CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Question Paper 2025 with Solutions Set 2 ( Available)- Download PDF

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Sahaj Anand

Content Writer | Journalism Graduate | Updated 3+ months ago

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry exam was conducted on February 27, 2025, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM.  An estimated 17.5 lakh students are expected to appear for the exam across 7,800 centers in India and 26 other countries

The Chemistry theory paper has 70 marks, while 30 marks are allocated for the practical assessment. The paper is divided into Physical, Organic, and Inorganic Chemistry, and it includes numerical, conceptual, and application-based problems. The question paper includes multiple-choice questions (1 mark each), short-answer questions (3 marks each), and long-answer questions (5 marks each).

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Question Paper 2025 PDF (Set 2 - 56/2/2) is available for download here.

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Question Paper 2025 (Set 2 – 56/2/2) with Answer Key

CBSE Class 12 2025 Chemistry Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Available Soon


Question 1:

Assertion (A): Vitamin D cannot be stored in our body.
Reason (R): Vitamin D is fat-soluble vitamin and is not excreted from the body in urine.

  • (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
View Solution

Question 2:

Assertion (A): Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis.
Reason (R): Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with the anion formed by phthalimide.

  • (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
View Solution

Question 3:

Assertion (A): Cu cannot liberate \( H_2 \) on reaction with dilute mineral acids.
Reason (R): Cu has positive electrode potential.

  • (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
View Solution

Question 4:

Assertion (A): In a first order reaction, if the concentration of the reactant is doubled, its half-life is also doubled.
Reason (R): The half-life of a reaction does not depend upon the initial concentration of the reactant in a first order reaction.

  • (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
View Solution

Question 5:

Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of

  • (1) Vitamin B1
  • (2) Vitamin B2
  • (3) Ascorbic acid
  • (4) Glutamic acid
Correct Answer: (3) Ascorbic acid
View Solution

Question 6:

Nucleotides are joined together by

  • (1) Glycosidic linkage
  • (2) Peptide linkage
  • (3) Hydrogen bonding
  • (4) Phosphodiester linkage
Correct Answer: (4) Phosphodiester linkage
View Solution

Question 7:

Which of the following is/are examples of denaturation of protein?

  • (1) Coagulation of egg white
  • (2) Curdling of milk
  • (3) Clotting of blood
  • (4) Both (1) and (2)
Correct Answer: (4) Both (1) and (2)
View Solution

Question 8:

The conversion of phenol to salicylic acid can be accomplished by

  • (1) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
  • (2) Friedel-Crafts reaction
  • (3) Kolbe reaction
  • (4) Coupling reaction
Correct Answer: (1) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
View Solution

Question 9:

What will be formed after oxidation of secondary alcohol with chromic anhydride (CrO3)?

  • (1) Aldehyde
  • (2) Ketone
  • (3) Carboxylic acid
  • (4) Ester
Correct Answer: (2) Ketone
View Solution

Question 10:

Which is the correct IUPAC name for

  • (1) Methylchlorobenzene
  • (2) Toluene
  • (3) 1-Chloro-4-Methylbenzene
  • (4) 1-Methyl-4-Chlorobenzene
Correct Answer: (3) 1-Chloro-4-Methylbenzene
View Solution

Question 11:

The diamagnetic species is :

At. No. Co = 27, Fe =26, Ni= 28]

  • (1) \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \)
  • (2) \( [NiCl_4]^{2-} \)
  • (3) \( [Fe(CN)_6]^{3-} \)
  • (4) \( [CoF_6]^{3-} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \)
View Solution

Question 12:

The complex ions \([Co(NH_3)_5(NO_2)]^{2+}\) and \([Co(NH_3)_5(ONO)]^{2+}\) are called

  • (1) Ionization isomers
  • (2) Linkage isomers
  • (3) Co-ordination isomers
  • (4) Geometrical isomers
Correct Answer: (2) Linkage isomers
View Solution

Question 13:

The element having \([Ar]3d^{10}4s^1\) electronic configuration is

  • (1) Cu
  • (2) Zn
  • (3) Cr
  • (4) Mn
Correct Answer: (1) Cu
View Solution

Question 14:

The number of molecules that react with each other in an elementary reaction is a measure of the:

  • (1) activation energy of the reaction
  • (2) stoichiometry of the reaction
  • (3) molecularity of the reaction
  • (4) order of the reaction
Correct Answer: (3) molecularity of the reaction
View Solution

Question 15:

Which among the following is a false statement?

  • (1) Rate of zero order reaction is independent of initial concentration of reactant.
  • (2) Half-life of a zero order reaction is inversely proportional to the rate constant.
  • (3) Molecularity of a reaction may be zero.
  • (4) For a first order reaction, \( t_{1/2} = 0.693/k \).
Correct Answer: (3) Molecularity of a reaction may be zero.
View Solution

Question 16:

The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of \( MnO_4^- \) to \( MnO_2 \) is

  • (1) 1 F
  • (2) 3 F
  • (3) 5 F
  • (4) 6 F
Correct Answer: (3) 5 F
View Solution

Question 17:

(a) In the following pair of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes \( S_N1 \) reaction faster and why?


 

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 17:

(b) Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity towards \( S_N2 \) displacement: 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 18:

A reaction is of second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of the reactant is (i) doubled, (ii) reduced to half?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 19:

When \( FeCr_2O_4 \) is fused with \( Na_2CO_3 \) in the presence of air, it gives a yellow solution of compound (A). Compound (A) on acidification gives compound (B). Compound (B) on reaction with KCl forms an orange-colored compound (C). An acidified solution of compound (C) oxidizes \( Na_2SO_3 \) to (D). Identify (A), (B), (C), and (D).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 20:

Explain \( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \) is an inner orbital complex whereas \( [Ni(NH_3)_6]^{2+} \) is an outer orbital complex. [At. No. Co = 27, Ni = 28]

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 21:

(A) The rate constant for a zero-order reaction \( A \to P \) is 0.0030 mol L\(^{-1}\) s\(^{-1}\). How long will it take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 21:

(B) The decomposition of \( NH_3 \) on a platinum surface is a zero-order reaction. What are the rates of production of \( N_2 \) and \( H_2 \) if \( k = 2.5 \times 10^{-4} \, mol L^{-1} \, s^{-1} \)?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 22:

A solution containing 15 g urea (molar mass = 60 g mol\(^{-1}\)) per litre of solution in water has the same osmotic pressure (isotonic) as a solution of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol\(^{-1}\)) in water. Calculate the mass of glucose present in one litre of its solution.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 23:

Calculate \( \Lambda_m^0 \) for acetic acid and its degree of dissociation (\( \alpha \)) if its molar conductivity is 48.1 \( \Omega^{-1} \, cm^2 \, mol^{-1} \).

Given that
\( \Lambda_m^0 (HC) = 426 \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^2 \, mol^{-1} \),
\( \Lambda_m^0 (NaCl) = 126 \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^2 \, mol^{-1} \),
\( \Lambda_m^0 (CH_3COONa) = 91 \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^2 \, mol^{-1} \).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 24:

(a) Why is \( Cr^{2+} \) strongly reducing while \( Mn^{3+} \) is strongly oxidizing?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 24:

(b) Write two consequences of lanthanide contraction.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 24:

(c) Which element of the 3d series has the lowest enthalpy of atomisation and why?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 25:

Write IUPAC names of the following coordination entities:

(a) \( [Fe(en)_2Cl_2]^+ \)

(b) \( [Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Br]SO_4 \)

(c) \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 26:

(A) Explain the following reactions and write chemical equations involved:

(a) Wolff-Kishner reduction

(b) Etard reaction

(c) Cannizzaro reaction

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 26:

(B) Write the structures of A, B, and C in the following sequence of reactions:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 27:

(a) Define the following:

(i) Enantiomers

(ii) Racemic mixture

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 27:

(b) Why is chlorobenzene resistant to nucleophilic substitution reactions?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 28:

(a) Write the product obtained when D-glucose reacts with \( H_2N - OH \).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 28:

(b) Amino acids show amphoteric behaviour, why?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 28:

(c) Why can't vitamin C be stored in our body?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 29:

Amines have a lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom due to which they behave as Lewis base. Greater the value of \( K_b \) or smaller the value of \( pK_b \), stronger is the base. Amines are more basic than alcohols, ethers, esters, etc. The basic character of aliphatic amines should increase with the increase of alkyl substitution. But it does not occur in a regular manner as a secondary aliphatic amine is unexpectedly more basic than a tertiary amine in aqueous solutions. Aromatic amines are weaker bases than ammonia and aliphatic amines. Electron releasing groups such as \(–CH_3\), \(–NH_2\), etc., increase the basicity while electron-withdrawing substituents such as \(–NO_2\), –CN, halogens, etc., decrease the basicity of amines. The effect of these substituents is more at the p₊ than at m₋ position.

(a) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic character. Give reason:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 29:

(b) Why pKₐ of aniline is more than that of methylamine?

Correct Answer:
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Question 29:

(c) (i) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic character in an aqueous solution:

Correct Answer:
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Question 29:

(c) (ii) Why ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a good method to prepare pure amines?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 30:

The spontaneous flow of the solvent through a semipermeable membrane from a pure solvent to a solution or from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution is called osmosis. The phenomenon of osmosis can be demonstrated by taking two eggs of the same size. In an egg, the membrane below the shell and around the egg material is semipermeable. The outer hard shell can be removed by putting the egg in dilute hydrochloric acid. After removing the hard shell, one egg is placed in distilled water and the other in a saturated salt solution. After some time, the egg placed in distilled water swells up while the egg placed in salt solution shrinks. The external pressure applied to stop the osmosis is termed as osmotic pressure (a colligative property). Reverse osmosis takes place when the applied external pressure becomes larger than the osmotic pressure.

(a) Define reverse osmosis. Name one SPM which can be used in the process of reverse osmosis.

Correct Answer:
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Question 30:

(b) (i) What do you expect to happen when red blood corpuscles (RBC's) are placed in 0.5% NaCl solution?

Correct Answer:
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Question 30:

(b) (ii) Which one of the following will have higher osmotic pressure in 1 M KCl or 1 M urea solution? Justify your answer.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 30:

(c) Why osmotic pressure is a colligative property?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 31:

(A) An organic compound \( A \), molecular formula \( C_2H_6O \), oxidises with \( Cr_2O_7 \) to form a compound \( B \). Compound \( B \) on warming with iodine and aqueous solution of NaOH gives a yellow precipitate of compound \( C \). When compound \( A \) is heated with conc. \( H_2SO_4 \) at 413 K, it gives a compound \( D \), which on reaction with excess HI gives compound \( E \). Identify compounds \( A \), \( B \), \( C \), \( D \), and \( E \) and write chemical equations involved.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 31:

(B) (a) OR Write chemical equations of the following reactions:
(i) Phenol is treated with conc. \( HNO_3 \).

(ii) Propene is treated with \( B_2H_6 \) followed by oxidation by \( H_2O_2 / OH^- \).

(iii) Sodium t-butoxide is treated with \( CH_3Cl \).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 31:

(B) (b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol.

Correct Answer:
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Question 31:

(c) Arrange the following in increasing order of acid strength: phenol, ethanol, water.

Correct Answer:
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Question 32:

(A) (a) Give IUPAC name of \( CH_3 = CH - CH = CH - CHO \).

Correct Answer:
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Question 32:

(b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between propanal and propanone.

Correct Answer:
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Question 32:

(c) How will you convert the following:

(i) Toluene to benzoic acid.

(ii) Ethanol to propan-2-ol.

(iii) Propanal to 2-hydroxy propanoic acid.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 32:

(B) OR Complete each synthesis by giving missing starting material, reagent, or products:

Correct Answer:
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Question 33:

(A) (a) Calculate the standard Gibbs energy (\( \Delta G^\circ \)) of the following reaction at 25°C:
\[ Au(s) + Ca^{2+}(1M) \to Au^{3+}(1M) + Ca(s) \]
\[ E^\circ_{Au^{3+}/Au} = +1.5 \, V, \quad E^\circ_{Ca^{2+}/Ca} = -2.87 \, V \]

Predict whether the reaction will be spontaneous or not at 25°C.
[1 F = 96500 C mol\(^{-1}\)]

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 33:

(b) Tarnished silver contains \( Ag_2S \). Can this tarnish be removed by placing tarnished silverware in an aluminium pan containing an inert electrolytic solution such as NaCl? The standard electrode potential for the half reaction: \[ Ag_2S(s) + 2e^- \to 2Ag(s) + S^{2-}(aq) \, (E^\circ = -0.71 \, V) \] \[ Al^{3+}(aq) + 3e^- \to Al(s) \, (E^\circ = -1.66 \, V) \]

Correct Answer:
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Question 33:

(B) (a) (i) OR Define the following:

(i) Cell potential

Correct Answer:
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Question 33:

(a) (ii) Fuel cell

Correct Answer:
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Question 33:

(b) Calculate emf of the following cell at 25°C: \[ Zn(s) \, | \, Zn^{2+} (0.1M) \, || \, Cd^{2+} (0.01M) \, | \, Cd(s) \]
Given: \[ E^\circ_{Zn^{2+}/Zn} = -0.40 \, V, \quad E^\circ_{Cd^{2+}/Cd} = -0.76 \, V. \]

Correct Answer:
View Solution

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