CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Question Paper 2024 Available: Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Collegedunia Team

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CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Question Paper 2024 PDF is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Physical Education exam on March 12, 2024, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The total marks for the theory paper are 70. The question paper contains 20% MCQ-based questions, 40% competency-based questions, and 40% short and long answer type questions. Students reported the exam to be of moderate difficulty level. 

Candidates can use the link below to download the CBSE Class 12 History Set 1 Question Paper with detailed solutions.

CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key

CBSE Class 12 2024 Physical Education​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

CBSE Class 12 2024 Physical Education Questions with Solutions


SECTION A

Question 1:
Which of the following pranayama is helpful to reduce obesity?

  • (a) Kapalbhati Pranayama
  • (b) Anulom Vilom Pranayama
  • (c) Suryabhedan Pranayama
  • (d) Sheetali Pranayama
Correct Answer: (a) Kapalbhati Pranayama
View Solution

Kapalbhati Pranayama involves forceful exhalations and passive inhalations. This rapid breathing technique helps in increasing the metabolic rate, which aids in burning calories and reducing fat. It tones abdominal muscles and improves digestion, both crucial for weight management. Anulom Vilom, while beneficial for overall health, focuses on balancing the flow of energy, and Suryabhedan Pranayama primarily energizes the body. Sheetali Pranayama is a cooling breath that may not directly contribute to weight loss. Quick Tip: Remember the specific benefits of different Pranayama techniques. Kapalbhati is your go-to for weight management due to its effect on metabolism and digestion.


Question 2:

International Paralympic Committee was formed in ________.

  • (a) 1985
  • (b) 2003
  • (c) 1989
  • (d) 2001
Correct Answer: (c) 1989
View Solution

The International Paralympic Committee (IPC) was founded in 1989. The IPC is the global governing body of the Paralympic Movement. It organizes the Paralympic Games and acts as the International Federation for nine sports, supervising and coordinating World Championships and other competitions. It's important to distinguish the IPC's founding from other disability sports organizations. Quick Tip: Remembering key dates in sports history, such as the formation of governing bodies, can be helpful for multiple-choice questions.


Question 3:

Which of the following is NOT the cause of Food Intolerance?

  • (a) Toxins formation due to food poisoning
  • (b) Absence of an enzyme
  • (c) Roughage
  • (d) Gluten
Correct Answer: (c) Roughage
View Solution

Food intolerance occurs when a person has difficulty digesting a particular food. This can be due to various factors: lack of a specific enzyme necessary for breaking down a food component (like lactase for lactose), a reaction to chemicals or toxins present in the food, or sensitivity to certain food proteins like gluten. Roughage, which is dietary fiber, is essential for healthy digestion and isn't a cause of food intolerance itself. In fact, lack of roughage can cause digestive problems. Quick Tip: Understand the difference between food intolerance (digestive difficulty) and food allergy (immune response). Food intolerance is generally linked to missing enzymes or reactions to specific components.


Question 4:

Given below are two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) is the number of calories needed to maintain body function at resting condition.

Reason (R): A person who does not engage in any work, still requires energy for the functioning of their internal organs.

In the context of the above two statements, which of the following option is correct?

  • (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
View Solution

BMR represents the minimum energy required to keep the body functioning at rest, including vital functions like breathing, circulation, and cell production. Even when not actively engaged in physical activity, the body needs energy to sustain these processes. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason correctly explains why BMR is essential even without external work. Quick Tip: BMR is the baseline energy expenditure. It's the minimum energy your body needs just to exist, even when asleep!


Question 5:

Given below are functions of Sports Management in List-I and their Explanation in List-II :
Lists
Match the items of List-I with List-II and choose the correct option from the following:
OPTIONS

Correct Answer: (c) I-2, II-4, III-1, IV-3
View Solution

Planning (I) involves charting a future course of action (2). Controlling

(II) focuses on measuring performance against standards and identifying discrepancies (4). Directing

(III) involves guiding and motivating people towards goals (1).
Staffing (IV) ensures appropriate talent allocation to specific tasks (3).
Quick Tip: Relate each management function to its core purpose: Planning sets the direction, Controlling monitors progress, Directing guides actions, and Staffing provides resources.


Question 6:

Given below are two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : In a normal standing posture, both knees touch each other, while there is a gap of 3-4 inches between the ankles.

Reason (R) : It is due to Genu Valgum and it can develop due to an injury or infection in the knee or leg, rickets, severe lack of vitamin D and calcium, obesity, or arthritis in the knee.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following option is correct?

  • (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
View Solution

Step 1: Determine the correctness of Assertion (A): A normal standing posture typically has a small gap between the knees, not the ankles, with feet approximately shoulder-width apart for stability. The posture described where the knees touch while the ankles are apart (Genu Valgum) isn't normal, but a misalignment.

Step 2: Analyze the correctness of Reason (R): Reason (R) explains Genu Valgum, which is a condition characterized by the knees angling inward and touching. The conditions described like injury, rickets, Vitamin D deficiency, obesity, or arthritis correctly lists reasons that can cause this condition to develop.

Step 3: Determine if Reason (R) is the correct explanation: While the assertion that the posture described is considered normal is incorrect, Genu Valgum can be present where the knees touch together and the ankles are somewhat apart, making the condition that the Reason is describing directly related to the state in the assertion. Therefore the two have a direct relation.
Quick Tip: Carefully analyze the assertion to see if it accurately reflects the typical case. A thorough understanding of what’s typical and what’s a condition is essential. Visualize correct posture. Knees slightly apart, feet shoulder-width apart, provides stability and balance.


Question 7:

In which of the following fitness component an athlete gives better performance, if he/she has more slow twitch fibre in comparison to fast twitch fibres?

  • (a) Speed
  • (b) Strength
  • (c) Endurance
  • (d) Flexibility
Correct Answer: (c) Endurance
View Solution

Slow-twitch muscle fibers are designed for endurance activities. They contract slowly and resist fatigue, making them ideal for prolonged exercise like long-distance running or cycling. Fast-twitch fibers, while powerful for short bursts, fatigue quickly and are better suited for activities requiring speed and strength, such as sprinting or weightlifting. Quick Tip: Associate slow-twitch with “slow and steady" endurance, and fast-twitch with “fast and furious" short-duration power.


Question 8:

Identify the factor which decreases equilibrium.

  • (a) Larger base
  • (b) Greater weight
  • (c) Lower centre of gravity
  • (d) Higher centre of gravity
Correct Answer: (d) Higher centre of gravity
View Solution

Equilibrium, or balance, is enhanced by a lower center of gravity and a wider base of support. A higher center of gravity makes an object more likely to tip over. Greater weight can contribute to stability if the center of gravity remains low. Imagine a pyramid: wide base, low center = stable; tall, narrow = unstable. Quick Tip: Think “low and wide" for stability. A wrestler lowers their center of gravity and widens their stance for better balance.


Question 9:

Identify the characteristic of introvert personality.

  • (a) Meet unknown people easily
  • (b) Self-centered
  • (c) Highly socialized
  • (d) Expressive nature
Correct Answer: (b) Self-centered
View Solution

Introverts tend to be more focused on their inner thoughts and feelings. While not necessarily “selfish" they gain energy from solitude and may be less inclined to readily socialize with new people. Extroverts, conversely, are often expressive and thrive in social interactions. Self-centeredness, a focus on oneself, is better aligned with introversion. Quick Tip: Introverts recharge in solitude; extroverts recharge in social settings. Self-centeredness implies a focus inward, a trait more common in introverts.


Question 10:

Jump for smash in volleyball is an example of ________.

  • (a) Static strength
  • (b) Maximum strength
  • (c) Explosive strength
  • (d) Strength endurance
Correct Answer: (c) Explosive strength
View Solution

A volleyball smash requires a rapid, powerful movement. This is a demonstration of explosive strength, which combines speed and strength. Static strength involves holding a position without movement, maximum strength is the peak force exerted, and strength endurance is the ability to sustain repeated contractions. Quick Tip: Explosive strength is “quick power" like a jump or a throw. Other strength types involve different speeds and durations of force application.


Question 11:

Which of the following is the objective of Intramural competition?

  • (a) To achieve high performance
  • (b) To provide career opportunities
  • (c) To promote health and fitness
  • (d) To promote cultural and economic development
Correct Answer: (c) To promote health and fitness
View Solution

Intramural competitions are held within a school or organization. The primary goal is participation, recreation, and promoting a healthy lifestyle amongst students or members. These are not career-oriented or designed for elite-level performance (like interscholastic or international competitions). The focus is on fun, fitness, and building social connections within the community. Quick Tip: “Intra" means within. Intramurals are for participation and fun inside a group. “Inter" means between; interscholastic competitions are between schools.


Question 12:

According to W.H.O. (World Health Organisation) recommendations, children of ____________ should be engaged in physical activities for 180 minutes and should have 10-13 hours of good quality sleep per day.

  • (a) Less than 1 year
  • (b) 1-2 year
  • (c) 3-4 year
  • (d) 5-17 year
Correct Answer: (c) 3-4 year
View Solution

The WHO recommends that children aged 3-4 years should have at least 180 minutes (3 hours) of physical activity of any intensity spread throughout the day, including active play, structured exercise, and travel to and from places. This age group also requires 10-13 hours of good quality sleep, which is critical for growth, development, and cognitive function. The WHO provides different recommendations for various age groups based on their developmental needs. Quick Tip: Physical activity and adequate sleep are vital for children's health. Remember the 3-hour activity guideline for preschoolers.


Question 13:

Identify the asana shown in the picture given below and choose the correct option from the following:

Picture

  • (a) Bhujangasana
  • (b) Katichakrasana
  • (c) Pawanmuktasana
  • (d) Shalabhasana
Correct Answer: (d) Shalabhasana
View Solution

The image depicts Shalabhasana (Locust Pose). This pose strengthens the back muscles, improves posture, and stimulates abdominal organs. It is distinct from Bhujangasana (Cobra Pose), Katichakrasana (Standing Spinal Twist), and Pawanmuktasana (Wind-Relieving Pose). Quick Tip: Shalabhasana resembles a locust with the body lifted off the ground. Note the distinct arm and leg positioning in each asana.


Question 13:
(For Visually Impaired Candidates Only)

Which of the following asana is useful for relaxation and removing fatigue?

  • (a) Chakrasana
  • (b) Shavasana
  • (c) Makarasana
  • (d) Uttanpadasana
Correct Answer: (b) Shavasana
View Solution

Shavasana, also known as Corpse Pose, is specifically designed for relaxation. It involves lying flat on the back with arms and legs slightly spread, promoting complete physical and mental stillness. This allows the body to release tension and deeply rest, effectively reducing fatigue. Other asanas like Chakrasana (Wheel Pose), Makarasana (Crocodile Pose), and Uttanpadasana (Raised Legs Pose) have different focuses related to strength, flexibility, or digestion, and are not primarily intended for relaxation. Quick Tip: Shavasana is unique in its focus on complete stillness and rest. It's the ultimate “letting go" pose in yoga.


Question 14:

Which is the main governing body responsible for the organization of Deaflympics?

  • (a) World Deaf Champions Committee
  • (b) National Sports Federation
  • (c) International Co-ordinating Committee Sports for Disabled
  • (d) International Committee of Sports for the Deaf
Correct Answer: (d) International Committee of Sports for the Deaf
View Solution

The International Committee of Sports for the Deaf (ICSD) is the main governing body responsible for organizing the Deaflympics, also known as the Deaflympic Games. The ICSD is recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and promotes sports for deaf athletes at an international level. While National Sports Federations may play a role in selecting and training athletes, they are not the overall governing body for the Deaflympics. The International Co-ordinating Committee Sports for Disabled (ICC) is a broader organization addressing disability sports in general, and the World Deaf Champions Committee is not the official name of the governing body. Quick Tip: The ICSD is dedicated specifically to deaf sports, similar to how the IOC governs the Olympics.


Question 15:

Body Mass Index is one of the common way of assessing healthy body weight. Which of the following BMI range is considered for healthy weight?

  • (a) 25.0 – 29.9
  • (b) 30.0 – 34.9
  • (c) 18.5 – 24.9
  • (d) 35.0 – 39.9
Correct Answer: (c) 18.5 - 24.9
View Solution

A BMI between 18.5 and 24.9 is generally considered healthy. Below 18.5 is underweight, 25.0-29.9 is overweight, and 30.0 and above is obese. BMI provides a quick assessment of weight status relative to height. Quick Tip: Remember the healthy BMI range: 18.5 to 24.9. BMI provides a general indicator of health risks associated with weight.


Question 16:

In partial curl up test the difference between two parallel lines is ________.

  • (a) 8 inches
  • (b) 4 inches
  • (c) 6 inches
  • (d) 10 inches
Correct Answer: (c) 6 inches
View Solution

In the partial curl-up test, two parallel lines are marked 6 inches apart. This distance standardizes the movement and ensures consistency in measuring abdominal strength and endurance. The individual performs curl-ups, reaching forward to touch the second line. Quick Tip: The 6-inch gap in the partial curl-up test is key to accurate measurement. It regulates the range of motion for each curl-up.


Question 17:

Goal setting is a _____________ approach, under motivational technique.

  • (a) Cognitive
  • (b) Pedagogical
  • (c) Social
  • (d) Facilitation
Correct Answer: (a) Cognitive
View Solution

Goal setting is a cognitive strategy involving conscious thought processes. It requires individuals to plan, strategize, and mentally prepare to achieve desired outcomes. This mental aspect distinguishes it from pedagogical (teaching), social (interaction-based), or facilitation (support-oriented) approaches. Quick Tip: Goal setting is a “mind game". It's about mental focus, planning, and visualizing success.


Question 18:

Which functional fitness component of senior citizens is determined in the test shown below?
exercise

  • (a) Physical Mobility
  • (b) Upper Body Flexibility
  • (c) Lower Body Flexibility
  • (d) Upper Body Strength
Correct Answer: (c) Lower body flexibility
View Solution

The Chair Sit and Reach test assesses lower body flexibility, particularly hamstring and lower back flexibility. It does not directly measure physical mobility (overall movement capacity), upper body flexibility, or upper body strength. Quick Tip: The Chair Sit and Reach test focuses on flexibility in the lower body, essential for everyday activities like bending and reaching.


Question 18:
(For Visually Impaired Candidates Only)
Which of the following test determines the upper body strength of a senior citizen?

  • (a) Chair Stand Test
  • (b) Back Scratch Test
  • (c) Arm-Curl Test
  • (d) Chair Sit and Reach Test
Correct Answer: (c) Arm-Curl Test
View Solution

The Arm-Curl Test specifically measures upper body strength in seniors. It involves performing bicep curls with a light weight (e.g., 5 pounds for women, 8 pounds for men) for a set number of repetitions (e.g., 30 seconds). The Chair Stand Test assesses lower body strength and endurance, the Back Scratch Test measures upper body flexibility, and the Chair Sit and Reach Test evaluates lower body flexibility. Quick Tip: The Arm-Curl Test is a safe and effective way to assess upper body strength, important for maintaining independence and functional capacity in older adults.


Section B

Question 19:
Describe the second class lever with a suitable example from sports.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

A second-class lever is characterized by the load (resistance) being positioned between the fulcrum (pivot point) and the effort (force). This arrangement magnifies the force applied, making it easier to move heavy loads with less effort. The mechanical advantage of a second-class lever is always greater than 1.

Example in Sports: Calf raises. When you stand on your toes, the ball of your foot acts as the fulcrum. The weight of your body acts as the load, concentrated in the middle of your foot. The effort is applied by your calf muscles, pulling upwards on the heel bone. This lever system allows your calf muscles to lift your entire body weight with relative ease. Quick Tip: Remember FLE (Fulcrum-Load-Effort) for second-class levers. Imagine a wheelbarrow: the wheel is the fulcrum, the load is in the center, and you lift the handles (effort).


Question 20:
Enlist four test items of Johnson – Metheny Test of Motor Educability.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The Johnson-Metheny Test of Motor Educability assesses an individual's gross motor skills and their ability to learn and perform new motor tasks. The four test items are:


1. Front Roll: Assesses coordination, body control, and spatial awareness.

2. Back Roll: Similar to the front roll, evaluating coordination and body awareness in a different plane of movement.

3. Jumping Half-Turns: Requires coordination, balance, and the ability to change direction quickly.

4. Jumping Full-Turns: A more complex movement, demanding greater control, balance, and coordination.
Quick Tip: The Johnson-Metheny test helps identify areas of strength and weakness in gross motor abilities. These fundamental skills are building blocks for more specialized sports movements.


Question 21:

Write a short note on ‘Menarche'.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Menarche is the first occurrence of menstruation in females, marking the beginning of their reproductive life. It is a significant event during puberty, typically occurring between the ages of 8 and 15.


Physiological Significance: Menarche signals the maturation of the reproductive system, indicating that the ovaries have begun releasing eggs and the body is capable of pregnancy.

Hormonal Changes: It is triggered by a complex interplay of hormones, including estrogen and progesterone.

Psychological Impact: Menarche can have significant psychological impact on girls, as it signifies a transition into womanhood and can be associated with various emotions, anxieties, and cultural beliefs.

Factors Affecting Age of Onset: Several factors can influence the age of menarche, including genetics, nutrition, body weight, and overall health.
Quick Tip: Menarche is a normal biological process. Open communication and education can help girls understand and cope with the physical and emotional changes associated with puberty.


Question 22:

Enlist four asanas those help to control asthma.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Several asanas can be beneficial for managing asthma by improving breathing capacity, reducing stress, and strengthening respiratory muscles. Here are four examples:


1. Sukhasana (Easy Pose): This simple seated posture promotes relaxation and deep breathing, which can help manage asthma symptoms.

2. Bhujangasana (Cobra Pose): This backbend stretches the chest and opens the airways, improving lung capacity.

3. Matsyasana (Fish Pose): This posture stretches the throat and chest, improving respiratory function. It can be particularly helpful for those with asthma.

4. Ardha Matsyendrasana (Half Spinal Twist): This twisting asana massages the abdominal organs and improves the flexibility of the spine, which can indirectly aid in breathing.

Quick Tip: While these asanas can be helpful, asthma management requires a comprehensive approach, including medical guidance and prescribed medication. Yoga should be seen as a complementary therapy.


Question 23:

Write any two advantages of physical activities for children with special Needs (CWSN).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Physical activity is crucial for all children, but it holds particular significance for children with special needs (CWSN). Here are two key advantages:

1. Improved Physical Functioning: Physical activity can help CWSN develop and improve their gross and fine motor skills, balance, coordination, and overall physical fitness. This can lead to greater independence in daily activities and improved quality of life. Specific exercises and activities can be adapted to meet individual needs and abilities.


2. Enhanced Social and Emotional Well-being: Participating in physical activities, especially in inclusive settings, can boost self-esteem, reduce anxiety and stress, and foster a sense of belonging. Teamwork and interaction with peers can improve social skills and communication.
Quick Tip: Adapted physical education programs are designed to meet the unique needs of CWSN. Consult with specialists to create individualized activity plans.


Question 24:

Mention any two types of friction by giving suitable examples from sports.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Friction, the force resisting relative motion between surfaces, plays a critical role in sports. Here are two types with examples:

1. Static Friction: This is the friction that prevents two surfaces from sliding past each other when they are at rest. In weightlifting, static friction between the lifter's hands and the barbell is essential for gripping and lifting the weight. Similarly, a rock climber relies on static friction between their shoes and the rock face.

2. Sliding Friction: This friction occurs when two surfaces slide against each other. In skiing, sliding friction between the skis and the snow allows controlled descent down a slope. A baseball player sliding into a base experiences sliding friction, which helps slow them down. Quick Tip: Think of static friction as “grip" and sliding friction as “glide". Athletes manipulate friction to their advantage to control movement and enhance performance.


SECTION C

Question 25:
Mr. X performs the Harvard step test for 275 seconds and his pulse in 1–1.5 min after exercise was 100. Write the formula of fitness index score for Harvard step test and calculate the fitness index score of Mr. X.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The Harvard Step Test assesses cardiovascular fitness by measuring how quickly the heart rate recovers after exercise.

Formula:

Fitness Index = (Duration of Exercise in Seconds \( \times \) 100) / (5.5 \( \times \) Sum of Pulse Counts in Recovery Periods)

Calculation for Mr. X:

Duration of exercise = 275 seconds

Pulse count 1-1.5 min after exercise = 100 (We assume this is the sum of three 30-second pulse counts, as per standard protocol.)


Fitness Index = (275 \( \times \) 100) / (5.5 \( \times \) 100) = 50 Quick Tip: A higher fitness index indicates better cardiovascular fitness. Regular aerobic exercise can improve your score on this test.


Question 26:

Comment on the concept of talent identification and talent development.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Talent Identification is the process of recognizing individuals with the potential to excel in a particular sport or activity. It involves a multi-faceted assessment considering:


Physiological Factors: Strength, speed, endurance, flexibility, and other physical attributes.

Psychological Factors: Motivation, resilience, mental toughness, and focus.

Technical Skills: Proficiency in sport-specific techniques and skills.

Sociological Factors: Support systems, access to training facilities, and cultural influences.


Talent Development is the systematic process of nurturing identified talent through structured training, coaching, and competition. This includes:


Individualized Training Programs: Catering to the athlete's specific strengths and weaknesses.

Expert Coaching: Providing technical guidance and tactical support.

Competitive Opportunities: Allowing athletes to test their skills and gain experience.

Lifestyle Management: Education on nutrition, recovery, and other lifestyle factors that impact performance.
Quick Tip: Talent identification is just the first step. Talent development is the ongoing journey of maximizing potential through hard work, dedication, and a supportive environment.


Question 27:

Explain the responsibilities of any two committees during sports competition.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Various committees are essential for the smooth and efficient organization of sports competitions. Here are the responsibilities of two key committees:


1. Technical Committee: This committee oversees the technical aspects of the competition, ensuring fairness and adherence to the rules. Their responsibilities include:


Rule Enforcement: Interpreting and enforcing the rules of the specific sport.

Equipment Verification: Checking that all equipment used meets the required standards.

Judging and Officiating: Selecting and managing the judges and officials for the competition.

Resolving Disputes: Addressing any technical protests or disputes that may arise.


2. First Aid Committee: This committee is responsible for the health and safety of athletes and spectators during the competition. Their duties include:


First Aid Provision: Having qualified first aid personnel and equipment readily available to handle injuries or medical emergencies.

Emergency Procedures: Developing and implementing emergency procedures for transporting injured individuals to hospitals if necessary.

Communication: Maintaining clear communication channels with medical facilities and other relevant personnel.

Prevention: Implementing measures to prevent injuries, such as ensuring a safe playing environment.
Quick Tip: The Technical Committee ensures fair play, while the First Aid Committee prioritizes safety and well-being. Both are essential for a successful event.


Question 28:

Explain the procedure and benefits of any one asana for back pain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Bhujangasana (Cobra Pose): This asana strengthens back muscles and improves flexibility, potentially easing pain.

Procedure: Lie on your stomach, palms flat beneath your shoulders. Inhale, press into your palms, and lift your chest off the floor, arching your back. Hold, exhale, lower.

Benefits: Strengthens erector spinae (back muscles), increases spinal flexibility, stretches chest and shoulders, may reduce back pain. Quick Tip: Consult a doctor or physical therapist before starting any new exercise program, especially if you have existing back pain. Correct form is crucial to prevent further injury.


Question 29:

Write short note of Female Athlete Triad.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The Female Athlete Triad is a serious health condition that can affect female athletes, particularly those involved in sports emphasizing leanness or low body weight. It involves three interconnected components:

1. Low Energy Availability (LEA): This occurs when an athlete's energy intake is insufficient to meet the demands of their training and daily activities. It often stems from disordered eating, restrictive dieting, or an inadequate understanding of nutritional needs.

2. Amenorrhea: LEA can disrupt hormonal balance, leading to irregular or absent menstrual periods (amenorrhea). This can have long-term consequences for bone health and fertility.

3. Osteoporosis: Reduced estrogen levels associated with amenorrhea can lead to decreased bone mineral density and increase the risk of stress fractures and osteoporosis. Quick Tip: Early intervention is key in addressing the Female Athlete Triad. Athletes should prioritize balanced nutrition, consult with sports dieticians, and address any menstrual irregularities with a healthcare professional.


Question 30:

Describe any three physiological changes due to ageing.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Ageing brings about various physiological changes impacting physical capacity and overall health. Here are three key changes:

1. Decreased Cardiovascular Function: The heart muscle weakens, maximum heart rate declines, and blood vessels lose elasticity. This can lead to reduced aerobic capacity and increased fatigue.

2. Loss of Muscle Mass and Strength (Sarcopenia): Age-related decline in muscle mass can reduce strength and power, impacting mobility and increasing the risk of falls.

3. Decreased Bone Density (Osteoporosis): Bones lose density and become more brittle, making them more susceptible to fractures. This is particularly pronounced in post-menopausal women due to hormonal changes. Quick Tip: Regular exercise, especially strength training and weight-bearing activities, can help mitigate the physiological effects of aging and maintain functional independence.


SECTION D

Question 31:
A survey in an inclusive school setup found the discrepancies between the participation of normal and special child during annual sports meet. Study the table given below carefully:
31
Based on the above study and your knowledge, answer the following questions:

(a) As per the above table, in __________ event, there is no participation of Special Child.
(b) Participation of students with disabilities in regular physical education classes is known as ______________.
(c) Enlist any two strategies to make physical activities accessible for children with special needs.
(d) Motto of Special Olympic is ______________ .
OR
Motto of Paralympic is _____________ .
Correct Answer:

View Solution

(a) Solution: Long Jump Quick Tip: Analyze the data carefully. The table clearly shows zero participation of special needs children in the long jump event.

(b) Solution: Inclusion / Adaptive Physical Education
Quick Tip:Inclusion and adaptive physical education aim to provide opportunities for all students to participate and benefit from physical activity.

(c) Solution:1. Modified Equipment: Using lighter balls, larger targets, or adaptive sports equipment can make activities more accessible and enjoyable.
2. Peer Support and Buddies: Pairing students with disabilities with classmates who can provide assistance and encouragement fosters inclusion and positive social interaction.
Quick Tip:Focus on adapting activities to the individual’s abilities rather than limiting participation. Creativity and flexibility are key!

(d) Solution: Special Olympics Motto: “Let me win. But if I cannot win, let me be brave in the attempt.” OR “Joy and Happiness for all the children of the world.”

Paralympics Motto: “Spirit in motion”
Quick Tip:The Special Olympics emphasizes bravery and joy in participation. The Paralympics highlights the indomitable spirit of athletes with disabilities.


Question 31:
(For Visually Impaired Candidates Only)

Write short notes on ‘Paralympics’ and ‘Special Olympic’.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Paralympics: The Paralympic Games are a major international multi-sport event involving athletes with a wide range of disabilities, including impaired muscle power, impaired passive range of movement, limb deficiency, leg length difference, short stature, hypertonia, ataxia, athetosis, vision impairment, and intellectual impairment. They are held every two years, alternating between the Summer and Winter Paralympics, and follow immediately after the respective Olympic Games.

Special Olympics: The Special Olympics is a global movement providing year-round sports training and athletic competition in a variety of Olympic-type sports for children and adults with intellectual disabilities. The aim is to promote inclusion, acceptance, and empowerment through sports. The Special Olympics World Games are held every two years, alternating between Summer and Winter Games. Quick Tip: Both the Paralympics and Special Olympics offer incredible opportunities for athletes with disabilities to compete and achieve their full potential. They promote inclusion and celebrate athletic excellence.


Question 32:

Study the pictures given below:

Based on the above study and your knowledge, answer the following questions:
(a) Which type of fracture you see in image-1?
(b) When a bone breaks diagonally as shown in image-2, it is known as fracture.
(c) ___________fracture occurs when the broken ends of the bones are jammed together by the force of the injury.
(d) In which type of fracture bone is broken, splinted, or crushed into number of pieces?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

(a) Solution: Transverse fracture Quick Tip: A transverse fracture is a break straight across the bone.

(b) Solution: Oblique
Quick Tip:An oblique fracture occurs at an angle across the bone.

(c) Solution: Impacted
Quick Tip:In an impacted fracture, the broken ends of the bone are driven into each other.

(d) Solution: Comminuted
Quick Tip:A comminuted fracture results in multiple bone fragments.


Question 32:
(For Visually Impaired Candidates Only)

Describe types of fracture. (Any Four)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

1. Transverse Fracture: The break is in a straight line across the bone.

2. Oblique Fracture: The break is at an angle across the bone.

3. Spiral Fracture: The break spirals around the bone, often caused by a twisting force.

4. Comminuted Fracture: The bone is broken into three or more pieces.

5. Greenstick Fracture: The bone is bent and only partially broken; common in children.

6. Stress Fracture: A small crack in the bone, often caused by repetitive stress or overuse.

7. Compression Fracture: The bone is crushed or collapses, often occurring in the spine.

8. Avulsion Fracture: A fragment of bone is pulled away from the main bone by a tendon or ligament.

(Explain any 4 fractures from the above-mentioned fractures.) Quick Tip: Fractures are classified based on the pattern of the break. Prompt medical attention is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.


Question 33:

Study the fixture given below:
 
On the basis of the above study and your knowledge, answer the following questions:
(a) According to the above fixture, the total number of rounds will be ____________________.
(b) As shown in the fixture, if the winner team plays least number of matches, then which number of team is the winner?
(c) What is the formula for calculating the number of matches in a knockout
(d) If 16 teams are participating in a knockout tournament, then how many byes will be given to draw a knockout fixture?
OR
What is the formula for calculating the total number of byes in a knockout tournament?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

(a) Solution: 4 Quick Tip:Count the branching levels in the fixture to determine the number of rounds.

(b) Solution: 15
Quick Tip:The team with the bye in the final round plays the fewest matches.

(c) Solution: Number of matches = N – 1, where N = Number of teams
Quick Tip:In a knockout tournament, one team is eliminated after each match, so the number of matches is one less than the total number of teams.

(d) Solution: If the number of participating teams is 16, the answer will be 0 (zero) byes. If the number of participating teams is not a power of 2, byes are given in the first round to ensure a proper progression to the next rounds.
OR
No. of byes = (Next higher Power of 2 – Number of Teams)
Quick Tip:Byes are allocated to balance the fixture when the number of teams is not a power of 2.


Question 33:
(For Visually Impaired Candidates Only)

How ‘Sports Day’ and ‘Health Run’ contribute to spread health awareness and harmony? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Sports Day: Sports days promote health awareness by emphasizing the importance of physical activity and fitness. They provide a platform for participation in various sports and games, encouraging students to adopt a healthy and active lifestyle. Furthermore, sports days foster harmony by bringing students together in a spirit of friendly competition and teamwork. They encourage interaction and collaboration between students of different abilities and backgrounds.

Health Run: Health runs are organized to create awareness about specific health issues and promote the benefits of regular exercise. These events involve people of all ages and abilities, raising community awareness and fostering a sense of collective responsibility towards health and well-being. Health runs also provide an opportunity for people to come together, promoting social interaction and a sense of community. Quick Tip: Sports days and health runs are effective tools for promoting physical activity, creating health awareness, and building a sense of community.


SECTION E

Question 34:
What do you understand by Aggression in sports? Explain any 2 types of aggression by giving suitable example from sports.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Aggression in Sports: Aggression in sports refers to behavior directed towards another person with the intent to cause harm, either physically or psychologically, outside the rules of the game. It involves hostile or violent actions exceeding the accepted norms of competition.

Types of Aggression:

1. Instrumental Aggression: This type of aggression is used as a means to achieve a specific goal within the game, such as tackling an opponent in football to gain possession of the ball. Although it can involve physical contact, the primary intent is not to inflict harm but rather to achieve a strategic advantage.

2. Hostile Aggression: This involves actions intended primarily to harm or injure another player. It is often driven by anger, frustration, or the desire for revenge and is usually outside the rules of the game. An example would be a player deliberately hitting an opponent out of frustration after a perceived foul. Quick Tip: Instrumental aggression is strategic; hostile aggression is harmful. Recognize the intent behind aggressive actions to differentiate between types.


Question 35:

What is Balanced Diet? What is the significance of pre and post-competition meals for an athlete? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Balanced Diet: A balanced diet consists of the essential nutrients—carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water—in the right proportions to meet the body's energy and nutritional needs.

Significance of Pre and Post-Competition Meals:

* Pre-Competition Meal (1-4 hours before): The pre-competition meal aims to maximize energy stores (glycogen) and provide easily digestible fuel. It should be high in carbohydrates, moderate in protein, and low in fat and fiber to avoid digestive discomfort. Examples include pasta, rice, bread, and lean protein.

* Post-Competition Meal (within 2 hours after): This meal aims to replenish glycogen stores, repair muscle damage, and rehydrate the body. It should include carbohydrates, protein, and fluids. Examples include chocolate milk, smoothies, or a meal with lean protein, vegetables, and whole grains. Quick Tip: Fueling your body properly before and after competition can significantly impact performance and recovery. Consult a sports dietician for personalized nutrition plans.


Question 36:

What do you understand by projectile trajectory? Explain the factors affecting projectile trajectory in sports.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Projectile Trajectory: The path a projectile follows through the air under the influence of gravity and air resistance is called its trajectory. It is usually a parabolic curve.

Factors Affecting Trajectory:


1. Angle of Projection: The angle at which the projectile is released significantly affects its trajectory. A 45-degree angle generally results in the greatest horizontal distance for a given initial velocity.

2. Initial Velocity: The greater the initial speed at which the projectile is launched, the farther it will travel.

3. Gravity: Gravity acts downwards, causing the projectile's vertical velocity to decrease and eventually bringing it back to the ground.

4. Air Resistance: Air resistance opposes the motion of the projectile and can affect both its horizontal and vertical distance. The size, shape, and surface of the projectile, as well as wind conditions, influence air resistance.

5. Spin: Spin can cause a projectile to curve or deviate from its normal parabolic path due to the Magnus effect (the pressure difference created by spin). Quick Tip: Understanding projectile motion is crucial for optimizing performance in many sports like shot put, basketball, baseball, and soccer.


Question 37:

What is Endurance? Explain any two types of Endurance on the basis of duration of the activity with suitable examples from sports.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Endurance is the ability of the body to sustain prolonged physical activity without experiencing undue fatigue. It's crucial for success in many sports and essential for overall health.

Types of Endurance based on Duration:

1. Short-Term Endurance (45 seconds to 2 minutes): This type of endurance is utilized in activities requiring high intensity for a relatively short duration. An example would be an 800-meter run in track and field, where the athlete must maintain a fast pace for approximately two minutes. Short-term endurance primarily depends on anaerobic energy systems.

2. Long-Term Endurance (over 11 minutes): This refers to the ability to sustain lower-intensity activity for extended periods. Marathons, triathlons, and long-distance cycling are examples where long-term endurance is crucial. It relies primarily on aerobic energy systems. Quick Tip: Different types of endurance training target different energy systems. Short bursts of high-intensity exercise improve anaerobic capacity, while prolonged, lower-intensity activities boost aerobic endurance.



CBSE CLASS XII Questions

  • 1.
    Write vector form of Biot–Savart law.


      • 2.

        Flowering plants with hermaphrodite flowers have developed many reproductive strategies to ensure cross-pollination. Study the given outbreeding devices adopted by certain flowering plants and answer the questions that follow.

        Note : All plants belong to the same species. No pollen tube growth/inhibition of pollen germination on stigma. Pollen germination on stigma.

        • [(a)] Name and define the outbreeding device described in the above table.
        • [(b)] Explain what would have been the disadvantage to the plant in the absence of the given strategy.


          • 3.
            Untouchability is not only a crime, it is inhuman too. Why and how does Bama decide to fight against it? (Memories of Childhood)


              • 4.

                परसेवा का आनंद — 120 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए:


                  • 5.
                    Define the term mutual inductance. Deduce the expression for the mutual inductance of two long coaxial solenoids of the same length having different radii and different number of turns.


                      • 6.
                        Show that \( \mathbf{E} = \rho \mathbf{J} \) leads to Ohm's law. Write a condition in which Ohm's law is not valid for a material.

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