CUET 2026 May 20 Shift 1 Accountancy Question Paper is available for download here. NTA is conducting the CUET 2026 exam from 11th May to 31st May.

  • CUET 2026 Accountancy exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes.
  • As per the marking scheme, 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.

Candidates can download CUET 2026 May 20 Shift 1 Accountancy Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.

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CUET 2026 Accountancy May 20 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

CUET May 20 Shift 1 Accountancy Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions


Question 1:

Which of the following statements most precisely reflects the doctrine of separate legal entity as established in corporate law?

  • (A) The company and its shareholders are economically identical, though legally separate only in limited circumstances
  • (B) The company is an artificial person with no independent existence beyond statutory recognition
  • (C) The company possesses an independent legal personality, capable of owning property, incurring liabilities, and suing or being sued in its own name, distinct from its members
  • (D) The company merely acts as an agent of its shareholders, who retain ultimate legal ownership of all assets and liabilities
Correct Answer: (C) The company possesses an independent legal personality, capable of owning property, incurring liabilities, and suing or being sued in its own name, distinct from its members
View Solution

The doctrine of: \[ Separate\ Legal\ Entity \]
means that a company has a legal existence separate from its owners or shareholders.
After incorporation:
The company becomes an independent legal person
It can own property in its own name
It can enter into contracts
It can sue or be sued
Members are distinct from the company
This principle was established in the famous case: \[ Salomon\ v.\ Salomon \& Co. Ltd. \]
Thus, the company is legally separate from its shareholders.
Option analysis:
Option (A): Incorrect because company and shareholders are legally distinct
Option (B): Incomplete explanation of separate legal entity
Option (C): Correct
Option (D): Incorrect because company is not merely an agent of shareholders
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: A company has: its own legal identity separate from its members


Question 2:

Which of the following most accurately explains the legal foundation governing the mutual rights and obligations of partners in a partnership firm, particularly in the absence of an express written contract?

  • (A) A formal offer made by one partner and accepted by others
  • (B) An agreement—express or implied—enforceable by law between all partners
  • (C) A mutual understanding based solely on trust and verbal communication
  • (D) An acceptance of business terms without the intention to create legal relationsCorrect Answer:
(B) An agreement—express or implied—enforceable by law between all partners
View Solution

According to the: Indian Partnership Act, 1932  partnership arises from: an agreement between persons who agree to share profits of a business carried on by all or any one of them acting for all.
The agreement may be:
Express
Implied
Written
Oral
Even in the absence of a written contract, the mutual rights and duties of partners are governed by: a legally enforceable agreement
Thus, partnership is based on: contractual relationship 
and not merely on trust or informal understanding.
Option analysis:
Option (A): Incorrect because partnership requires mutual agreement among all partners
Option (B): Correct
Option (C): Incorrect because legal enforceability is essential
Option (D): Incorrect because intention to create legal relations is necessary
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: Partnership is created through:  a lawful agreement between partners which may be written, oral, express or implied.


Question 3:

Which of the following is not an essential feature of partnership?

  • (A) It has at least two persons.
  • (B) An agreement exists between/among all the partners.
  • (C) Profits and losses are shared equally.
  • (D) Agreement is for a business.
Correct Answer: (C) Profits and losses are shared equally.
View Solution

A partnership firm is governed by the: Indian Partnership Act, 1932
The essential features of partnership are:
There must be at least two persons.
There must be an agreement among partners.
The agreement must be for carrying on a lawful business.
Profit-sharing must exist.
Business should be carried on by all or any one acting for all.
However: equal sharing of profits and losses is not compulsory
Partners may share profits and losses:
Equally
In agreed ratio
According to partnership deed
Thus: \[ equal sharing is not an essential feature \]
Option analysis:
Option (A): Essential feature
Option (B): Essential feature
Option (C): Correct
Option (D): Essential feature
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: Partnership requires: \[ profit sharing \] but not necessarily: \[ equal profit sharing \]


Question 4:

Mohan, a partner, withdrew \(Rs.~20,000\) on 1st April, 2024 and \(Rs.~40,000\) on 1st October, 2024. Interest on Drawings @ \(6%\) p.a. on 31st March, 2025 will be

  • (A) \(Rs.~2,400\)
  • (B) \(Rs.~3,600\)
  • (C) \(Rs.~1,800\)
  • (D) \(Rs.~1,200\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(Rs.~1,800\)
View Solution



Interest on drawings is calculated from the date of withdrawal till the end of the accounting year.

Step 1: Interest on first withdrawal

Amount withdrawn: \[ Rs.~20,000 \]
Date: \[ 1^st\ April, 2024 \]
Period: \[ 12\ months \]
Interest: \[ = \frac{20,000\times6\times12}{100\times12} \] \[ = Rs.~1,200 \]
Step 2: Interest on second withdrawal

Amount withdrawn: \[ Rs.~40,000 \]
Date: \[ 1^st\ October, 2024 \]
Period: \[ 6\ months \]
Interest: \[ = \frac{40,000\times6\times6}{100\times12} \] \[ = Rs.~1,200 \]
Step 3: Calculate total interest \[ Total Interest = 1,200+1,200 \] \[ = Rs.~2,400 \]
Thus: \[ \boxed{Rs.~2,400} \]
Option analysis:

Option (A): Correct
Option (B): Incorrect
Option (C): Incorrect
Option (D): Incorrect

Hence: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: Interest on drawings: \[ = \frac{Amount\timesRate\timesTime}{100} \] where time is calculated from date of withdrawal till year-end.


Question 5:

An act done by a partner in the course of the firm's business is:

  • (A) Binding on all partners only when expressly authorised by all co-partners
  • (B) Binding on the firm and all partners if done within the scope of implied authority
  • (C) Not binding on other partners unless ratified after the act is performed
  • (D) Binding only on the acting partner unless specifically approved in the partnership deed
Correct Answer: (B) Binding on the firm and all partners if done within the scope of implied authority
View Solution



Under the: \[ Indian Partnership Act, 1932 \]
every partner acts as: \[ an agent of the firm \]
and also: \[ an agent of other partners \]
Therefore, any act performed by a partner:

In the ordinary course of business
Within the scope of implied authority

is binding on: \[ the firm and all partners \]
Implied authority includes acts that are:

Necessary for carrying on business
Usually done in similar businesses
Within normal business operations

Option analysis:

Option (A): Incorrect because express permission is not always required
Option (B): Correct
Option (C): Incorrect because ratification is not necessary for acts within implied authority
Option (D): Incorrect because such acts bind the entire firm

Therefore: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: Every partner is: \[ an agent of the firm \] Hence acts done within implied authority bind all partners.


Question 6:

Nominal/Authorised Share Capital is

  • (A) that part of the share capital which is issued by the company.
  • (B) the amount of share capital which is actually applied for by the prospective shareholders.
  • (C) the maximum amount of share capital which a company is authorised to issue.
  • (D) the amount actually paid by the shareholders.
Correct Answer: (C) the maximum amount of share capital which a company is authorised to issue.
View Solution



Authorised Share Capital, also known as: \[ Nominal Capital \]
is the: \[ maximum amount of share capital \]
that a company is legally authorised to issue according to its: \[ Memorandum of Association \]
It represents the upper limit beyond which shares cannot be issued unless the authorised capital is increased legally.

Option analysis:

Option (A): Refers to Issued Capital
Option (B): Refers to Subscribed Capital
Option (C): Correct
Option (D): Refers to Paid-up Capital

Therefore: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: Authorised Capital: \[ Maximum capital a company can issue \]


Question 7:

When a company issues shares at a premium, the company can collect securities premium along with the following:

  • (A) Application money.
  • (B) Allotment money.
  • (C) Call money.
  • (D) Any of the above.
Correct Answer: (D) Any of the above.
View Solution



When shares are issued at a premium: \[ Issue Price>Face Value \]
The excess amount received over the face value is called: \[ Securities Premium \]
A company may collect securities premium along with:

Application money
Allotment money
Call money

depending upon the terms of issue decided by the company.

Thus securities premium is not restricted to any one stage of share collection.

Option analysis:

Option (A): Possible
Option (B): Possible
Option (C): Possible
Option (D): Correct

Therefore: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: Securities Premium: \[ = Issue Price - Face Value \] It may be collected with application, allotment or calls.


Question 8:

Provisions of the Partnership Act, 1932 are applied

  • (A) if a Partnership Deed does not exist.
  • (B) If Partnership Deed exists but there are differences among the partners.
  • (C) if capital contribution by the partners is not same.
  • (D) If Partner's salary is not provided in the Partnership Deed.
Correct Answer: (A) if a Partnership Deed does not exist.
View Solution



A Partnership Deed is a written agreement containing:

Rights of partners
Duties of partners
Profit-sharing ratio
Interest on capital
Salary and other terms

When a Partnership Deed: \[ does not exist \]
or when certain matters are not mentioned in the deed, then the provisions of the: \[ Indian Partnership Act, 1932 \]
become applicable.

These provisions are known as: \[ rules applicable in the absence of partnership deed \]
Option analysis:

Option (A): Correct
Option (B): Differences among partners do not automatically apply the Act
Option (C): Unequal capital contribution is allowed in partnership
Option (D): Only specific omitted clauses are governed by the Act, but the general condition is absence of deed

Therefore: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: If no Partnership Deed exists: \[ Indian Partnership Act, 1932 applies \]


Question 9:

Which of the following items, though related to partners, is not an appropriation of profit but rather a charge against profits, and therefore is excluded from the Profit \& Loss Appropriation Account?

  • (A) Interest on Partner's Capital provided as per partnership agreement
  • (B) Interest on Drawings charged to partners for use of firm's funds
  • (C) Rent paid to a partner for the use of their property by the firm under a separate contractual arrangement
  • (D) Partner's Salary allowed as per partnership deed
Correct Answer: (C) Rent paid to a partner for the use of their property by the firm under a separate contractual arrangement
View Solution

Items related to partners are generally classified into:

Appropriations of profit
Charges against profit

Appropriations of profit are recorded in: \[ Profit \& Loss Appropriation Account \]
Examples:

Interest on Capital
Partner's Salary
Commission to Partners

However, rent paid to a partner for use of their property is treated as: \[ a business expense \]
because it arises from a separate contractual arrangement.

Therefore it is:

A charge against profits
Debited to Profit \& Loss Account
Not transferred to Profit \& Loss Appropriation Account

Option analysis:

Option (A): Appropriation of profit
Option (B): Credited in Appropriation Account
Option (C): Correct
Option (D): Appropriation of profit

Therefore: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: Rent paid to a partner for use of property is: \[ a charge against profits \] not an appropriation of profit.


Question 10:

Money received in advance from shareholders before it is actually called-up by the directors is

  • (A) Debited to Calls in Advance Account.
  • (B) Credited to Calls-in-Advance Account.
  • (C) Debited to Share Capital Account.
  • (D) Credited to Share Capital Account.
Correct Answer: (B) Credited to Calls-in-Advance Account.
View Solution

Sometimes shareholders pay: \[ future call money in advance \]
before it is formally demanded by the company.

Such amount is known as: \[ Calls in Advance \]
Since this amount is:

Received before becoming due
A liability for the company

it is credited to: \[ Calls-in-Advance Account \]
Journal entry: \[ Bank A/c Dr. \] \[ To Calls-in-Advance A/c \]
Thus: \[ Calls-in-Advance Account is credited \]
Option analysis:

Option (A): Incorrect
Option (B): Correct
Option (C): Incorrect
Option (D): Incorrect because amount is not yet part of called-up capital

Therefore: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: Calls in Advance is: \[ a liability of the company \] hence it is credited.

CUET UG 2026 Exam Pattern

Parameter Details
Exam Name Common University Entrance Test (CUET UG) 2026
Conducting Body National Testing Agency (NTA)
Exam Mode Computer-Based Test (CBT)
Exam Duration 60 minutes per test
Total Sections 3 (Languages, Domain Subjects, General Test)
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Questions per Test 50 questions (all compulsory)
Marking Scheme +5 for correct, -1 for incorrect
Maximum Marks 250 marks per test
Maximum Subject Choices 5 subjects in total
Syllabus Base Class 12 NCERT (mainly for Domain Subjects)

CUET UG 2026 Paper Analysis