CBSE Class 12 Economics Set 1 - (58/2/1) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Economics exam on March 18, 2026, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Economics theory paper is of 80 marks, and the internal assessment is of 20 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

The question paper has 34 questions, all compulsory, for 80 marks:

  • Section A is Macro Economics and Section B is Indian Economic Development
  • 20 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each
  • 4 Short Answer Type-I questions of 3 marks each (60 to 80 words)
  • 6 Short Answer Type-II questions of 4 marks each (80 to 100 words)
  • 4 Long Answer type questions of 6 marks each (100 to 150 words)
  • There is no overall choice, but internal choice is given in a few questions

CBSE Class 12 Economics Set 1 - (58/2/1) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Economics 2026 Set 1 (58/2/1) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Choose the correct consumption function from the options given below with reference to the illustrated diagram.

  • (A) \(C = 50 + 0.7Y\)
  • (B) \(C = 100 + 0.8Y\)
  • (C) \(C = 100 + 0.7Y\)
  • (D) \(C = 100 + 0.8Y\)

Question 2:

Income generated from Aircrafts of Air India operating between Canada and England would be added to the domestic income (NDPFC) of __________.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Canada
  • (B) England
  • (C) Both Canada and England
  • (D) India

Question 3:

Identify that function of money which has effectively solved the problem of ‘double coincidence of wants’ in transactions.

  • (A) Standard of deferred payment
  • (B) Store of value
  • (C) Measure of value
  • (D) Medium of exchange

Question 4:

Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Under the flexible exchange rate system, a deficit or surplus in the Balance of Payments is automatically corrected.
Statement 2: Under the flexible exchange rate system, there is always a possibility of over/under valuation of currency.
In the light of the above given statements, choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  • (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  • (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
  • (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.

Question 5:

Read the following flow chart carefully and choose the correct option:

  • (A) Transfer goods
  • (B) Capital goods
  • (C) Non-durable goods
  • (D) Semi-durable goods

Question 6:

The Aggregate Demand (AD) curve lies parallel to consumption curve, indicating that both have __________.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) same components
  • (B) different slope
  • (C) same slope
  • (D) inverse relationship

Question 7:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement 1 : Brokerage earned by a dealer of second hand cars is included in the estimation of National Income.

Statement 2 : Imputed value of production for self-consumption is included in National Income.

In the light of the above given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  • (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  • (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
  • (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.

Question 8:

Sumit deposited ₹ 10 lakh in his savings account. The deposits made by him is a part of __________ in the M1 measure of money supply.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Currency held by public
  • (B) Interbank deposits
  • (C) Demand deposits with commercial banks
  • (D) Term deposits with Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Question 9:

Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below :

Assertion (A) : Increase in exchange rate implies that the price of foreign currency in terms of domestic currency has increased.

Reason (R) : Balance of trade records the inflows and outflows of foreign exchange.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 10:

Identify, which one of the following is not a function of Reserve Bank of India as a bank, agent and advisor to the government.

  • (A) Carries out banking business of the government
  • (B) Manages national debt
  • (C) Advises on financial matters
  • (D) Conducts periodic inspections

Question 11:

Calculate compensation of employees from the data given below :

S. No.ParticularsAmount (in ₹ crore)
(i)Interest45
(ii)Profits after tax20
(iii)Consumption of fixed capital50
(iv)Gross Domestic Product at market price (GDPMP)200
(v)Rent25
(vi)Corporate tax5
(vii)Goods and Services tax10


Question 12(a):

“When initial deposits in the credit creation process remains same, the total amount of credit created rises as the value of money multiplier increases.”

Defend or refute the above statement with the help of hypothetical numerical example.


Question 12(b) (OR):

“The Central Bank maintains reserves of all commercial banks and use to settle interbank claims.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid explanation in support of your answer.


Question 13(a):

Read the following text carefully :

“A country’s total National Income (NI) at the end of the year is ₹ 80,000 crore. During the same year, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) increased by ₹ 10,000 crore. The depreciation on capital goods was ₹ 2,000 crore and National savings at the end of year is ₹ 15,000 crore. Additionally, country invested ₹ 8,000 crore in new capital goods industries.”

In the light of above text, categorise the items as ‘stock’ or ‘flow’ variables with valid arguments.


Question 13(b)(i) (OR):

The value of Nominal Gross National Product (GNP) of an economy was ₹ 2,500 crore in a particular year. The value of Gross National Product (GNP) of that country during the same year, estimated at the prices of base year was ₹ 3,000 crore.

Estimate the value of Gross National Product (GNP) deflator (in percentage).


Question 13(b)(ii) (OR):

The value of Nominal Gross National Product (GNP) of an economy was ₹ 2,500 crore in a particular year. The value of Gross National Product (GNP) of that country during the same year, estimated at the prices of base year was ₹ 3,000 crore.

“The price level has risen between the base year and the year under consideration.” Defend or refute the statement with suitable argument.


Question 14(a):

Explain the likely impacts of the ‘Make in India’ policy initiated by Government of India on the Balance of Payments (BoP) of India (assuming all other factors constant).


Question 14(b):

State the meaning of Balance of Payment (BoP) surplus and deficit.


Comprehension:

Read the following text carefully :

“The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced a 50 basis point Repo Rate cut to 5.50% from 6%.”

In the light of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions :


Question 15(i):

Identify the economic issue indicated in the above text.


Question 15(ii):

Explain the likely causes and consequences of this step of RBI on the economy.


Question 16(a)(I):

Estimate the value of subsistence level of consumption expenditure from the following data about an economy which is in equilibrium :

(i) National Income (Y) = ₹ 1,200 crore

(ii) Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.20

(iii) Investment Expenditure (Ī) = ₹ 100 crore


Question 16(a)(II):

“An economy facing an increase in unintended accumulation of inventories would try to reduce Aggregate Demand.” Defend or refute the above statement with valid arguments.


Question 16(b)(I) (OR):

Complete the following table :

SituationChange in Investment (ΔI)Change in Income (ΔY)Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)Investments Multiplier (K)
(a)200(i) __________0.8(ii) __________
(b)(iii) __________2000(iv) __________4
(c)1000(v) __________0.5(vi) __________


Question 16(b)(II)(i) (OR):

Identify the monetary measures being referred to in the following statements. Discuss whether the tool would be used during a situation of excess demand or deficient demand.

Selling off government securities (G-Sec) to public by the central bank.


Question 16(b)(II)(ii) (OR):

Identify the monetary measures being referred to in the following statements. Discuss whether the tool would be used during a situation of excess demand or deficient demand.

Encourage commercial banks to park their surplus funds with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).


Comprehension:

Read the following text carefully:
The government has allocated ₹ 16.27 lakh crore for major sectors, ranging from defence to rural development to social welfare to commerce and so on. Government expenditure goes to paying states' share of taxes and duties. Around 19% is spent on interest payments and 16% on central sector schemes, with subsidies, pension and other payments contributing 19%. Government revenue is divided between borrowings and other liabilities, which account for massive 27% of the incoming cash. Income tax revenue of around 19%; Goods and Services Taxes (GST) and other taxes of around 18%; Corporation taxes account for around 17%. The next highest provision on this list is ₹ 2.66 lakh crore for rural development. This will include expenditure on rural infrastructure projects and increased outlay for the popular MGNREGA scheme.

Read More On the basis of given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
  • [(i)] Identify the major sources of government revenue and state what percentage does each one of them contribute.
  • [(ii)] Discuss the need for allocating funds among different sectors of the economy.

Question 17(i):

Identify the major sources of government revenue and state what percentage does each one of them contribute.


Question 17(ii):

Discuss the need to allocate funds among different sectors of the economy.


Question 18:

“In the formative stages of reforms development of credit markets, administrative intervention in interest rates is both necessary and desirable.” Identify the sector under which the aforesaid reform was introduced.

  • (A) Tax reforms
  • (B) Industrial sector reforms
  • (C) Financial sector reforms
  • (D) Foreign sector reforms

Question 19:

Read the following statements – Assertion and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below: Assertion : The dynamic sub-sectors like agro-processing industries, food processing industries, etc. have potential to create alternative employment opportunities. Reason (R): Men usually seek non-farm jobs, but recently, women have also started looking for such jobs.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 20:

The steep Indian education pyramid indicates __________.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) equal distribution of students across all levels
  • (B) increase in number of people reaching higher education
  • (C) low unemployment among educated youth
  • (D) few/less number of people reaching higher education

Question 21:

__________ estimates India’s national and per capita income during the colonial era was considered very significant.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) William Digby
  • (B) V.K.R.V. Rao
  • (C) Findlay Shirras
  • (D) R.C. Desai

Question 22:

From the types of unemployment/employment given in Column-I and corresponding features given in Column-II, choose the correct pair :

Column – IColumn – II
(i) Disguised Unemployment(a) Concentrated to a given season
(ii) Seasonal Unemployment(b) Marginal productivity is zero
(iii) Indirect employment by government(c) Indian Railways
(iv) Direct employment by government(d) Indian Oil Corporation (IOC)

  • (A) (i) - (a)
  • (B) (ii) - (b)
  • (C) (iii) - (c)
  • (D) (iv) - (d)

Question 23:

Growth of rural economy depends primarily on infusion of __________ to realise higher productivity in agricultural and non-agricultural sectors.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Capital
  • (B) Road Construction
  • (C) Green status
  • (D) Outsourcing

Question 24:

Identify the strategy given in the image that can be utilised for sustainable development.

  • (A) Non-conventional energy
  • (B) Wind power
  • (C) CNG in urban areas
  • (D) Gobar Gas in rural areas

Question 25:

Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1: The option for producing off-season crops are quite restricted in organic farming. Statement 2: Organic agriculture helps in substituting costlier agricultural inputs with locally produced organic inputs. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  • (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  • (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
  • (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

Question 26:

China adopted __________ strategy in which farmers and industries bought and sold certain quantities at government fixed prices, while remaining transactions occurred at market prices.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Dual Pricing
  • (B) Special Economic Zones
  • (C) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
  • (D) Great Leap Forward

Question 27:

Education provides __________.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

(i) Scientific advancements

(ii) Facilitate inventions and innovations

(iii) Adapting to new technology

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (i) and (iii)
  • (C) (ii) and (iii)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 28:

“In the late 1970s and 1980s, Pakistan experienced significant changes in its policies, incentives and new investments.”

Do you agree with the above statement ? Justify your answer with valid arguments.


Question 29(a):

Distinguish between formal and informal sector of employment with the help of suitable examples.


Question 29(b) (OR):

Discuss the long term implications of increased demand for environmental resources exceeding their natural regenerative capacity.


Question 30(a):

“The Restrictive policies under the colonial government adversely affected the structure, composition and volume of India’s foreign trade.”

Justify the above statement with valid explanation.


Question 30(b) (OR):

Explain the main objectives and impacts of land settlement policies implemented under the British government rule.


Question 31(a):

Refer the given image carefully :

Distribution of Employment by Gender

Male Workers

Female Workers

Self-employed

Regular Salaried Employees

Casual Wage Labourers

Compare and analyse the distribution of work force with respect to gender.


Question 31(b):

State the meaning of worker-population ratio.


Question 32(i):

State the meaning of ‘Commune system’.


Question 32(ii):

Explain any two reasons for the slow economic growth in Pakistan.


Question 33(a)(i):

Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below :

“In India, high-yielding seed varieties were initially brought to the State of Punjab, Haryana and portions of western Uttar Pradesh.”

Identify the approach initiated by Indian Government in 1966.


Question 33(a)(ii):

Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below :

“In India, high-yielding seed varieties were initially brought to the State of Punjab, Haryana and portions of western Uttar Pradesh.”

State the primary goal of this approach.


Question 33(a)(iii):

Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below :

“In India, high-yielding seed varieties were initially brought to the State of Punjab, Haryana and portions of western Uttar Pradesh.”

Describe any two impacts of this approach.


Question 33(b)(i) (OR):

Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below :

“It is an arrangement in which a firm hires some specialized firm(s) to carry out some of its activities (which were earlier being performed by itself). These service hirings could be from local / international markets.”

Identify the indicated outcome of the globalisation process.


Question 33(b)(ii) (OR):

Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below :

“It is an arrangement in which a firm hires some specialized firm(s) to carry out some of its activities (which were earlier being performed by itself). These service hirings could be from local / international markets.”

State any two factors responsible for making India as an important source of these activities.


Question 33(b)(iii) (OR):

Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below :

“It is an arrangement in which a firm hires some specialized firm(s) to carry out some of its activities (which were earlier being performed by itself). These service hirings could be from local / international markets.”

Explain examples of services that have expanded due to advancements in information technology.


Comprehension:

Read the following text carefully:
The Union Budget 2025-26 proposed a significant package for rural India allocating ₹ 1.88 lakh crore to drive comprehensive development. The budget emphasises on boosting employment, women employment, education and infrastructure in rural areas, reflecting the government's commitment for a stronger, self-reliant rural economy. The extension of Jal-Jeevan Mission until 2028, with focus on achieving 100% rural water supply coverage and enhancing infrastructure maintenance. Broadband connectivity is set to expand under the Bharatnet project, providing internet access to all rural government secondary schools and primary health care centres.

Read More Also, the budget highlights major rural schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which has provided all-weather roads to rural areas. The Pradhan Mantri Grameen Awaas Yojana, which has delivered housing to economically weaker sections. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) continues to secure rural livelihoods with an allocation of ₹ 86,000 crore in FY 2024-25. On the basis of the above text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
  • [(i)] Explain the significance of rural development.
  • [(ii)] Discuss any two policies initiated by Government of India for rural development.

Question 34(i):

Explain the significance of rural development.


Question 34(ii):

Discuss any two policies initiated by government of India for rural development.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Economics 2026 theory paper is of 80 marks and has 34 questions, all compulsory, in two sections: Section A (Macro Economics) and Section B (Indian Economic Development). There is no overall choice, but an internal choice (OR) is given in a few questions. The tables below give the paper pattern and the marking rules from the official CBSE question paper and marking scheme.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper Pattern 2026

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
Section A - Macro Economics Q1 - Q10 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) 1 10
Section A - Macro Economics Q11 - Q12 Short Answer Type-I (60 to 80 words) 3 6
Section A - Macro Economics Q13 - Q15 Short Answer Type-II (80 to 100 words) 4 12
Section A - Macro Economics Q16 - Q17 Long Answer type (100 to 150 words) 6 12
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q18 - Q27 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) 1 10
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q28 - Q29 Short Answer Type-I (60 to 80 words) 3 6
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q30 - Q32 Short Answer Type-II (80 to 100 words) 4 12
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q33 - Q34 Long Answer type (100 to 150 words) 6 12
Total 34 questions 80

CBSE Class 12 Economics Marking Scheme 2026

Marking point How it is applied
Value-point marking Marks are awarded against the value points given in the official marking scheme; for a question with parts, marks are awarded for each part and then totalled.
Own expression The marking scheme carries suggested value points only. A correct answer in the student's own words is awarded due marks.
Competency-based questions If a competency-based answer is not from the marking scheme but shows the correct competency, due marks are awarded.
Errors An error is penalised only once; no marks are deducted for its cumulative effect.
Incorrect answer A totally incorrect answer is awarded zero (0) marks.
Extra question If a student attempts an extra question, the answer deserving more marks is retained and the other is scored out.
Scale of marks The full scale of 0 to 80 marks is used and full marks are awarded whenever the answer deserves them.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Unit-Wise Weightage

Part Unit Marks
Part A - Introductory Macroeconomics
National Income and Related Aggregates 10
Money and Banking 6
Determination of Income and Employment 12
Government Budget and the Economy 6
Balance of Payments 6
Total 40
Part B - Indian Economic Development
Development Experience (1947-90) and Economic Reforms since 1991 12
Current Challenges facing Indian Economy 20
Development Experience of India - A Comparison with Neighbours 8
Total 40
Theory Paper 80
Project Work Project File and Viva Voce 20
Grand Total 100

CBSE Class 12 Economics 2026 Paper Analysis