CUET 2026 May 20 Shift 1 Accountancy Question Paper is available for download here. NTA is conducting the CUET 2026 exam from 11th May to 31st May.
- CUET 2026 Accountancy exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes.
- As per the marking scheme, 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.
Candidates can download CUET 2026 May 20 Shift 1 Accountancy Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.
Related Links:
- CUET 2026 May 20 Shift 1 Accountancy Answer Key
- CUET UG 2026 Accountancy Marks vs Expected Percentile and Colleges
CUET 2026 Accountancy May 20 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF
| CUET May 20 Shift 1 Accountancy Question Paper 2026 | Download PDF | Check Solutions |
Which of the following statements most precisely reflects the doctrine of separate legal entity as established in corporate law?
View Solution
The doctrine of: \[ Separate\ Legal\ Entity \]
means that a company has a legal existence separate from its owners or shareholders.
After incorporation:
The company becomes an independent legal person
It can own property in its own name
It can enter into contracts
It can sue or be sued
Members are distinct from the company
This principle was established in the famous case: \[ Salomon\ v.\ Salomon \& Co. Ltd. \]
Thus, the company is legally separate from its shareholders.
Option analysis:
Option (A): Incorrect because company and shareholders are legally distinct
Option (B): Incomplete explanation of separate legal entity
Option (C): Correct
Option (D): Incorrect because company is not merely an agent of shareholders
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: A company has: its own legal identity separate from its members
Which of the following most accurately explains the legal foundation governing the mutual rights and obligations of partners in a partnership firm, particularly in the absence of an express written contract?
View Solution
According to the: Indian Partnership Act, 1932 partnership arises from: an agreement between persons who agree to share profits of a business carried on by all or any one of them acting for all.
The agreement may be:
Express
Implied
Written
Oral
Even in the absence of a written contract, the mutual rights and duties of partners are governed by: a legally enforceable agreement
Thus, partnership is based on: contractual relationship
and not merely on trust or informal understanding.
Option analysis:
Option (A): Incorrect because partnership requires mutual agreement among all partners
Option (B): Correct
Option (C): Incorrect because legal enforceability is essential
Option (D): Incorrect because intention to create legal relations is necessary
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: Partnership is created through: a lawful agreement between partners which may be written, oral, express or implied.
Which of the following is not an essential feature of partnership?
View Solution
A partnership firm is governed by the: Indian Partnership Act, 1932
The essential features of partnership are:
There must be at least two persons.
There must be an agreement among partners.
The agreement must be for carrying on a lawful business.
Profit-sharing must exist.
Business should be carried on by all or any one acting for all.
However: equal sharing of profits and losses is not compulsory
Partners may share profits and losses:
Equally
In agreed ratio
According to partnership deed
Thus: \[ equal sharing is not an essential feature \]
Option analysis:
Option (A): Essential feature
Option (B): Essential feature
Option (C): Correct
Option (D): Essential feature
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: Partnership requires: \[ profit sharing \] but not necessarily: \[ equal profit sharing \]
Mohan, a partner, withdrew \(Rs.~20,000\) on 1st April, 2024 and \(Rs.~40,000\) on 1st October, 2024. Interest on Drawings @ \(6%\) p.a. on 31st March, 2025 will be
View Solution
Interest on drawings is calculated from the date of withdrawal till the end of the accounting year.
Step 1: Interest on first withdrawal
Amount withdrawn: \[ Rs.~20,000 \]
Date: \[ 1^st\ April, 2024 \]
Period: \[ 12\ months \]
Interest: \[ = \frac{20,000\times6\times12}{100\times12} \] \[ = Rs.~1,200 \]
Step 2: Interest on second withdrawal
Amount withdrawn: \[ Rs.~40,000 \]
Date: \[ 1^st\ October, 2024 \]
Period: \[ 6\ months \]
Interest: \[ = \frac{40,000\times6\times6}{100\times12} \] \[ = Rs.~1,200 \]
Step 3: Calculate total interest \[ Total Interest = 1,200+1,200 \] \[ = Rs.~2,400 \]
Thus: \[ \boxed{Rs.~2,400} \]
Option analysis:
Option (A): Correct
Option (B): Incorrect
Option (C): Incorrect
Option (D): Incorrect
Hence: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: Interest on drawings: \[ = \frac{Amount\timesRate\timesTime}{100} \] where time is calculated from date of withdrawal till year-end.
An act done by a partner in the course of the firm's business is:
View Solution
Under the: \[ Indian Partnership Act, 1932 \]
every partner acts as: \[ an agent of the firm \]
and also: \[ an agent of other partners \]
Therefore, any act performed by a partner:
In the ordinary course of business
Within the scope of implied authority
is binding on: \[ the firm and all partners \]
Implied authority includes acts that are:
Necessary for carrying on business
Usually done in similar businesses
Within normal business operations
Option analysis:
Option (A): Incorrect because express permission is not always required
Option (B): Correct
Option (C): Incorrect because ratification is not necessary for acts within implied authority
Option (D): Incorrect because such acts bind the entire firm
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: Every partner is: \[ an agent of the firm \] Hence acts done within implied authority bind all partners.
Nominal/Authorised Share Capital is
View Solution
Authorised Share Capital, also known as: \[ Nominal Capital \]
is the: \[ maximum amount of share capital \]
that a company is legally authorised to issue according to its: \[ Memorandum of Association \]
It represents the upper limit beyond which shares cannot be issued unless the authorised capital is increased legally.
Option analysis:
Option (A): Refers to Issued Capital
Option (B): Refers to Subscribed Capital
Option (C): Correct
Option (D): Refers to Paid-up Capital
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: Authorised Capital: \[ Maximum capital a company can issue \]
When a company issues shares at a premium, the company can collect securities premium along with the following:
View Solution
When shares are issued at a premium: \[ Issue Price>Face Value \]
The excess amount received over the face value is called: \[ Securities Premium \]
A company may collect securities premium along with:
Application money
Allotment money
Call money
depending upon the terms of issue decided by the company.
Thus securities premium is not restricted to any one stage of share collection.
Option analysis:
Option (A): Possible
Option (B): Possible
Option (C): Possible
Option (D): Correct
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: Securities Premium: \[ = Issue Price - Face Value \] It may be collected with application, allotment or calls.
Provisions of the Partnership Act, 1932 are applied
View Solution
A Partnership Deed is a written agreement containing:
Rights of partners
Duties of partners
Profit-sharing ratio
Interest on capital
Salary and other terms
When a Partnership Deed: \[ does not exist \]
or when certain matters are not mentioned in the deed, then the provisions of the: \[ Indian Partnership Act, 1932 \]
become applicable.
These provisions are known as: \[ rules applicable in the absence of partnership deed \]
Option analysis:
Option (A): Correct
Option (B): Differences among partners do not automatically apply the Act
Option (C): Unequal capital contribution is allowed in partnership
Option (D): Only specific omitted clauses are governed by the Act, but the general condition is absence of deed
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: If no Partnership Deed exists: \[ Indian Partnership Act, 1932 applies \]
Which of the following items, though related to partners, is not an appropriation of profit but rather a charge against profits, and therefore is excluded from the Profit \& Loss Appropriation Account?
View Solution
Items related to partners are generally classified into:
Appropriations of profit
Charges against profit
Appropriations of profit are recorded in: \[ Profit \& Loss Appropriation Account \]
Examples:
Interest on Capital
Partner's Salary
Commission to Partners
However, rent paid to a partner for use of their property is treated as: \[ a business expense \]
because it arises from a separate contractual arrangement.
Therefore it is:
A charge against profits
Debited to Profit \& Loss Account
Not transferred to Profit \& Loss Appropriation Account
Option analysis:
Option (A): Appropriation of profit
Option (B): Credited in Appropriation Account
Option (C): Correct
Option (D): Appropriation of profit
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: Rent paid to a partner for use of property is: \[ a charge against profits \] not an appropriation of profit.
Money received in advance from shareholders before it is actually called-up by the directors is
View Solution
Sometimes shareholders pay: \[ future call money in advance \]
before it is formally demanded by the company.
Such amount is known as: \[ Calls in Advance \]
Since this amount is:
Received before becoming due
A liability for the company
it is credited to: \[ Calls-in-Advance Account \]
Journal entry: \[ Bank A/c Dr. \] \[ To Calls-in-Advance A/c \]
Thus: \[ Calls-in-Advance Account is credited \]
Option analysis:
Option (A): Incorrect
Option (B): Correct
Option (C): Incorrect
Option (D): Incorrect because amount is not yet part of called-up capital
Therefore: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: Calls in Advance is: \[ a liability of the company \] hence it is credited.
CUET UG 2026 Exam Pattern
| Parameter | Details |
|---|---|
| Exam Name | Common University Entrance Test (CUET UG) 2026 |
| Conducting Body | National Testing Agency (NTA) |
| Exam Mode | Computer-Based Test (CBT) |
| Exam Duration | 60 minutes per test |
| Total Sections | 3 (Languages, Domain Subjects, General Test) |
| Question Type | Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) |
| Questions per Test | 50 questions (all compulsory) |
| Marking Scheme | +5 for correct, -1 for incorrect |
| Maximum Marks | 250 marks per test |
| Maximum Subject Choices | 5 subjects in total |
| Syllabus Base | Class 12 NCERT (mainly for Domain Subjects) |








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