CUET 2026 May 15 Shift 1 Political Science Question Paper is available for download here. NTA is conducting the CUET 2026 exam from 11th May to 31st May.

  • CUET 2026 Political Science exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes.
  • As per the marking scheme, 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.

Candidates can download CUET 2026 May 15 Shift 1 Political Science Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.

Related Links:

CUET 2026 Political Science May 15 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

CUET May 15 Shift 1 Political Science Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions


Question 1:

What was the major impact of the 1947 partition on the population?

  • (A) Economic prosperity
  • (B) Large-scale migration and violence
  • (C) Cultural renaissance
  • (D) Industrial growth
Correct Answer: (B) Large-scale migration and violence
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
The partition of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a significant geopolitical event.

Step 2: Meaning
Impact refers to the immediate and long-term consequences of this division on the people living in these territories.

Step 3: Analysis
The partition led to the displacement of millions of people as they moved across new borders based on religious identity. This period was marked by unprecedented communal violence, riots, and loss of life. Option (A), (C), and (D) are positive developments that were not characteristic of the immediate partition era.

Step 4: Conclusion
Therefore, the most direct and devastating impact on the population was the mass displacement and the subsequent violence.


Final Answer: (B) Quick Tip: Remember the "Two Ms" of Partition: Migration and Misery.


Question 2:

Consider the following statements and select the correct option with the help of the given formula:

i. The countries involved in the Non-Aligned Movement had established a new international economic system.
ii. The Non-Aligned Movement gave a platform to newly independent countries to remain separate from the superpowers.
iii. The first conference of the Non-Aligned was held in 1961 in Belgrade, Serbia.
iv. The first Non-Aligned Conference included 25 countries.

  • (A) i., ii.
  • (B) I, ii, iii
  • (C) I, Ii, Iii, iv
  • (D) only i
Correct Answer: (C) I, Ii, Iii, iv
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was an initiative by developing nations to stay neutral during the Cold War.

Step 2: Meaning
The "New International Economic Order" (NIEO) was a set of proposals advocated by NAM countries to change the international economic system to favor developing nations.

Step 3: Analysis
All statements are historically accurate: (i) refers to the push for NIEO; (ii) defines the core purpose of NAM; (iii) correctly identifies the 1961 Belgrade Summit; and (iv) confirms the participation of 25 founding member countries.

Step 4: Conclusion
Since all provided statements are true regarding the history and goals of NAM, option (C) is the correct choice.


Final Answer: (C) Quick Tip: NAM = Neutrality + NIEO. The Belgrade Summit in 1961 is the birth certificate of NAM.


Question 3:

When did polarity end?

  • (A) After the First World War
  • (B) After World War II
  • (C) After the Kenya crisis
  • (D) after the cold war
Correct Answer: (D) after the cold war
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
Polarity refers to the distribution of power in the international system. During the Cold War, the world was "bipolar," led by the USA and the USSR.

Step 2: Meaning
The "end of polarity" in this context refers to the collapse of the bipolar structure.

Step 3: Analysis
The disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991 officially ended the Cold War and the bipolar world order, leading to a period of US hegemony (unipolarity).

Step 4: Conclusion
Therefore, the specific system of Cold War bipolarity ended with the conclusion of the Cold War.


Final Answer: (D) Quick Tip: Bipolarity died when the Soviet Union dissolved in 1991.


Question 4:

What was the main function of the Warsaw Pact?

  • (A) To compete in Europe among NATO countries
  • (B) Never fight
  • (C) To maintain friendly relations with the countries included in NATO.
  • (D) None of them.
Correct Answer: (A) To compete in Europe among NATO countries
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
The Warsaw Pact was a collective defense treaty established by the Soviet Union and other Eastern Bloc nations in 1955.

Step 2: Meaning
It was the military response of the Eastern Bloc to the creation of NATO by Western nations.

Step 3: Analysis
The primary military objective of the Warsaw Pact was to counter the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) forces in Europe and maintain Soviet influence in Eastern Europe.

Step 4: Conclusion
Thus, its main function was to compete militarily and strategically against NATO member states.


Final Answer: (A) Quick Tip: Warsaw Pact is the Soviet "Mirror Image" of NATO.


Question 5:

Which country adopted the socialist model?

  • (A) Soviet Union
  • (B) Brazil
  • (C) America
  • (D) None of these.
Correct Answer: (A) Soviet Union
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
Economic models of development are generally divided into Capitalist and Socialist frameworks.

Step 2: Meaning
The socialist model emphasizes state ownership of means of production and a planned economy.

Step 3: Analysis
The United States (America) is the leading proponent of the capitalist model. The Soviet Union was the first state to implement the socialist model following the 1917 revolution.

Step 4: Conclusion
Therefore, the Soviet Union is the correct answer as its entire state ideology was built on socialism.


Final Answer: (A) Quick Tip: Soviet = Socialist. USA = Capitalist.


Question 6:

Who was the king of Manipur state?

  • (A) Raja Hari Singh
  • (B) Nizam
  • (C) Bodhchandra Singh
  • (D) None of these.
Correct Answer: (C) Bodhchandra Singh
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
Post-independence India had to integrate various princely states into the Union.

Step 2: Meaning
Identifying the specific monarch who ruled Manipur during the time of integration.

Step 3: Analysis
Raja Hari Singh was the ruler of Kashmir. The Nizam was the title of the ruler of Hyderabad. Maharaja Bodhchandra Singh was the ruler of Manipur who signed the Instrument of Accession.

Step 4: Conclusion
Maharaja Bodhchandra Singh is the historically correct ruler associated with Manipur.


Final Answer: (C) Quick Tip: Manipur-Bodhchandra. Remember the "M-B" link for Eastern states.


Question 7:

What is the memorandum of understanding signed by the princely states for merger with India called?

  • (A) Trust with Destiny
  • (B) Long awaited meeting with fortune bride
  • (C) Instrument of Accession
  • (D) None of these.
Correct Answer: (C) Instrument of Accession
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
To legally join the Indian Union, princely states had to sign a formal document.

Step 2: Meaning
This document ceded specific powers (Defense, Foreign Affairs, Communications) to the Government of India.

Step 3: Analysis
"Tryst with Destiny" was Nehru's speech. The legal document used for the merger of states was the "Instrument of Accession."

Step 4: Conclusion
The standard name for the merger agreement is the Instrument of Accession.


Final Answer: (C) Quick Tip: Accession means "joining." The document for joining is the Instrument of Accession.


Question 8:

Which leader's visit to China in 1988 helped improve Sino-Indian relations?

  • (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (B) Rajiv Gandhi
  • (C) Indira Gandhi
  • (D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Correct Answer: (B) Rajiv Gandhi
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
Diplomatic relations between India and China were severely strained after the 1962 war.

Step 2: Meaning
A landmark visit was required to normalize ties.

Step 3: Analysis
Rajiv Gandhi visited China in December 1988. It was the first visit by an Indian Prime Minister to China in 34 years and marked the beginning of a new phase in bilateral relations.

Step 4: Conclusion
Rajiv Gandhi is the leader whose 1988 visit thawed the relations between the two countries.


Final Answer: (B) Quick Tip: 1988 = Rajiv Gandhi. It was the "Ice-breaking" visit to Beijing.


Question 9:

After independence, what percent of India's population was Muslim in the year 1951?

  • (A) 5%
  • (B) 12%
  • (C) 10%
  • (D) 15%
Correct Answer: (B) 12%
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
Demographic data from the first census of independent India helps understand the social fabric post-partition.

Step 2: Meaning
Census 1951 recorded the religious distribution of the remaining population after the mass migrations of 1947.

Step 3: Analysis
According to the 1951 census figures, the Muslim population in India stood at approximately 12 percent.

Step 4: Conclusion
The statistical data confirms that 12% is the correct figure for the year 1951.


Final Answer: (B) Quick Tip: Remember 12% for the 1951 Census.


Question 10:

Who among the following is known as "Marginal Gandhi"?

  • (A) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (B) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
  • (C) Khan to Rajiv Gandhi
  • (D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Correct Answer: (D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
View Solution

Step 1: Concept
In Indian history, certain leaders were given titles based on their region or their adherence to specific ideologies, particularly Gandhian principles.

Step 2: Meaning
"Marginal Gandhi" or "Frontier Gandhi" (Seemant Gandhi) refers to a leader from the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP) who was a staunch follower of non-violence and Mahatma Gandhi.

Step 3: Analysis
Mahatma Gandhi is the "Father of the Nation." Mohammad Ali Jinnah is known as "Qaid-e-Azam." Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a Pashtun leader and founder of the Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of God), led a non-violent movement against British rule in the frontier regions, earning him this title.

Step 4: Conclusion
Therefore, the title "Marginal Gandhi" specifically identifies Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.


Final Answer: (D) Quick Tip: "Seemant" means "Frontier/Border." Think of the leader from the border province who followed Gandhi's path.

CUET UG 2026 Exam Pattern

Parameter Details
Exam Name Common University Entrance Test (CUET UG) 2026
Conducting Body National Testing Agency (NTA)
Exam Mode Computer-Based Test (CBT)
Exam Duration 60 minutes per test
Total Sections 3 (Languages, Domain Subjects, General Test)
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Questions per Test 50 questions (all compulsory)
Marking Scheme +5 for correct, -1 for incorrect
Maximum Marks 250 marks per test
Maximum Subject Choices 5 subjects in total
Syllabus Base Class 12 NCERT (mainly for Domain Subjects)

CUET UG 2026 Question Paper Analysis