (tail)
  • (2) Presence of notochord
  • (3) Central nervous system is dorsal
  • (4) Absence of gills

Question 110:

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ____________.

  • (1) is a site for the synthesis of carbohydrates
  • (2) has ribosomes attached to its surface
  • (3) is the major site for the synthesis of lipids
  • (4) is actively involved in protein synthesis

Question 111:

Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells?


(a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits
(b) They can have plasmids
(c) They contain mesosome
(d) They have peroxisomes



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (B) (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (a) and (c) only
  • (D) (a), (c) and (d) only

Question 112:

Match List-I with List-II.





Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Question 113:

Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct?



(a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis
(b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone
(c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone
(d) It does not secrete prolactin



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (b) and (c) only
  • (B) (a) and (b) only
  • (C) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (D) (c) and (d) only

Question 114:

Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct?



(A) Does not occur in C\(_3\) plants
(B) CO\(_2\) is consumed and O\(_2\) is generated
(C) Phosphoglycolate is formed
(D) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a) and (b) only
  • (B) (a) and (d) only
  • (C) (c) and (d) only
  • (D) (b) and (d) only

Question 115:

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) Fibrinogen is produced from fibrin
  • (B) Blood coagulates in response to an injury
  • (C) Blood clot consists of fibrins
  • (D) Fibrin is produced from fibrinogen

Question 116:

Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order.

(a) Genus  (b) Class  (c) Order  (d) Phylum

(e) Family (f) Kingdom  (g) Species

  • (A) (f), (c), (b), (g), (d), (e), (a)
  • (B) (g), (a), (e), (c), (b), (d), (f)
  • (C) (a), (c), (d), (g), (f), (b), (e)
  • (D) (g), (c), (d), (b), (e), (a), (f)

Question 117:

Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.

  • (A) Production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) role of air \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b
  • (B) Absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) role of air
  • (C) Role of air \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b
  • (D) Release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b \(\rightarrow\) role of air

Question 118:

Match List-I with List-II.

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 119:

The number of vertebrae in a human is

  • (A) 206
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 26

Question 120:

Endomembrane system includes

  • (A) Golgi complex, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
  • (B) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuole
  • (C) Endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
  • (D) Mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole

Question 121:

Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?

  • (A) 460 cm
  • (B) 50 cm
  • (C) 170 cm
  • (D) 230 cm

Question 122:

Match List-I with List-II.

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 123:

The number of action potentials generated by sino-atrial node (SAN) in a healthy human is ______ per minute.

  • (A) 120 – 140
  • (B) 28 – 30
  • (C) 70 – 75
  • (D) 100 – 110

Question 124:

Match List-I with List-II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-I
  • (B) A-I, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-III
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-V
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-I, E-IV

Question 125:

Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system?

  • (A) Pericardium
  • (B) Arachnoid
  • (C) Dura mater
  • (D) Pia mater

Question 126:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I.

Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false

Question 127:

Match List-I with List-II.

  • (A) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Question 128:

Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called _______.

  • (A) Chrysophytes
  • (B) Lichens
  • (C) Sponges
  • (D) Mycorrhiza

Question 129:

Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

  • (A) Fungi
  • (B) Bacteria
  • (C) Blue green algae
  • (D) Mycoplasma

Question 130:

The pigment responsible for the red colour of ripe tomato is

  • (A) Xanthophyll
  • (B) Lycopene
  • (C) Chlorophyll
  • (D) Anthocyanin

Question 131:

Which of the following statement is correct regarding enzymes?

  • (A) Enzymes are consumed permanently after reaction
  • (B) Enzymes lower activation energy of reaction
  • (C) Enzymes increase activation energy of reaction
  • (D) Enzymes are inorganic compounds

Question 132:

Which of the following are characteristic features of Solanaceae family?

(a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic

(b) Calyx have five sepals and are united

(c) Androecium have five stamens and are epipetalous

(d) Ovary is inferior

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (B) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (d) only
  • (D) (a) and (b) only

Question 133:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.

Statement II : In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical.

Choose the most appropriate answer.

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 134:

The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is

  • (A) S-M-G2-G1
  • (B) G1-G2-S-M
  • (C) G1-M-G2-S
  • (D) G1-S-G2-M

Question 135:

In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are _______.

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 10

Question 136:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells.

Reason R: Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is not correct but \(R\) is correct
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is correct but \(R\) is not correct

Question 137:

The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called:

  • (A) Embryo transfer (ET)
  • (B) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
  • (C) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
  • (D) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

Question 138:

Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of

  • (A) genetic drift
  • (B) divergent evolution
  • (C) convergent evolution
  • (D) founder effect

Question 139:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: In an experiment, Mendel observed that the \(F_1\) progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf.

Reason R: Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is not correct but \(R\) is correct
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is correct but \(R\) is not correct

Question 140:

Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest.

(a) Plants

(b) Birds

(c) Fishes

(d) Invertebrates

(e) Mammals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \((b) > (a) > (d) > (c) > (e)\)
  • (B) \((c) > (b) > (d) > (e) > (a)\)
  • (C) \((d) > (a) > (c) > (b) > (e)\)
  • (D) \((e) > (b) > (a) > (c) > (d)\)

Question 141:

Sponges exchange \(O_2\) with \(CO_2\) by

  • (A) gills
  • (B) simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces
  • (C) moist cuticle
  • (D) tracheal tubes

Question 142:

For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes ?

  • (A) Father : \(I^A I^B\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (B) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)
  • (C) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (D) Father : \(I^B i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)

Question 143:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents.

Statement II: Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 144:

Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients ?

  • (A) Anti-retroviral drugs
  • (B) Interferon
  • (C) Antibiotics
  • (D) Morphine

Question 145:

Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds ?

  • (A) Pea
  • (B) Wheat
  • (C) Maize
  • (D) Barley

Question 146:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced.

Reason R: Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is not correct but \(R\) is correct
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is correct but \(R\) is not correct

Question 147:

The covering of ovum at ovulation is

  • (A) chorion
  • (B) endometrium
  • (C) zona radiata
  • (D) zona pellucida

Question 148:

Which of the following is used as a clot buster ?

  • (A) Statins
  • (B) Streptokinase
  • (C) Penicillin
  • (D) Cyclosporin A

Question 149:

Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system ?

  • (A) Infundibulum
  • (B) Rete testis
  • (C) Epididymis
  • (D) Vasa efferentia

Question 150:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles.

Statement II: Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 151:

The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by

  • (A) sino-atrial node
  • (B) bicuspid valve
  • (C) tricuspid valve
  • (D) semilunar valve

Question 152:

Which of the following is not evidence for evolution ?

  • (A) Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs
  • (B) Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies
  • (C) Paleontological evidence from fossil records
  • (D) Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Heckel

Question 153:

The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut

  • (A) by nucleases
  • (B) due to alkaline pH
  • (C) due to acidic pH
  • (D) by proteases

Question 154:

Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in

  • (A) IgD
  • (B) IgG
  • (C) IgM
  • (D) IgA

Question 155:

Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs ?

  • (A) Polar nucleus
  • (B) Antipodals
  • (C) Synergids
  • (D) Central cells

Question 156:

Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted ?

  • (A) Genital warts
  • (B) Syphilis
  • (C) Tuberculosis
  • (D) Gonorrhoea

Question 157:

Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct ?

  • (A) Galactose can act as an inducer of lac operon
  • (B) Gene i is constitutively expressed
  • (C) Lactose activates repressor to bind to the operator
  • (D) Genes i, z, y and a share single common promoter

Question 158:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Transformation I. Restriction enzyme
B. Cloning site II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria
C. Selection IV. Antibiotic
D. Ori III. Replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 159:

A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is

  • (A) \(0.99\)
  • (B) \(0.01\)
  • (C) \(0.02\)
  • (D) \(0.10\)

Question 160:

Sperm motility is due to __________.

  • (A) muscular movement
  • (B) flagellar movement
  • (C) ciliary movement
  • (D) amoeboid movement

Question 161:

Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is __________.

  • (A) 100 million
  • (B) 1 million
  • (C) 5 million
  • (D) 10 million

Question 162:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous.

Reason R: Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is false but \(R\) is true
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are true, but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is true but \(R\) is false

Question 163:

Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of __________.

  • (A) cyclic adenine monophosphate
  • (B) acetyl choline
  • (C) acetyl coenzyme A
  • (D) cyclic guanine monophosphate

Question 164:

Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta ?

  • (A) LH
  • (B) hCG
  • (C) Estrogen
  • (D) Progesterone

Question 165:

Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium ?

  • (A) Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut
  • (B) Reproduces sexually in liver cells
  • (C) Reproduces sexually in RBCs
  • (D) Gametocytes develop in mosquito gut

Question 166:

Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain ?

  • (A) Carnivores
  • (B) Parasites
  • (C) Predators
  • (D) Herbivores

Question 167:

Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle's loop are correct ?

(a) The descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.

(b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle's loop.

(c) Reabsorption of \(Na^+\) and water takes place in Henle's loop.

(d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle's loop.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a), (b) and (d) only
  • (B) (a) and (b) only
  • (C) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (D) (a), (b) and (c) only

Question 168:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model.

Reason R: Resources are finite.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is not correct but \(R\) is correct
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is correct but \(R\) is not correct

Question 169:

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebrate column from the head to toe ?

  • (A) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, lumbar vertebra, sacrum
  • (B) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum, lumbar vertebra
  • (C) Sacrum, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, cervical vertebra
  • (D) Cervical vertebra, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum

Question 170:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Transformation I. Restriction enzyme
B. Cloning site II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria
C. Selection IV. Antibiotic
D. Ori III. Replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 171:

If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm ?

  • (A) 72
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 36
  • (D) 54

Question 172:

Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA ?

  • (A) DNA polymerase
  • (B) RNA polymerase I
  • (C) RNA polymerase II
  • (D) RNA polymerase III

Question 173:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA.

Statement II: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 174:

How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 175:

Natural selection can lead to

(a) stabilisation

(b) genetic drift

(c) directional change

(d) disruption

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a) and (c) only
  • (B) (a) only
  • (C) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Question 176:

Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional

(b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted

(c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (b) and (c) only
  • (B) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (C) (a) and (b) only
  • (D) (a) and (c) only

Question 177: ```html id="endocrine_matching_question">

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Excess growth hormone I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney
B. Luteinizing hormone II. Contraction of uterus during child birth
C. Vasopressin III. Acromegaly
D. Oxytocin IV. Ovulation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

```
  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-I, D-III

Question 178:

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs?

(a) Bone marrow

(b) Tonsils

(c) Spleen

(d) Thymus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a) and (d) only
  • (B) (a) and (b) only
  • (C) (b) and (c) only
  • (D) (b) and (d) only

Question 179:

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the __________ step.

  • (A) ligation
  • (B) denaturation
  • (C) extension
  • (D) annealing

Question 180:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes.

Statement II: Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

NEET Re-Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Exam Mode Offline (Pen-and-Paper, OMR Based)
Duration 3 Hours and 15 minutes (195 Minutes)
Total Questions 180 (All Compulsory)
Subjects Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany and Zoology)
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Total Marks 720
Marking Scheme
  • +4 (Correct)
  • −1 (Incorrect)
  • 0 (Unattempted)

NEET 2026 Subject-Wise Weightage

Subject Number of Questions Marks
Physics 45 180
Chemistry 45 180
Biology 90 360
Total 180 720

NEET 2026 Re-Exam Answer Key Live