CUET 2026 May 26 Shift 2 Physics Question Paper is available for download here. NTA is conducting the CUET 2026 exam from 11th May to 31st May.

  • CUET 2026 Physics exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes.
  • As per the marking scheme, 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.

Candidates can download CUET 2026 May 26 Shift 2 Physics Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.

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CUET 2026 Physics May 26 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

CUET May 26 Shift 2 Physics Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions


Question 1:

Assertion-Reason Type Question
Assertion (A): The magnetic field at the center of a circular current carrying loop is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.
Reason (R): According to Biot–Savart’s law, magnetic field produced by a current element is proportional to the current element.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
  • (B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
  • (C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
  • (D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
View Solution

Step 1: Recall Biot–Savart law.
Magnetic field due to a current element is: \[ dB \propto I \]
Hence magnetic field is directly proportional to current.
Step 2: Magnetic field at the center of circular loop.
For a circular loop: \[ B=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2R} \]
Thus: \[ B \propto I \]
Hence Assertion is true.
Step 3: Check the Reason.
Reason correctly explains why magnetic field depends on current.
Therefore: \[ \boxed{Both\ Assertion\ and\ Reason\ are\ true\ and\ Reason\ correctly\ explains\ Assertion} \]
Quick Tip: Remember: \[ B_{circular loop}=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2R} \] Magnetic field increases with current and decreases with radius.


Question 2:

Match the following electromagnetic waves with their correct energy order.

Column I Column II
(A) Gamma rays (I) Lowest frequency
(B) X-rays (II) Highest energy
(C) Microwaves (III) Used in radar communication
(D) Radio waves (IV) Used in medical imaging

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
View Solution

Step 1: Recall electromagnetic spectrum order.
Energy order: \[ Gamma\ rays\ >\ X-rays\ >\ UV\ >\ Visible\ >\ IR\ >\ Microwaves\ >\ Radio\ waves \]
Step 2: Match each wave.
\[ Gamma rays \rightarrow Highest\ energy \]
\[ X-rays \rightarrow Medical\ imaging \]
\[ Microwaves \rightarrow Radar\ communication \]
\[ Radio waves \rightarrow Lowest\ frequency \]
Therefore: \[ \boxed{A-II,\ B-IV,\ C-III,\ D-I} \]
Quick Tip: Remember: \[ E=hf \] Higher frequency means higher energy.


Question 3:

The ratio of de Broglie wavelength of an electron to that of a proton moving with the same kinetic energy is:

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\dfrac{m_p}{m_e}}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{m_p}{m_e}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\dfrac{m_e}{m_p}}\)
  • (D) \(1\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\sqrt{\dfrac{m_p}{m_e}}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall de Broglie wavelength formula.
\[ \lambda=\frac{h}{\sqrt{2mK}} \]
where: \[ m=mass, \qquad K=kinetic energy \]
Step 2: Compare electron and proton wavelengths.
For same kinetic energy: \[ \lambda \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{m}} \]
Thus: \[ \frac{\lambda_e}{\lambda_p} = \sqrt{\frac{m_p}{m_e}} \]
Therefore: \[ \boxed{\sqrt{\frac{m_p}{m_e}}} \]
Quick Tip: Remember: \[ \lambda \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{m}} \] Lighter particle has greater de Broglie wavelength.


Question 4:

A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be:

  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(1:2\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(4:1\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(1:2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall kinetic energy gained in electric field.
\[ K=qV \]
where: \[ q=charge, \qquad V=potential\ difference \]
Step 2: Calculate energies.
For proton: \[ K_p=eV \]
For alpha particle: \[ K_\alpha=2eV \]
Thus: \[ K_p:K_\alpha = 1:2 \]
Therefore: \[ \boxed{1:2} \]
Quick Tip: Remember: \[ K=qV \] Greater charge gains greater kinetic energy in same potential difference.


Question 5:

Assertion-Reason Type Question
Assertion (A): Torque acting on a current loop in a magnetic field is maximum when the plane of the loop is parallel to the magnetic field.
Reason (R): Torque on a magnetic dipole is given by: \[ \tau = MB\sin\theta \] where \(\theta\) is the angle between magnetic moment and magnetic field.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
  • (B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
  • (C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
  • (D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
View Solution

Step 1: Recall torque formula.
Torque on a magnetic dipole in a magnetic field is given by: \[ \tau = MB\sin\theta \]
Torque is maximum when: \[ \sin\theta = 1 \]
Thus: \[ \theta=90^\circ \]
Step 2: Relate angle with loop orientation.
Magnetic moment is perpendicular to plane of loop.
If magnetic moment is perpendicular to field: \[ \theta=90^\circ \] then plane of loop becomes parallel to magnetic field.
Thus Assertion is true.
Reason is also true and correctly explains Assertion.
Therefore: \[ \boxed{ Both\ Assertion\ and\ Reason\ are\ true\ and\ Reason\ is\ the\ correct\ explanation\ of\ Assertion.} \]
Quick Tip: Remember: \[ \tau_{\max}=MB \] Maximum torque occurs when magnetic moment is perpendicular to magnetic field.


Question 6:

The focal length of a concave mirror is \(20 cm\). If the object is placed at \(30 cm\) from the mirror, the image distance will be:

  • (A) \(60 cm\)
  • (B) \(30 cm\)
  • (C) \(12 cm\)
  • (D) \(24 cm\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(60\text{ cm}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Use mirror formula.
\[ \frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}+\frac{1}{u} \]
Given: \[ f=-20 cm, \qquad u=-30 cm \]
Step 2: Substitute values.
\[ \frac{1}{-20} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{-30} \]
\[ \frac{1}{v} = -\frac{1}{20} +\frac{1}{30} \]
\[ \frac{1}{v} = \frac{-3+2}{60} = -\frac{1}{60} \]
Thus: \[ v=-60 cm \]
Magnitude: \[ \boxed{60 cm} \]
Quick Tip: Remember sign convention: \[ f<0,\quad u<0 \] for concave mirrors.


Question 7:

The magnifying power of a simple microscope increases when:

  • (A) Focal length increases
  • (B) Focal length decreases
  • (C) Aperture decreases
  • (D) Radius of lens increases
Correct Answer: (B) Focal length decreases
View Solution

Step 1: Recall magnifying power formula.
\[ M=1+\frac{D}{f} \]
where: \[ D=least\ distance\ of\ distinct\ vision \]
Step 2: Analyze relation.
\[ M \propto \frac{1}{f} \]
Hence smaller focal length gives larger magnifying power.
Therefore: \[ \boxed{Focal\ length\ decreases} \]
Quick Tip: Remember: \[ Smaller\ focal\ length \Rightarrow Greater\ magnification \]


Question 8:

Match the following quantities with their SI units.

Column I Column II
(A) Magnetic flux (I) Tesla
(B) Magnetic field (II) Weber
(C) Capacitance (III) Farad
(D) Resistance (IV) Ohm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
View Solution

\[ Magnetic flux \rightarrow Weber \]
\[ Magnetic field \rightarrow Tesla \]
\[ Capacitance \rightarrow Farad \]
\[ Resistance \rightarrow Ohm \]
Thus: \[ \boxed{A-II,\ B-I,\ C-III,\ D-IV} \]
Quick Tip: Remember: \[ 1 Tesla = \frac{Weber}{m^2} \]


Question 9:

A photon has energy \(6 eV\). Its frequency is approximately:

  • (A) \(1.45\times10^{15} Hz\)
  • (B) \(6\times10^{15} Hz\)
  • (C) \(9\times10^{14} Hz\)
  • (D) \(3\times10^{8} Hz\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(1.45\times10^{15}\text{ Hz}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Use photon energy relation. \[ E=hf \]
Given: \[ E=6 eV \]
\[ 1 eV=1.6\times10^{-19} J \]
Thus: \[ E=9.6\times10^{-19} J \]
Step 2: Calculate frequency.
\[ f=\frac{E}{h} \]
\[ f= \frac{9.6\times10^{-19}} {6.63\times10^{-34}} \]
\[ f\approx1.45\times10^{15} Hz \]
Therefore: \[ \boxed{1.45\times10^{15} Hz} \]
Quick Tip: Remember: \[ 1 eV=1.6\times10^{-19} J \]


Question 10:

Assertion-Reason Type Question
Assertion (A): In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends upon frequency of incident radiation.
Reason (R): Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons increases with frequency.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
  • (B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
  • (C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
  • (D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
View Solution

Step 1: Recall Einstein photoelectric equation.
\[ K_{\max}=hf-\phi \]
Thus: \[ K_{\max}\propto f \]
Step 2: Relation with stopping potential.
\[ eV_0=K_{\max} \]
Hence: \[ V_0\propto f \]
Thus stopping potential depends on frequency.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason correctly explains Assertion.
Therefore: \[ \boxed{Both\ Assertion\ and\ Reason\ are\ true\ and\ Reason\ is\ the\ correct\ explanation\ of\ Assertion.} \]
Quick Tip: Remember: \[ V_0=\frac{hf-\phi}{e} \] Stopping potential increases with frequency.

CUET UG 2026 Exam Pattern

Parameter Details
Exam Name Common University Entrance Test (CUET UG) 2026
Conducting Body National Testing Agency (NTA)
Exam Mode Computer-Based Test (CBT)
Exam Duration 60 minutes per test
Total Sections 3 (Languages, Domain Subjects, General Test)
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Questions per Test 50 questions (all compulsory)
Marking Scheme +5 for correct, -1 for incorrect
Maximum Marks 250 marks per test
Maximum Subject Choices 5 subjects in total
Syllabus Base Class 12 NCERT (mainly for Domain Subjects)

CUET UG 2026 Paper Analysis