CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment Set 3 - (57/7/3) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Biology Compartment (supplementary) examination on July 28, 2026, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Biology paper is of 70 marks and the time allowed is 3 hours. This paper carries the Q.P. code 57/7/3 and is of Set 3. The question paper was handed out at 10:15 AM, and the first 15 minutes were given for reading it.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

The paper has 33 questions in five sections, A to E, and all questions are compulsory:

  • Section A has 16 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each
  • Section B has 5 very short answer questions of 2 marks each
  • Section C has 7 short answer questions of 3 marks each
  • Section D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each
  • Section E has 3 long answer questions of 5 marks each
  • There is no overall choice, but an internal choice is given in Sections B, D and E
  • Neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary

CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment Set 3 - (57/7/3) Question Paper 2026 PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment 2026 Set 3 (57/7/3) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Identify the disease which is an inborn error of metabolism and is also inherited as the autosomal recessive trait.

  • (A) Thalassemia
  • (B) Haemophilia
  • (C) Down syndrome
  • (D) Phenylketonuria

Question 2:

The undifferentiated sheath that encloses the radicle and root cap in a monocot embryo, is known as :

  • (A) Coleoptile
  • (B) Coleorrhiza
  • (C) Epiblast
  • (D) Scutellum

Question 3:

Choose the correct option that refers to adaptive radiation.

  • (A) Evolution of different species from a common ancestor to other geographical areas
  • (B) Migration of members of different species to a common geographical area
  • (C) Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
  • (D) Evolution by anthropogenic action

Question 4:

The path of the sperm transport is shown below. Identify P and Q and select the correct option.

Seminiferous tubules→Rete testis→P→Epididymis→Q→Urethra

  • (A) P - Vasa efferentia, Q - Ureter
  • (B) P - Ejaculatory duct, Q - Vas deferens
  • (C) P - Vasa efferentia, Q - Vas deferens
  • (D) P - Vas deferens, Q - Vasa efferentia

Question 5:

Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in which of the following plants ? Choose the correct option.

  • (A) Castor and Coconut
  • (B) Coconut and Groundnut
  • (C) Groundnut and Pea
  • (D) Castor and Pea

Question 6:

Biocontrol agents like Dragonflies are used to get rid of which of the following pests/insects ?

  • (A) Aphids
  • (B) Mosquitoes
  • (C) Caterpillar of butterflies
  • (D) Cotton bollworms

Question 7:

Which of the following options correctly depicts the recognition site for EcoRI ?

  • (A) \( \begin{array}{l} \mathrm{G}-\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{A}\overset{\downarrow}{-}\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{C} \\ \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{T}\underset{\uparrow}{-}\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{G} \end{array} \)
  • (B) \( \begin{array}{l} \mathrm{G}-\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{C}\overset{\downarrow}{-}\mathrm{G}-\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{C} \\ \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{G}\underset{\uparrow}{-}\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{G} \end{array} \)
  • (C) \( \begin{array}{l} \mathrm{G}\overset{\downarrow}{-}\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{G}-\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{C} \\ \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{G}-\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{T}\underset{\uparrow}{-}\mathrm{G} \end{array} \)
  • (D) \( \begin{array}{l} \mathrm{G}\overset{\downarrow}{-}\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{C} \\ \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{T}-\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{A}\underset{\uparrow}{-}\mathrm{G} \end{array} \)

Question 8:

The human protein which is being obtained from transgenic animals and is used to treat emphysema is :

  • (A) Alpha-lactalbumin
  • (B) Thyroxine
  • (C) \( \alpha \)-1-antitrypsin
  • (D) Insulin

Question 9:

Gambusia is a fish which is being introduced into ponds in order to check vector-borne diseases. Select the option that indicates the correct disease.

  • (A) Ascariasis
  • (B) Malaria
  • (C) Amoebiasis
  • (D) Typhoid

Question 10:

Which type of interaction is being shown in the figure given below ?



  • (A) Parasitism
  • (B) Commensalism
  • (C) Predation
  • (D) Amensalism

Question 11:

Which one of the following fish is being illegally introduced for aquaculture purposes and is posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers ?

  • (A) Clarias gariepinus
  • (B) Nile perch
  • (C) Climbing perch
  • (D) Protopterus

Question 12:

P and Q are required in the extension step of PCR to extend the primer sequences from the \( 3^{\prime} \) end of each primer. Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks P and Q.

  • (A) P - Ribonucleoside triphosphate, Q - DNA polymerase
  • (B) P - Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate, Q - Thermolabile Taq-polymerase
  • (C) P - Deoxynucleotides, Q - Thermostable DNA-polymerase
  • (D) P - Deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate, Q - Thermostable DNA-polymerase

Question 13:

Assertion (A) : Blastocyst becomes embeded in the endometrium of the uterus.

Reason (R) : The morula divides and transforms into blastocyst.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 14:

Assertion (A) : The two chains of DNA have antipolarity.

Reason (R) : In one chain of DNA, ribose sugar at \(5^{\prime}\) end consists of a free phosphate moiety, while at the other end, the ribose sugar has free \(3^{\prime}\) - OH group.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 15:

Assertion (A) : Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues are specialised immune barriers located on the skin.

Reason (R) : MALT constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in a human body.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 16:

Assertion (A) : ELISA is based on the principle of antigen antibody interaction.

Reason (R) : ELISA can detect the proteins/glycoproteins only when present in high concentration.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 17:

How is it possible in Oxalis and Viola plants, to produce assured seed sets even in the absence of pollinators ?


Question 18:

Write the ploidy of the cells of the nucellus, MMC (Megaspore Mother Cell), the functional megaspore and female gametophyte.


Question 19:

How can childless couples get help by the following assisted reproductive technologies ?

(a) GIFT

(b) ICSI


Question 20:

(i) Name the source plant of heroin drug. How is it obtained from the plant ?

(ii) Write the effects of heroin on the human body.


Question 21:

What is "withdrawal syndrome" ? List any two symptoms it is characterised by.


Question 22:

If a person is having karyotype 47, XXY, name the genetic disorder he is suffering from. Write down symptoms of such a genetic disorder.


Question 23:

Differentiate between grazing food chain and detritus food chain.


Question 24:

Construct a pyramid of biomass starting with Phytoplanktons and label three trophic levels. Is the pyramid upright or inverted ?


Question 25:

Define test cross. How does test cross help to determine the genotype of an individual ? Explain with the help of an example.


Question 26:

(a) Draw a labelled diagram of a human sperm. (Label any four parts)

(b) Define spermiogenesis and spermiation.


Question 27:

Explain any three different approaches used in the treatment of a person suffering from Adenosine Deaminase deficiency.


Question 28:

What are sacred groves ? Name any four sacred groves and mention the places where they are found in India.


Question 29:

(a) How does the human body respond to an allergen ? Which type of antibody is produced during allergic reactions ?

(b) Name the types of drugs that help in reducing the symptoms of allergic reactions.

(c) Name the chemicals released in the body during an allergic reaction.


Question 30:

Explain the Hardy-Weinberg principle with the help of an algebric equation.


Question 31:

(a) Name the type of interaction seen in each of the following examples.

(i) An orchid growing on branch of mango tree

(ii) Wasp pollinating fig inflorescence

(b) Also explain the above interactions shown by (i) and (ii).


Question 32:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease. Study the pedigree analysis given below showing the inheritance of the disease in a family and answer the questions that follow :

(a) Analyse the given pedigree chart to explain why Haemophilia is considered a sex-linked recessive disorder.




Question 33:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease. Study the pedigree analysis given below showing the inheritance of the disease in a family and answer the questions that follow :

(b) (i) The possibility of a human female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare. Explain.

(ii) Why do the sons of a haemophilic father never suffer from this disease ?




Question 34:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease. Study the pedigree analysis given below showing the inheritance of the disease in a family and answer the questions that follow :

(c) (i) Write the possible genotype of the individuals 2 and 5.




Question 35:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease. Study the pedigree analysis given below showing the inheritance of the disease in a family and answer the questions that follow :

(c) (ii) Why is haemophilia categorised as a Mendelian disorder ?




Question 36:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
Sewage is generated in large quantities in the urban areas. It is treated in sewage treatment-plants (STPs) to make it less polluted before discharging into any natural water body. Observe the flow chart given below and answer the questions that follow :

Primary effluent is passed into large aeration tank

↓

Effluent is passed into settling tank to form the sediment (activated sludge)

(a) Name the two products obtained after primary treatment of sewage.


Question 37:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
Sewage is generated in large quantities in the urban areas. It is treated in sewage treatment-plants (STPs) to make it less polluted before discharging into any natural water body. Observe the flow chart given below and answer the questions that follow :

Primary effluent is passed into large aeration tank

↓

Effluent is passed into settling tank to form the sediment (activated sludge)

(b) What happens to the activated sludge when it is passed into an anaerobic sludge digester ? Explain.


Question 38:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
Sewage is generated in large quantities in the urban areas. It is treated in sewage treatment-plants (STPs) to make it less polluted before discharging into any natural water body. Observe the flow chart given below and answer the questions that follow :

Primary effluent is passed into large aeration tank

↓

Effluent is passed into settling tank to form the sediment (activated sludge)

(c) (i) Name the two groups of microbes present in the primary effluent after it is passed into large aeration tanks.


Question 39:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
Sewage is generated in large quantities in the urban areas. It is treated in sewage treatment-plants (STPs) to make it less polluted before discharging into any natural water body. Observe the flow chart given below and answer the questions that follow :

Primary effluent is passed into large aeration tank

↓

Effluent is passed into settling tank to form the sediment (activated sludge)

(c) (ii) Define BOD. What happens to the BOD when organic matter present in the wastewater increases ?


Question 40:

(I) (i) State the role of selectable markers in rDNA technology.

(ii) Name two such selectable markers which are considered to be useful for E. coli cloning vector.

(iii) State two significances of "Ori" in E. coli cloning vector.

(II) How have biotechnologists effectively used Agrobacterium tumefaciens in plants and retroviruses in animals ? Explain.


Question 41:

Name and describe the technique that helps in separation and isolation of DNA fragments after cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases.


Question 42:

(i) How and why is charging of tRNA essential in the process of translation ?

(ii) State the function of ribosome as a catalyst in translation in bacteria.

(iii) Explain the process of binding of ribosomal units to mRNA during protein synthesis.

(iv) Where are untranslated regions located in mRNA ? Mention their role.


Question 43:

(i) State the arrangement of different genes, that in bacteria is referred to as "operon".

(ii) Draw a schematic labelled illustration of lac operon in a switched on state.

(iii) Describe the role of lactose in lac operon.


Question 44:

(a) Draw a flow chart to show hormonal control of the human male reproductive system.


Question 45:

(b) Explain the changes that the primary oocyte undergoes while in different follicular stages before ovulation.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment 2026 Set 3 - (57/7/3) Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
A Q1 - Q16 Multiple choice questions 1 16
B Q17 - Q21 Very short answer type 2 10
C Q22 - Q28 Short answer type 3 21
D Q29 - Q30 Case-based questions 4 8
E Q31 - Q33 Long answer type 5 15
Total 33 questions 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment 2026 Set 3 - (57/7/3) Question Paper FAQs

Ques. How many questions are there in the CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment 2026 paper (Set 3 - 57/7/3)?

Ans. The paper has 33 questions in five sections (A to E) and all of them are compulsory.

Ques. How are the marks divided in the Biology Compartment 2026 paper?

Ans. Section A carries 16 marks, Section B 10 marks, Section C 21 marks, Section D 8 marks and Section E 15 marks, for a total of 70 marks.

Ques. Is there any internal choice in the paper?

Ans. There is no overall choice. An internal choice is given in Sections B, D and E, and a candidate writes only one of the alternatives.

Ques. Where can I download the solutions of this paper?

Ans. The table above has the Collegedunia PDF of this paper with detailed solutions.

Ques. How much time is given for the CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment 2026 paper?

Ans. The paper is of 3 hours (10:30 AM to 1:30 PM). The question paper is distributed at 10:15 AM and candidates get 15 minutes to read it before they start writing.

Ques. When was the CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment 2026 exam held?

Ans. The Class 12 compartment (supplementary) paper of Biology was held on July 28, 2026.

Ques. Where can I get the official CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment question paper?

Ans. The official question papers are published on the CBSE website, cbse.gov.in.