CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 3 - (57/4/3) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted Class 12 Biology exam on March 27, 2026 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Biology theory paper is of 70 marks, and the internal assessment is of 30 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

The Biology question paper includes the following types of questions, which make up the total of 70 marks:

  • MCQs: 1 mark each
  • Short-answer type questions: 2 & 3 marks each
  • Case-study based questions: 4 marks each
  • Long-answer type questions: 5 marks each

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper 2026 (Set 3 - 57/4/3) with Solution PDF

CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 Set 3 (57/4/3) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

A female undergoing IVF treatment has blocked fallopian tube. The technique by which the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres will be transferred into the female for further development is :

  • (A) ZIFT
  • (B) GIFT
  • (C) IUT
  • (D) AI

Question 2:

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

  • (A) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.
  • (B) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshoppers.
  • (C) XXY condition in humans is found in Turner's syndrome.
  • (D) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce males in Drosophila.

Question 3:

Choose the option that gives the correct number of pollen grains that will be formed after 325 microspore mother cells undergo microsporogenesis.

  • (A) 325
  • (B) 650
  • (C) 1300
  • (D) 975

Question 4:

The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy ?

  • (A) Fourth month
  • (B) Fifth month
  • (C) Sixth month
  • (D) Third month

Question 5:

Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are examples of :

  • (A) Analogous organs
  • (B) Convergent evolution
  • (C) Homologous organs
  • (D) Vestigial organs

Question 6:

Internal bleeding, muscular pain, blockage of the intestinal passage and anaemia are some of the symptoms caused due to infection by :

  • (A) Ascaris
  • (B) Wuchereria
  • (C) Plasmodium
  • (D) Trichophyton

Question 7:

Choose the correct statements :

(i) Polycistronic mRNA is generally found in eukaryotes.

(ii) The RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of mRNA, the hnRNA.

(iii) The process of translation of mRNA begins when the mRNA encounters the large subunit of ribosomes.

(iv) Stop codons do not have any tRNAs.

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (ii) and (iv)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 8:

Name the extinct ancestor of humans who ate only fruits and hunted with stone weapons.

  • (A) Ramapithecus
  • (B) Australopithecus
  • (C) Dryopithecus
  • (D) Homo erectus

Question 9:

Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control which one of the following pathogens/pests ?

  • (A) Bacterial pathogen
  • (B) Fungal pathogen
  • (C) Nematodes
  • (D) Insect pests

Question 10:

In pBR322, tetracycline, resistance gene (tetR) has recognition site for which of the following restriction endonuclease ?

  • (A) Hind III
  • (B) BamH I
  • (C) EcoR I
  • (D) Pst I

Question 11:

In RNAi, genes are silenced using which of the following biomolecules ?

  • (A) ssDNA
  • (B) dsDNA
  • (C) dsRNA
  • (D) ssRNA

Question 12:

The biomass available in plants for consumption by herbivores and decomposers, is called :

  • (A) Gross primary productivity
  • (B) Net primary productivity
  • (C) Standing crop
  • (D) Secondary productivity

Question 13:

Assertion (A) : Nucleopolyhedrovirus are useful as they are good biocontrol agents.

Reason (R) : They are species-specific, narrow spectrum bioinsecticides.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 14:

Assertion (A) : The interaction between a whale and the small barnacles on its back is considered as commensalism.

Reason (R) : In the above association, neither of the species is benefitted.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 15:

Assertion (A) : The pyramid of biomass in a pond aquatic ecosystem is always inverted.

Reason (R) : The biomass of consumers like fishes far exceeds that of the producers like phytoplanktons.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 16:

Assertion (A) : Cleistogamous flowers have assured seed set.

Reason (R) : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous and do not depend on any pollinating agents.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 17:

Mention the sites of action of the hormones 'GnRH' and 'FSH' during spermatogenesis. Write one function of each of these hormones.


Question 18:

A laboratory assistant collected three water samples, namely river water, untreated sewage water and secondary effluent discharged from a sewage treatment plant. But the laboratory attendant did not note which was which. The samples were labelled A, B and C and subjected to a BOD test. The BOD values of the three samples A, B and C were recorded as 30 mg/L, 8 mg/L and 400 mg/L respectively.

(a) Which sample of the water is most polluted ?

(b) Can you assign the correct label to each, assuming the river water is relatively clean ?


Question 19:

How do ‘implants’ act as an effective method of contraception in human females ? Mention one advantage of implants over contraceptive pills.


Question 20:

Why and how can bacteria be made 'competent' ?


Question 21:

Biodiversity must be conserved as it plays an important role in many ecosystem services that nature provides. Explain any two ecosystem services.


Question 22:

(i) State, what does "standing crop" of a trophic level represent.

(ii) List any two ways of measuring the standing crop of a trophic level.


Question 23:

(a) Construct a complete transcription unit with promoter and terminator on the basis of the hypothetical coding strand given below :

A T G C A T G C A T A G

(The strand is drawn on a line with arrow heads at both ends and short vertical ticks under each base, for you to complete.)

(b) Write the RNA strand transcribed from the above transcription unit along with its polarity.


Question 24:

(a) Draw a diagram of human ovum prior to fertilization. Label any four parts.

(b) Explain how polyspermy is avoided during fertilization.


Question 25:

(a) Draw a figure of E. coli vector pBR322 and label the following :

(i) Origin of replication

(ii) Ampicillin resistance site

(iii) Tetracyclin resistance site

(iv) "rop"

(b) Mention the significance of origin of replication.


Question 26:

Define adaptive radiation. How did Darwin explain adaptive radiation ?


Question 27:

(a) How do some viruses cause cancer in humans ?

(b) How do benign tumours turn malignant ? How do malignant tumours harm the human body ?


Question 28:

There are many animals, which have become extinct in the wild, but continue to be maintained in zoological parks. Answer the questions that follow :

(a) What type of bio-diversity conservation is observed in this case ?

(b) Explain any other two ways which help in this type of conservation.

(c) Besides zoological parks, mention one place that serves this purpose.


Question 29:

Study the graph given below and answer the questions that follow :

(i) Write the status of food and space in the curves a and b.

(ii) In the absence of predators, which one of the two curves would appropriately depict the prey population ?

(iii) 'Time' has been shown on x-axis and there is a parallel dotted line above it. Give the significance of this dotted line.




Question 30:

Answer the following questions :

(i) Define 'predation'.

(ii) Why is predation required in a community of different organisms ? Give any two points.

(iii) Why are predators 'prudent' in nature ?


Question 31:

Gene expresses itself in a cell system as a protein/enzyme. How an expression of gene occurs in a cell system, when it needs to occur and how the gene expression is regulated in prokaryotic cell system was studied by the combined efforts of Francois Jacob, a geneticist and Jacques Monod, a biochemist. For their work on lactose metabolism in E. coli and introducing the concept of "lac operon", they were awarded the Nobel Prize in 1965.

It is said that "lac operon" has to be operational at a very low level in the bacterial cell all the time. Justify.


Question 32:

Gene expresses itself in a cell system as a protein/enzyme. How an expression of gene occurs in a cell system, when it needs to occur and how the gene expression is regulated in prokaryotic cell system was studied by the combined efforts of Francois Jacob, a geneticist and Jacques Monod, a biochemist. For their work on lactose metabolism in E. coli and introducing the concept of "lac operon", they were awarded the Nobel Prize in 1965.

How are the structural genes activated in the lac operon in E. coli ?


Question 33:

Gene expresses itself in a cell system as a protein/enzyme. How an expression of gene occurs in a cell system, when it needs to occur and how the gene expression is regulated in prokaryotic cell system was studied by the combined efforts of Francois Jacob, a geneticist and Jacques Monod, a biochemist. For their work on lactose metabolism in E. coli and introducing the concept of "lac operon", they were awarded the Nobel Prize in 1965.

Why is the regulation of operon called negative regulation ?


Question 34:

Gene expresses itself in a cell system as a protein/enzyme. How an expression of gene occurs in a cell system, when it needs to occur and how the gene expression is regulated in prokaryotic cell system was studied by the combined efforts of Francois Jacob, a geneticist and Jacques Monod, a biochemist. For their work on lactose metabolism in E. coli and introducing the concept of "lac operon", they were awarded the Nobel Prize in 1965.

Why is lac operon said to be a transcriptionally regulated system ?


Question 35:

Immunity in our body is of two types (i) Innate immunity, and (ii) Acquired immunity. Innate immunity is a non-specific defence mechanism, whereas Acquired immunity is pathogen specific. Acquired immunity is characterised by memory. Antibodies are specific to antigens and there are four types of antibodies produced in our body - IgA, IgE, IgG and IgM. It shows primary response where it encounters the pathogen for the first time and secondary response during the subsequent encounters with the same antigen/pathogen. These immune responses are carried out with the help of two special types of lymphocytes present in the blood.

Name the two types of specialised cells which carry out the primary and secondary responses.


Question 36:

Immunity in our body is of two types (i) Innate immunity, and (ii) Acquired immunity. Innate immunity is a non-specific defence mechanism, whereas Acquired immunity is pathogen specific. Acquired immunity is characterised by memory. Antibodies are specific to antigens and there are four types of antibodies produced in our body - IgA, IgE, IgG and IgM. It shows primary response where it encounters the pathogen for the first time and secondary response during the subsequent encounters with the same antigen/pathogen. These immune responses are carried out with the help of two special types of lymphocytes present in the blood.

Name any two barriers present in our body that provide innate immunity.


Question 37:

Immunity in our body is of two types (i) Innate immunity, and (ii) Acquired immunity. Innate immunity is a non-specific defence mechanism, whereas Acquired immunity is pathogen specific. Acquired immunity is characterised by memory. Antibodies are specific to antigens and there are four types of antibodies produced in our body - IgA, IgE, IgG and IgM. It shows primary response where it encounters the pathogen for the first time and secondary response during the subsequent encounters with the same antigen/pathogen. These immune responses are carried out with the help of two special types of lymphocytes present in the blood.

The organ transplants (grafts) are often rejected if not taken from suitable compatible persons. Mention the characteristic of our immune system that is responsible for the rejection.


Question 38:

Immunity in our body is of two types (i) Innate immunity, and (ii) Acquired immunity. Innate immunity is a non-specific defence mechanism, whereas Acquired immunity is pathogen specific. Acquired immunity is characterised by memory. Antibodies are specific to antigens and there are four types of antibodies produced in our body - IgA, IgE, IgG and IgM. It shows primary response where it encounters the pathogen for the first time and secondary response during the subsequent encounters with the same antigen/pathogen. These immune responses are carried out with the help of two special types of lymphocytes present in the blood.

How is active immunity different from passive immunity ? Write any two differences.


Question 39:

Write the types and locations of the genes causing thalassemia in humans. State the cause and symptoms of the disease. How is sickle-cell anemia different from this disease ?


Question 40:

(i) Enlist any four prime goals of the Human Genome Project (HGP).

(ii) List the two methodologies which were involved in the human genome project. Mention how they were used.

(iii) Expand "YAC" and mention what it was used for.


Question 41:

(i) EcoR I has played a very important role in rDNA technology.

(I) Explain the convention for naming EcoR I.

(II) Write the recognition site of this endonuclease restriction enzyme.

(ii) Name the overhanging stretches of DNA produced by these restriction enzymes. Describe their role in the formation of rDNA.


Question 42:

(i) Insertional inactivation is a method to detect the recombinant DNA. Explain this method.

(ii) Name the commonly used vector for transferring genes in plants from bacteria.

(iii) How is this able to transform a normal plant cell into a tumour ?


Question 43:

Study the flow chart given below. Name the hormones involved at each stage and explain their functions.

Hypothalamus
↓
Pituitary
↓
Ovary
↓
Pregnancy


Question 44:

(i) Draw a diagram of L.S. of maize grain and label its any six parts.

(ii) Differentiate between perisperm and endosperm giving one example of each.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 question paper is of 70 marks and has 33 questions in five sections, A to E, all compulsory. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the marking rules from the official CBSE marking scheme.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern 2026

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
A Q1 - Q16 Multiple choice questions 1 16
B Q17 - Q21 Very short answer type 2 10
C Q22 - Q28 Short answer type 3 21
D Q29 - Q30 Case-based questions 4 8
E Q31 - Q33 Long answer type 5 15
Total 33 questions 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Marking Scheme 2026

Marking point How it is applied
Value-point marking Marks are awarded against the value points (steps) given in the official marking scheme; the marks of an answer are split across its steps.
Own expression The marking scheme carries suggested value points only. A correct answer in the student's own words is awarded due marks.
Competency-based questions If a competency-based answer is not from the marking scheme but shows the correct competency, due marks are awarded.
Errors An error is penalised only once; no marks are deducted for its cumulative effect.
Incorrect answer A totally incorrect answer is awarded zero (0) marks.
Choice (OR) questions If both options of a question with internal choice are attempted, marks are awarded for both and the higher score is taken; if only one option is attempted, the other is marked NA (not attempted).
Scale of marks The full scale of 0 to 70 marks is used and full marks are awarded whenever the answer deserves them.


CBSE Class 12 Biology Unit-Wise Weightage

Unit No. Unit Name Marks
VI Reproduction 16
VII Genetics and Evolution 20
VIII Biology and Human Welfare 12
IX Biotechnology and Its Applications 12
X Ecology and Environment 10
Total — 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Paper Analysis