CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 3 - (57/2/3) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted Class 12 Biology exam on March 27, 2026 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Biology theory paper is of 70 marks, and the internal assessment is of 30 marks.

Biology question paper includes MCQs (1 mark each), short-answer type questions (2 & 3 marks each), case-study based questions (4 marks each) and long-answer type questions (5 marks each) which makes up the total of 70 marks.

Download CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 3 - (57/2/3) Question Paper 2026 with detailed solutions from the links provided below.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper 2026 (Set 3 - 57/2/3) with Solution PDF

CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 Set 3 (57/2/3) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

1. Caenorhabditis elegans is a nematode which is

  • (A) Free living and non-pathogenic
  • (B) Endoparasitic and pathogenic
  • (C) Free living and pathogenic
  • (D) Ecto-parasitic and non-pathogenic

Question 2:

2. Self-incompatibility in some flowering plants is a _____ mechanism that prevents self-fertilization.

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option :

  • (A) Morphological
  • (B) Physiological
  • (C) Anatomical
  • (D) Genetic

Question 3:

3. Which of the following traits studied by Mendel in pea plant is a recessive trait ?

  • (A) Tall stem
  • (B) Green pod
  • (C) Green seed
  • (D) Violet flower

Question 4:

Genetically modified tobacco plants were produced using Agrobacterium vectors. Which property of Agrobacterium helps in carrying nematode specific genes into the host plant ?

  • (A) Infectious for monocot plant ; has Ti plasmid
  • (B) Infectious for dicot plant ; has Ti plasmid
  • (C) Infectious for plants and animals ; has Ti plasmids
  • (D) Infectious for monocot and dicot plants ; has cry gene

Question 5:

Observe the contents 1, 2, 3 and 4 of soil samples I, II and III shown in the graph. If the temperature and moisture of all soil samples are identical, which soil sample(s) will show faster decomposition ?



  • (A) Soil Sample I
  • (B) Soil Sample II
  • (C) Soil Sample III
  • (D) Both Soil Samples II and III

Question 6:

6. Current percentage of tropical rainforests covering the Earth's land surface is

  • (A) 14%
  • (B) 6%
  • (C) 8%
  • (D) 15%

Question 7:

Study the given pedigree and identify the disease represented.



  • (A) Sickle cell Anaemia
  • (B) Haemophilia
  • (C) Colour blindness
  • (D) Down's syndrome

Question 8:

Given below are stages of embryo sac formation from megaspore mother cell. Identify the correct option for the cell division marked a, b, c and d.

[Flow chart: Megaspore Mother cell, arrow a, Megaspore Dyad, arrow b, Megaspore Tetrad, arrow c, Functional Megaspore, arrow d, 7-celled stage of Embryo Sac]



  • (A) a - Meiosis-I, b - No division, c - Mitosis, d - Meiosis-II
  • (B) a - Meiosis-I, b - Meiosis-II, c - No division, d - Mitosis
  • (C) a - Mitosis, b - Meiosis-I, c - Meiosis-II, d - No division
  • (D) a - No division, b - Mitosis, c - Meiosis-I, d - Meiosis-II

Question 9:

What could be the reason of extinction of Abingdon Tortoise from Galapagos Islands ?

  • (A) Intraspecific Competition
  • (B) Predation
  • (C) Parasitism
  • (D) Interspecific Competition

Question 10:

What conclusion can be drawn if the forelimbs of an aquatic animal and a terrestrial animal have similar anatomical structure ?

  • (A) Live in same habitat
  • (B) Share common ancestors
  • (C) Forelimbs perform same functions
  • (D) Forelimbs are analogous

Question 11:

If any organ fails to function satisfactorily, transplantation is the only remedy to enable the patient to live a normal life.

All of the following are true w.r.t. transplantation except -

  • (A) Tissue matching is essential before undertaking any graft.
  • (B) T-lymphocytes play an important role in graft rejection.
  • (C) Patient takes immuno-suppressants for first few weeks only after transplantation.
  • (D) Blood group matching is important before transplantation.

Question 12:

Which of the following is used to visualize DNA bands under UV light after gel electrophoresis ?

  • (A) Acetocarmine
  • (B) Safranine
  • (C) Ethidium Bromide
  • (D) Potassium Iodide

Question 13:

Assertion (A) : DNA Ligase is used to join DNA fragments.

Reason (R) : It catalyses the formation of glycosidic bonds between nucleotides.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, Reason (R) is true.

Question 14:

Assertion (A) : Apomixis leads to production of genetically identical off-springs.

Reason (R) : Apomixis involves fertilization between two genetically similar plants.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, Reason (R) is true.

Question 15:

Assertion (A) : Under a particular set of selection pressure, organisms evolve towards the most efficient reproductive strategy.

Reason (R) : Populations evolve to maximise their reproductive fitness in the habitat where they live.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, Reason (R) is true.

Question 16:

Assertion (A) : Microbes are used for commercial production of alcohol and beverages.

Reason (R) : Yeast converts glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide during fermentation.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, Reason (R) is true.

Question 17:

(i) Name the organ that forms a connection between foetus and the uterus of a pregnant human female.

(ii) How does it support both nutrition and hormonal regulation ?


Question 18:

Give reasons for :

(i) All copulations do not lead to pregnancy.

(ii) Meiosis I in spermatogenesis and oogenesis are markedly different.


Question 19:

A patent with Type I diabetes is unable to produce sufficient insulin.

(a) How has recombinant DNA technology helped in addressing this problem ?

(b) Mention its advantage over animal derived insulin.


Question 20:

Study the flow chart and answer the following questions :

(a) Identify A, B and C in the flow chart.

(b) Give one another example of bio-fertilizer B.




Question 21:

Explain the type of interaction between :

(i) Egret and Cattle

(ii) Cuckoo and Crow


Question 22:

Biodiversity exists at various levels within an ecosystem. Explain biodiversity at genetic and ecological level.


Question 23:

The diagram below shows the sequence of amino acids in part of haemoglobin molecule.

[Diagram: haemoglobin chain Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Glu; mRNA line; DNA line with triplets CAT, GTA, AAT, TGA, GGA, CTT (the T marked with *), CTC. Key: Val = valine, His = histidine, Leu = leucine, Thr = threonine, Pro = proline, Glu = glutamic acid]

(i) If the base T (marked with *) is substituted with A, in "CTT" of DNA strand how would it affect the haemoglobin chain ?

(ii) Name the condition and the effects associated with the above substitution.




Question 24:

DNA is considered a more stable genetic material than RNA. Justify this statement with suitable reasons.


Question 25:

22. (a) A person inhales dust and pathogens but does not always fall sick. Explain how the body protects against such infections.

(b) Name and describe any two barriers involved in this protection.


Question 26:

(a) What is a genetic code ?

(b) Why did scientists feel the need to propose a genetic code ?

(c) Genetic code is said to be "Universal". Why ?


Question 27:

There are limitations of traditional breeding techniques that led to promotion of micro-propagation ?

(a) Mention two advantages of micropropagation.

(b) Give two examples where it is commercially adopted.


Question 28:

(a) Give the scientific name of the organism used by Morgan to study sex-linked traits.

(b) Write any four reasons why this organism made it an ideal experimental model.


Question 29:

(a) Compare homologous and analogous organs by giving any one point of difference.

(b) Mention the type of evolution each represents and give one example of each from plants and animals.


Question 30:

Draw a neat diagram of enlarged view of one microsporangium of a Young anther of an angiosperm. Label the different layers of the wall and write the functions of the outermost and innermost layer.


Question 31:

Study the diagram given below :

(a) Name and explain the procedure shown in the diagram. Mention one of its advantage and one disadvantage.

(b) How is Saheli different from other oral pills in terms of its composition and advantage ?




Question 32:

Gene manipulation is a fast emerging science. It started with the development of recombinant DNA molecules. This technology which mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments is based on two most important discoveries in bacteria - presence of plasmid and restriction endonucleases. The science of r-DNA technology took birth when Cohen and Boyer (1973) were able to produce a piece of gene containing foreign DNA introduced into plasmid of E.coli.

(a) Name one core technique of biotechnology that alters the genetic material.


Question 33:

Gene manipulation is a fast emerging science. It started with the development of recombinant DNA molecules. This technology which mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments is based on two most important discoveries in bacteria - presence of plasmid and restriction endonucleases. The science of r-DNA technology took birth when Cohen and Boyer (1973) were able to produce a piece of gene containing foreign DNA introduced into plasmid of E.coli.

(b) What is a plasmid ? Mention its importance in biotechnology.


Question 34:

Gene manipulation is a fast emerging science. It started with the development of recombinant DNA molecules. This technology which mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments is based on two most important discoveries in bacteria - presence of plasmid and restriction endonucleases. The science of r-DNA technology took birth when Cohen and Boyer (1973) were able to produce a piece of gene containing foreign DNA introduced into plasmid of E.coli.

(c) Which gene was isolated by Cohen and Boyer and from which bacteria ?


Question 35:

Gene manipulation is a fast emerging science. It started with the development of recombinant DNA molecules. This technology which mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments is based on two most important discoveries in bacteria - presence of plasmid and restriction endonucleases. The science of r-DNA technology took birth when Cohen and Boyer (1973) were able to produce a piece of gene containing foreign DNA introduced into plasmid of E.coli.

(c) How is the action of exonuclease different from that of endonuclease ?


Question 36:

Below is shown a pond that represents a self-sustaining natural ecosystem with both biotic and abiotic components interacting in a balanced food web.

Based on the diagram, answer the questions :

Mention two abiotic components of a pond ecosystem.




Question 37:

Below is shown a pond that represents a self-sustaining natural ecosystem with both biotic and abiotic components interacting in a balanced food web.

Based on the diagram, answer the questions :

Differentiate between the roles of producers and decomposers in such an ecosystem.




Question 38:

Below is shown a pond that represents a self-sustaining natural ecosystem with both biotic and abiotic components interacting in a balanced food web.

Based on the diagram, answer the questions :

Draw a simple food chain operating in such an ecosystem and label each trophic level.




Question 39:

Below is shown a pond that represents a self-sustaining natural ecosystem with both biotic and abiotic components interacting in a balanced food web.

Based on the diagram, answer the questions :

Why is transfer of energy not 100% efficient between trophic levels ?




Question 40:

In the given diagram, A is an embryonic stage that gets transformed into B, which in turn gets implanted in the endometrium of human female.

(i) (1) Identify A, B, C and D.

(2) State the fate of C immediately after implantation.

(3) Name the special cells found in C and their function.

(ii) What is the role of oxytocin during parturition ? Where is it released from ?




Question 41:

Sexually transmitted infections are a major threat to our society. So it is said that "Prevention is better than cure".

(i) Write the three simple principles to be followed to prevent such infections.

(ii) How can sex education programs in schools help in improving reproductive health ? (4 points)


Question 42:

A 30 year old man was admitted to a hospital with recurrent infections, weight loss, prolonged fever. His blood report showed a decline in count of T-Lymphocytes thus affecting immune system.

(i) Identify the disease and its causative agent.

(ii) How did the pathogen affect the immune system once it entered the body ? Explain.

(iii) Mention two major modes of its transmission.


Question 43:

(i) Why are microbes considered effective biocontrol agents in sustainable agriculture ?

(ii) Explain the role of the following as biocontrol agents naming the pests or diseases they help to control :

(1) A Bacterium

(2) A Fungus

(3) Virus


Question 44:

Observe the segment of mRNA given below and answers the questions given below :

(i) Explain and illustrate the steps involved to make fully processed hn RNA.

(ii) Gene encoding RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase III have been affected by mutation.

Explain its impact on the synthesis of polypeptide giving reasons.




Question 45:

In a particular cattle, the coat colour red and white are controlled by single pair of alleles. A calf that receives allele for red coat from mother and allele for white coat from father shows equal number of red and white hairs on its coat.

(i) Is this an example of Co-dominance or incomplete dominance. Give a reason for your answer.

(ii) With the help of a genetic cross upto \( \mathrm{F_2} \) generation, explain what will be the consequent phenotype of calf when

(1) Red is dominant over white,

(2) Red is incompletely dominant.


CBSE Class 12 Biology Unit-Wise Weightage

Unit No. Unit Name Marks
VI Reproduction 16
VII Genetics and Evolution 20
VIII Biology and Human Welfare 12
IX Biotechnology and Its Applications 12
X Ecology and Environment 10
Total — 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Paper Analysis