CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 2 - (57/1/2) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted Class 12 Biology exam on March 27, 2026 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Biology theory paper is of 70 marks, and the internal assessment is of 30 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

Biology question paper includes the following types of questions:

  • MCQs: 1 mark each
  • Short-answer type questions: 2 & 3 marks each
  • Case-study based questions: 4 marks each
  • Long-answer type questions: 5 marks each
  • Total: 70 marks

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper 2026 Set 2 - (57/1/2) with Solution PDF

CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 Set 2 (57/1/2) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:

  • (A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • (B) a-ii, b-v, c-i, d-iii
  • (C) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  • (D) a-v, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

Question 2:

Microbes commonly used in kitchen are

  • (A) Lactobacillus and Yeast
  • (B) Penicillium and Yeast
  • (C) Microspora and E.coli
  • (D) Rhizopus and Lactobacillus

Question 3:

The features of some structures of human male reproductive system are given below. Choose the correct option that matches the features with the structures.

(i) It opens into the Vasa efferentia through rete testis.

(ii) It carries semen as well as urine.

(iii) It maintains temperature (2 - 2.5\( ^{\circ}\mathrm{C} \)) lower than body temperature for sperm formation.

(iv) It leads to vas deferens that ascends to the abdomen.

  • (A) (i) Seminal vesicle, (ii) Urethra, (iii) Scrotum, (iv) Seminiferous tubule
  • (B) (i) Prostrate, (ii) Scrotum, (iii) Testes, (iv) Vas Deferens
  • (C) (i) Seminiferous tubule, (ii) Urethra, (iii) Scrotum, (iv) Epididymis
  • (D) (i) Seminiferous tubule, (ii) Vas Deferens, (iii) Urethra, (iv) Sertoli cells

Question 4:

Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for gaining products of economic importance is called

  • (A) Exploitation
  • (B) Bio-prospecting
  • (C) Bio-patenting
  • (D) Bio-piracy

Question 5:

Which connective tissue connects ovary to pelvic wall and uterus?

  • (A) Tendons
  • (B) Ligaments
  • (C) Cartilage
  • (D) Bone

Question 6:

Which of the following is not a component of detritus food chain ?

  • (A) Dead Leaves
  • (B) Bacteria
  • (C) Fungi
  • (D) Zooplankton

Question 7:

Identify the plant in which emasculation is not required for artificial hybridization.

  • (A) Rice
  • (B) Wheat
  • (C) Pea
  • (D) Papaya

Question 8:

Pomato was produced by fusing protoplasts of

  • (A) Tomato and Potato
  • (B) Pomegranate and Tomato
  • (C) Pomegranate and Potato
  • (D) Pomegranate, Potato and Tomato

Question 9:

Which of the following sacred groves is found in Meghalaya?

  • (A) Jaintia hills
  • (B) Bastar
  • (C) Chanda
  • (D) Sarguja

Question 10:

Messelson and Stahl's experiment carried out centrifugation in \( \mathrm{CsCl_2} \) density gradient to separate :

  • (A) DNA from RNA
  • (B) DNA from protein
  • (C) RNA from protein
  • (D) Normal DNA from heavy DNA

Question 11:

Which one of the following is not a component required for Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) ?

  • (A) Template DNA
  • (B) Primers
  • (C) DNA Ligase
  • (D) DNA Polymerase

Question 12:

In the following figure, two ways of pairing of two homologous pairs of chromosomes are shown. Which of the following phenomena is expressed?

  • (A) Linkage of genes
  • (B) Independent assortment of genes
  • (C) Multiple alleles
  • (D) Incomplete dominance

Question 13:

Assertion (A) : When we see stars, we are apparently peeping into the past.

Reason (R) : What we see today is an object whose emitted light started its journey millions of years back reaching our eyes now.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 14:

Assertion (A) : Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments in secondary treatment of sewage.

Reason (R) : Flocs help in digestion of solid waste by anaerobic respiration.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 15:

Assertion (A) : In terrestrial ecosystem much larger fraction of energy flows through grazing food chain.
Reason (R) : Grazing food chain may be connected to Detritus food chain at some levels.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 16:

Assertion (A) : The milk produced by transgenic cow 'Rosie' was nutritionally more balanced product for human babies than natural cow milk.
Reason (R) : It was human protein enriched milk containing human alpha lactaglobulin.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 17:

(a) What is the role of LAB (Lactic Acid Bacteria) in preparation of curd ?

(b) Mention two health benefits of consuming curd.


Question 18:

Name the muscular and glandular layers of female uterus. Mention one function of each.


Question 19:

(i) Why are STI (Sexually Transmitted Infections) not detected in time ? (2 pts.)

(ii) Write two complications caused in later stages.


Question 20:

Write the importance of following in biotechnology :

(a) Ori (Origin of Replication)

(b) Enzyme Polymerase used in Polymerase Chain Reaction


Question 21:

Given below is a pyramid found in an ecosystem, where each bar represents the standing crop available in the trophic level.


Question 22:

In an ecosystem there was loss of biodiversity due to some project in that area.
(i) How will biodiversity be affected? (2 points)


Question 23:

List two major causes of loss of biodiversity.


Question 24:

Given below is a pyramid found in an ecosystem, where each bar represents the standing crop available in the trophic level.

(i) Identify the kind of pyramid and with the help of an example explain the conditions where this kind of pyramid is possible in nature.

(ii) Write any two limitations of ecological pyramids.




Question 25:

Analyse the following two cases of sex determination in different organisms:
Case I: Males have (XO) sex chromosomes and females have two copies of same sex chromosome (XX).
Case II: Females have two different sex chromosomes (ZW) and males have two copies of same sex chromosome (ZZ).
Identify the type of heterogamety in each case, giving one example of each.


Question 26:

(i) Differentiate between a DNA and RNA nucleotide.

(ii) Name the two types of bonds present within a single nucleotide.


Question 27:

A farmer grew two varieties of corn crop in field A and B. He grew normal corn crops in field A and GM corn crops in field B.

He observed that corn borers attacked only in field A. To control it, spores of Bt were sprayed on field A.

(a) Name the gene in the spores responsible for control of pest.

(b) What effect will the spores of Bt have on insect pest ?

(c) How has corn plants of field B developed resistance against this pest ? Explain.


Question 28:

Observe the given picture carefully. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 100 base pairs to 1800 base pairs were separated by electrophoresis on agarose gel with the following arrangement:


Question 29:

Observe the given picture carefully. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 100 base pairs to 1800 base pairs were separated by electrophoresis on agarose gel with the following arrangement :

(a) What result will be obtained in staining with ethidium bromide ? Explain with reasons.




Question 30:

Observe the given picture carefully. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 100 base pairs to 1800 base pairs were separated by electrophoresis on agarose gel with the following arrangement :

(b) The above setup was modified as shown below and a band with 100 base pairs was obtained at X.

What changes were made to the previous design to get a band at ‘X’ ? Why did the band appear at ‘X’ ?


Question 31:

Mention the scientific name of the source plant and the part from which opioids are extracted.


Question 32:

How are morphine and heroin related? Mention the effect each of them has on human body.


Question 33:

Give the schematic representation of oogenesis in human female. Indicate chromosome number also.


Question 34:

Do all pollen grains remain viable for the same length of time? Support your answer with two suitable examples.


Question 35:

How are pollen grains stored in pollen banks?


Question 36:

What is pedigree analysis? Mention its importance in human genetics. (2 pts.)


Question 37:

Analyse the following pedigree and write the (i) Pattern of inheritance. (ii) Give one example of disease showing such an inheritance pattern.


Question 38:

List any two factors that disturb the genetic equilibrium.


Question 39:

How is Hardy-Weinberg expression (\(p^{2} + 2pq + q^{2} = 1\)) derived?


Question 40:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions: 


Question 41:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

What can you infer about the genotype of parents in crosses I and II ?




Question 42:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

Which genetic cross is represented by these crosses ?




Question 43:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

Looking at bar graph of cross III, identify the type of cross performed and its importance in genetics.




Question 44:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

(c) What conclusion can you draw from the results of bar graphs of crosses I and II ? Name the genetic principle illustrated.


Question 45:

Identify and define the ecological phenomenon demonstrated by this observation.


Question 46:

State the principle that explains the elimination of one species.


Question 47:

Two different species can compete for the same resource. Give another example of it.


Question 48:

How do species avoid competition in nature? Explain with an example.


Question 49:

In angiosperms, the female gametophyte develops from a single cell of megasporangium.

(i) Name that cell of megasporangium and describe the sequential changes it undergoes to form a mature female gametophyte.

(ii) Draw a well labelled diagram of mature female gametophyte. Label any four parts.


Question 50:

Given below are certain situations related to birth control. Analyse each situation carefully and suggest appropriate contraceptive method that could be used. Also explain its mode of action.

Situation 1 - To prevent entry of sperm into cervix.

Situation 2 - Devices that are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the vagina.

Situation 3 - Effective emergency contraceptive.

Situation 4 - Permanent method for male partner.

Situation 5 - Surgical method in female to prevent pregnancy.


Question 51:

Name the different types of microorganisms used as bio-fertilizers in organic farming and explain how each contributes to soil fertility.


Question 52:

What are bio-fertilizers?


Question 53:

Write two advantages of using bio-fertilizers over chemical fertilizers.


Question 54:

(i) Name the protozoan species that is responsible for causing the most serious and even fatal malarial disease.

(ii) Name the host in which the parasite completes its sexual stages and explain the changes taking place.

(iii) How does the parasite damage the human body after entering the blood stream ?

(iv) Suggest two effective preventive measures to control the spread of this disease in endemic regions.


Question 55:

Given below is a stretch of DNA showing the coding strand of structural gene of transcription unit.
5' - ATG ACC GTA TTT TCT GTA GTG CCC GTA CTT CAG GCA TTA 3'
(i) Write the corresponding template strand and m-RNA strand that will be transcribed along with its polarity.
(ii) If GUA of transcribed mRNA is an intron, then depict the sequence involved in formation of mRNA / mature / processed hnRNA strand :
(1) In a bacterium
(2) In humans
(iii) How many amino acids the resulting polypeptide will have after the process of translation in humans?


Question 56:

(i) Watson and Crick's discovery of double helical structure was based on which two findings. Also mention the name of the scientists associated with these findings.

(ii) Write down the salient features of double helix structure of DNA (any three points).

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 question paper is of 70 marks and has 33 questions in five sections, A to E, all compulsory. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the marking rules from the official CBSE marking scheme.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern 2026

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
A Q1 - Q16 Multiple choice questions 1 16
B Q17 - Q21 Very short answer type 2 10
C Q22 - Q28 Short answer type 3 21
D Q29 - Q30 Case-based questions 4 8
E Q31 - Q33 Long answer type 5 15
Total 33 questions 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Marking Scheme 2026

Marking point How it is applied
Value-point marking Marks are awarded against the value points (steps) given in the official marking scheme; the marks of an answer are split across its steps.
Own expression The marking scheme carries suggested value points only. A correct answer in the student's own words is awarded due marks.
Competency-based questions If a competency-based answer is not from the marking scheme but shows the correct competency, due marks are awarded.
Errors An error is penalised only once; no marks are deducted for its cumulative effect.
Incorrect answer A totally incorrect answer is awarded zero (0) marks.
Choice (OR) questions If both options of a question with internal choice are attempted, marks are awarded for both and the higher score is taken; if only one option is attempted, the other is marked NA (not attempted).
Scale of marks The full scale of 0 to 70 marks is used and full marks are awarded whenever the answer deserves them.


CBSE Class 12 Biology Unit-Wise Weightage

Unit No. Unit Name Marks
VI Reproduction 16
VII Genetics and Evolution 20
VIII Biology and Human Welfare 12
IX Biotechnology and Its Applications 12
X Ecology and Environment 10
Total — 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Paper Analysis